Difference between revisions of "Division of Zero by Zero"

m (Grammar and readability edits, lmk if it's not needed or wanted)
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=<math>0^1/0^1 </math>
=<math>0^1/0^1 </math>
= 0^(1-1)                                                                              [Laws of Indices, <math>a^m/a^n = a^m-n </math>]
= 0^(1-1)                                                                              [Laws of Indices, <math>a^m/a^n = a^{m-n} </math>]
= <math>0^0 </math>
= <math>0^0 </math>

Latest revision as of 16:09, 5 July 2022

Division of Zero by Zero, is an unexplained mystery, since decades in field of Mathematics and is refereed as undefined. This is been a great mystery to solve for any mathematician and rather to use limits to set value of Zero by Zero in differential calculus one of the Indian-Mathematical-Scientist Jyotiraditya Jadhav has got correct solution set for the process with a proof.

About Zero and it's Operators


The first recorded zero appeared in Mesopotamia around 3 B.C. The Mayans invented it independently circa 4 A.D. It was later devised in India in the mid-fifth century, spread to Cambodia near the end of the seventh century, and into China and the Islamic countries at the end of the eighth


"Zero and its operation are first defined by [Hindu astronomer and mathematician] Brahmagupta in 628," said Gobets. He developed a symbol for zero: a dot underneath numbers.

Detailed proof

We will form two solution sets (namely set(A) and set(B))

Solution set(A):

If we divide zero by zero then


We can write the 0 in the numerator as $(1-1)$ and in the denominator as $(1-1)$,

=$(1-1)/(1-1)$ equaling $1$

We can then write the 0 in the numerator as $(2-2)$ and in the denominator as $(1-1)$,


= $2 (1-1)/(1-1)$ [Taking 2 as common]

= $2$

We can even write the 0 in the numerator as $( \infty- \infty)$ and in the denominator as $(1-1)$,

=$( \infty-\infty)/(1-1)$

= $\infty(1-1)/(1-1)$ [Taking $\infty$ as common]

= $\infty$

So, the solution set(A) comprises of all real numbers.

set(A) = $\{- \infty.....-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3.... \infty\}$

Solution set(B):

If we divide zero by zero then


We know that the actual equation is $0^1/0^1$


= 0^(1-1) [Laws of Indices, $a^m/a^n = a^{m-n}$]

= $0^0$

=$1$ [Already proven<ref>https://brilliant.org/wiki/what-is-00/</ref>]

So, the solution set(B) is a singleton set

set(B) =$\{1\}$

Now we can get a finite value to division of $0/0$ by taking the intersection of both the solution sets.

Let the final solution set be $F$

$A\bigcap B$ = $F$

$\{- \infty.....-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3....\infty\}$ $\bigcap$ $\{1\}$

$F$ = $\{1\}$

Hence proving $0/0 =1$

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