A Digression

by t0rajir0u, Oct 13, 2007, 7:02 PM

Apologies for not updating my blog in awhile! :oops: It just seemed that I had nothing interesting to talk about. However, now that I'm teaching a little class as part of the newly-formed Seattle Infinity Math Circle, I've brought up a few interesting things that might be worth posting. Here's one from last week, the Trigonometry lecture.


Exercise: Show that $ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin x}{x} = 1$.

Discussion: This is a consequence of the so-called "Sandwich Theorem," which states that if we have two functions $ f(x), g(x)$ such that $ \lim_{x \to a} f(x) = \lim_{x \to a} g(x) = L$, and a third function $ h(x)$ such that $ f(x) \le h(x) \le g(x)$, then $ \lim_{x \to a} h(x) = L$.

Consider the points $ O(0, 0), A(1, 0), P(\cos \theta, \sin \theta)$ for a small radian angle $ \theta$. It's well known that the length of arc $ AP$ is simply $ \theta$. The perpendicular from $ P$ to $ OA$ has length $ \sin \theta$, and is clearly shorter than arc $ AP$. Moreover, extending $ P$ to the point $ Q(1, \tan \theta)$, we have a geometric view of the inequalities (for small $ \theta$)

$ \sin \theta < \theta < \tan \theta \Leftrightarrow$
$ \frac{1}{\sin \theta} > \frac{1}{\theta} > \frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta} \Leftrightarrow$
$ 1 > \frac{\sin \theta}{\theta} > \cos \theta$

As $ \theta \to 0$, the Sandwich Theorem allows us to conclude the result.


Although the above is a result usually introduced in calculus (it is necessary to establish the derivatives of $ \sin, \cos$), many high-school problem solvers are already familiar with it. It is necessary, however, as the last step in establishing an identity for $ \pi$ first due to Vieta. (The motivation for Vieta's discovery was geometric - approximating a circle using a square, then an octagon, then a $ 16$-gon, ad infinitum - but this algebraic presentation is nicer, in my opinion.)


The familiar double-angle identity for $ \sin$ can be written as

$ \sin x = 2 \sin \frac{x}{2} \cos \frac{x}{2}$

Repeated application of this identity to the $ \sin$ factor in the RHS produces the sequence of identities

$ \begin{eqnarray*} \sin x &=& 2 \sin \frac{x}{2} \cos \frac{x}{2} \\ &=& 4 \sin \frac{x}{4} \cos \frac{x}{4} \cos \frac{x}{2} \\ &=& 8 \sin \frac{x}{8} \cos \frac{x}{8} \cos \frac{x}{4} \cos \frac{x}{2} \\ &=& ... \\ &=& 2^k \sin \frac{x}{2^k} \cos \frac{x}{2^k} ... \cos \frac{x}{2} \end{eqnarray*}$

Now,

$ \lim_{k \to \infty} 2^k \sin \frac{x}{2^k} = \lim_{k \to \infty} x \cdot \frac{ \sin \frac{x}{2^k} }{ \frac{x}{2^k} } = x$

so taking $ k$ to infinity and dividing by $ x$, we have

$ \frac{\sin x}{x} = \cos \frac{x}{2} \cos \frac{x}{4} \cos \frac{x}{8} ...$

But wait! There's more! Substituting $ x = \frac{\pi}{2}$, we have the identity

$ \frac{2}{\pi} = \cos \frac{\pi}{4} \cos \frac{\pi}{8} \cos \frac{\pi}{16} ...$

We are still not done. Repeated application of the cosine half-angle formula yields the beautiful identity

$ \frac{2}{\pi} = \sqrt{ \frac{1}{2} } \cdot \sqrt{ \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{ \frac{1}{2} } } \cdot \sqrt{ \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{ \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{ \frac{1}{2} } } } ...$

:D

I first encountered this proof in Eli Maor's Trigonometric Delights, which I highly recommend. There's some good math in there as well as some interesting history.


I did not cover this in the lecture, but there is another infinite product for $ \frac{ \sin x }{x}$. Euler used it in a totally nonrigorous way (and so will I; the actual proof of this product form is beyond me), but if we consider $ \sin x$ as a polynomial with roots $ 0, \pm \pi, \pm 2 \pi ...$, then we can derive the expression

$ \frac{\sin x}{x} = \left( 1 - \frac{x^2}{\pi^2} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{x^2}{4 \pi^2} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{x^2}{9 \pi^2} \right) ...$

Substituting $ x = \frac{\pi}{2}$ as before produces the Wallis formula

$ \frac{\pi}{2} = \frac{2 \cdot 2}{1 \cdot 3} \cdot \frac{4 \cdot 4}{3 \cdot 5} \cdot \frac{6 \cdot 6}{5 \cdot 7} ...$


Practice Problem: Prove Machin's formula,

$ \frac{\pi}{4} = 4 \arctan \frac{1}{5} - \arctan \frac{1}{239}$

Hint: Calculate $ \frac{(5 + i)^4}{239 + i}$. Can you find other such expressions? (Other formulae of this type are known as Machin-like formulae).

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3 Comments

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I learned the mentioned theorem as the Squeeze Play Theorem.

by Temperal, Oct 14, 2007, 2:58 AM

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Nonintended solution for Practice Problem, I think...

by The QuattoMaster 6000, Oct 14, 2007, 3:47 AM

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very interesting...thank you.

by nayel, Oct 15, 2007, 7:48 PM

Various mathematical thoughts, ranging from problem-solving techniques to attempts to tie together related concepts.

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