Y by Adventure10
Prove that for any
the expression
is symmetrically, where
,
i.e.
.


![$f(a,b,c)\equiv \frac {1}{a^2}\cdot \left[(b-c)^2(b+c-3a)^2+4r^2(b+c-2a)^2\right]$](http://latex.artofproblemsolving.com/5/4/8/548767664163b0793f2a43ca1efae475d5f9e2f5.png)
i.e.

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