Talk:Shoelace Theorem

Revision as of 18:10, 30 May 2015 by Greenpepper9999 (talk | contribs) (Proof)
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Perhaps we can use induction? But I do not know how to prove it nicely for a triangle. --1=2 12:50, 16 June 2008 (UTC)

I think that it has to do with the determinant of something; the form for a triangle is very similar to the determinant of a matrix. Volume 2 has a proof, if someone wants to copy it. ThinkFlow 20:32, 3 May 2009 (UTC)

Can we have a froof that doesn't use calculus? Greenpepper9999 (talk) 19:10, 30 May 2015 (EDT)

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