Y by Adventure10, Mango247
A set of points of the plane is called obtuse-angled if every three of it's points are not collinear and every triangle with vertices inside the set has one angle
. Is it correct that every finite obtuse-angled set can be extended to an infinite obtuse-angled set?
(UK)

(UK)
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by parmenides51, Apr 11, 2022, 7:28 PM