The Well-Known GCD Trick

by AlastorMoody, Oct 14, 2019, 5:57 AM

Sometimes, with questions involving divisibility, It's often a good idea to invoke the GCD! I don't know if this works always but here are some problems that work!
Switzerland MO Finals 2014 wrote:
Let $a,b\in\mathbb{N}$ such that :
\[ ab(a-b)\mid a^3+b^3+ab \]Then show that $\operatorname{lcm}(a,b)$ is a perfect square.
Solution: Let $\gcd(a,b)=d$ $\implies$ $\begin{cases} a=xd \\ b=yd \\ \gcd(x,y)=1 \end{cases}$, Hence, now we have,
$$ab(a-b)\mid a^3+b^3+ab \implies \frac{x^3d^3 + y^3d^3+xyd^2}{xyd^2(x-y)d} \in \mathbb{Z}$$$$\frac{x^3d+y^3d+xy}{xyd(x-y)} \in \mathbb{Z}$$Now, since, $\gcd(x,y)=1$ and $x \mid xyd(x-y)$ $\implies$ $x \mid x^3d+y^3d+xy \implies x \mid d$. Similarly, $y \mid d$. Using, $\gcd(x,y)=1$ $\implies$ $xy \mid d$. But, $d$ $\mid$ $xyd(x-y)$ $\implies$ $d $ $\mid$ $x^3d+y^3d+xy$ $\implies$ $d $ $\mid$ $xy$ $\implies$ $\boxed{xy=d}$ $\implies$ $\text{lcm} ~ (a,b)$ $=$ $xyd$ $=$ $(xy)^2$
It Turns out that when we're given some divisibility and they ask us to prove a perfect square, we must always (?) invoke GCD (:P)
BWM 2013 P5 wrote:
Let $m,n \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, such,
$$mn | m^2+n^2+m$$Prove, $m$ is a perfect square
Solution: Let $\gcd (m,n)=d$ $\implies$ $\begin{cases} m=ad \\\  n=bd \\\ \gcd (a,b)=1  \end{cases}$
$$\frac{m^2+n^2+m}{mn} =\frac{a^2d^2+b^2d^2+ad}{abd^2} =\frac{a^2d+b^2d+a}{abd} \in \mathbb{Z}$$Since, $a$ divides $abd$ $\implies$ $a ~ | ~ a^2d+b^2d+a $ but since, $\gcd (a,b)=1$ $\implies$ $a ~ | ~ d$ And, Since, $d$ divides $abd$ $\implies$ $d ~ | ~ a^2d$ $+b^2d+$ $a$ $\implies$ $d ~ | ~ a$
$$\implies a=d \implies m=ad=a^2=d^2$$Hence done! $\qquad \blacksquare$
Bosnia-Herzegovina Regional Olympiad 2016 Grade 10 P2 wrote:
Let $a$ and $b$ be two positive integers such that $2ab$ divides $a^2+b^2-a$. Prove that $a$ is perfect square
Solution: Let $\gcd (a,b)=d$ $\implies$ $\begin{cases} a=md \\\  b=nd \\\ \gcd (m,n)=1  \end{cases}$
$$\frac{a^2+b^2-a}{2ab} =\frac{m^2d^2+n^2d^2-md}{2mnd^2} =\frac{m^2d+n^2d-m}{2mnd} \in \mathbb{Z}$$Since, $m$ divides $2mnd$ $\implies$ $m ~ | ~ m^2d+n^2d-m $ but since, $\gcd (m,n)=1$ $\implies$ $m ~ | ~ d$ And, Since, $d$ divides $2mnd$ $\implies$ $d ~ | ~ m^2d$ $+n^2d-$ $m$ $\implies$ $d ~ | ~ m$
$$\implies m=d \implies a=md=m^2=d^2$$Hence done! $\qquad \blacksquare$
Now, This Trick doesnot only work for perfect squares, but also for some higher powers :o Below's an example (excuse the stupid solution, b'coz I am n00b)
Indonesia MO 2010 P4 wrote:
Given that $m$ and $n$ are positive integers with property:
\[(mn)\mid(m^{2010}+n^{2010}+n)\]Show that there exists a positive integer $k$ such that $n=k^{2010}$
Solution: Let $\gcd (m,n)=d$ $\implies$ $\begin{cases} m=ad \\\  n=bd \\\ \gcd (a,b)=1 \end{cases}$, We somehow want to show exactly $b=d^{2009}$
$$\frac{m^{2010}+n^{2010}+n}{mn}=\frac{a^{2010}d^{2009}+b^{2010}d^{2009}+b}{abd} \in \mathbb{Z}$$Since, $b ~ | ~ abd$ $\implies$ $b ~ | ~ a^{2010}d^{2009}+b^{2010}d^{2009}+b$ $\implies$ $b ~ | ~ d^{2009}$ And since, $d ~ | ~ abd$ $\implies$ $d ~ | ~ a^{2010}d^{2009}+b^{2010}d^{2009}+b$ $\implies$ $d ~ | ~ b$, $\implies$ $d^2 ~ | ~ abd$ $\implies$ $d^2 ~ | ~b$ $\implies$ $d^3 ~ | ~ abd$ $\implies$ $d^3 ~ | ~ b$ $\implies$ $d^4 ~ | ~ abd$ $\implies$ $d^4 ~ | ~ b$....similarly, we can show $d^{2008} ~ | ~ abd$ $\implies$ $d^{2009} ~ | ~ abd$ $\implies$ $d^{2009} ~ | ~b$, and since, $b ~ | ~ d^{2009}$ $\implies$ $b=d^{2009}$ $\implies$ $n=bd=d^{2010}$ $\qquad \blacksquare$
Pls Lemme know if there are some other problems involving this trick too :omighty:

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5 Comments

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Amazing!!

by Euler1728, Oct 19, 2019, 3:53 AM

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It's easy to generalise the second and last problems:

If $\exists m,n \in \mathbb{N}$, and for some $k \in \mathbb{N}$, such that $mn \mid m^k+n^k+m$ then $m$ is a perfect $k$th power; in particular, $m=(\gcd(m,n))^k$.

Notice that you can similarly, but not directly from your proof of the last problem, solve this as your proof in part relies on the fact $2010 \equiv 2 \pmod{4}$. Here's a turnaround:

We first take the case $k=1$. Thus $mn \mid 2m+n \implies mn \le 2m+n \implies (m+1)(n-2) \le 2$. Now, since $m,n \in \mathbb{N}$, we find $m=n=1=1^1$. Thus what is required is true.

For $k \ge 2$, the proof starts similarly as your proofs, i.e $m=xd,n=yd$ where $d=\gcd(m,n) \implies x,y$ coprime. Rewriting the expression in terms of $x,y,d$, we see that:
$\frac{x^kd^{k-1}+y^kd^{k-1}+x}{xyd} \in \mathbb{N}$.

Again, at this point we make two observations: $x \mid xyd \mid x^kd^{k-1}+y^kd^{k-1}+x \implies x \mid d^{k-1}$ (as $x,y$ coprime). Let this divisibility be $(*)$.

$d \mid xyd \mid{x^kd^{k-1}+y^kd^{k-1}+x} \implies d \mid x$. Now let $l$ be the highest power of $d$ dividing $x^*$. Thus, $x = d^la, a \in \mathbb{N}$.

Hence, $d^{l+1} \mid xyd=ayd^{l+1} \mid x^kd^{k-1}+y^kd^{k-1}+x$. Here, we have a catch. We know nothing about the relationship between $y$ and $d$, so $l+1 \le k-1 \iff d^{l+1} \mid y^kd^{k-1} \implies d^{l+1} \mid x$. This clearly contradicts the maximality of $l$, hence $l+1 > k-1 \implies l \ge k-1 \implies d^{k-1} \mid x$. Using this and $(*)$, $x=d^{k-1} \implies m=d^k$.
$^*$Since we usually define "highest power" for prime factors, we can also restate $l$ in those terms:
For all primes $p_i$ dividing $d$, let $f_i= \nu_p(x)$. Then $l=\min \{ f_i : i \in \{1,2,3 \cdots \Omega(d) \} \}$. Just unnecessarily rigorising....

by Hexagrammum16, Oct 19, 2019, 7:22 PM

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Oh, the third problem also falls into this category. Noting that the above proof doesn't change, there can be any given natural multiplied with $mn$ in the denominator, and $ \pm m$ in the numerator.

by Hexagrammum16, Oct 19, 2019, 7:26 PM

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Oh, I was wrong about your proof depending mod 4, yours is just induction.

by Hexagrammum16, Oct 19, 2019, 8:02 PM

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Hi Alsotor, nice blog post. Here is a problem involving the GCD trick. I am posting since you asked for some problems :
(JBMO shortlist 2018 N1)
Find all integers $m$ and $n$ such that $m^5 - n^5 = 16mn$

by lilavati_2005, Nov 2, 2019, 5:25 PM

I'll talk about all possible non-sense :D

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  • @below I wish I started earlier / didn't have to do JEE and leave oly way before I could study conics and projective stuff which I really wanted to study :( . Huh, life really sucks when u are forced due to peer pressure to read sh_t u dont want to read

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  • But even if he went to jee he could continue with this.

    Doing JEE(and completely leaving oly) seems like a insult to the oly math he knows

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  • Ohhh did he go for JEE? Good for him, bad for us :sadge:. Hmmm so that is the reason why he is inactive
    Btw @below finally everyone falls to the monopoly of JEE :) Coz IIT's are the best in India.

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  • nice blog :)

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