# Difference between revisions of "1971 IMO Problems/Problem 1"

## Problem

Prove that the following assertion is true for $n=3$ and $n=5$, and that it is false for every other natural number $n>2:$

If $a_1, a_2,\cdots, a_n$ are arbitrary real numbers, then $(a_1-a_2)(a_1-a_3)\cdots (a_1-a_n)+(a_2-a_1)(a_2-a_3)\cdots (a_2-a_n)+\cdots+(a_n-a_1)(a_n-a_2)\cdots (a_n-a_{n-1})\ge 0.$