Mathcamp 2018 Qualifying Quiz Math Jam
Go back to the Math Jam ArchiveMathcamp is an intensive 5-week-long summer program for mathematically talented high school students. More than just a summer camp, Mathcamp is a vibrant community, made up of a wide variety of people who share a common love of learning and passion for mathematics. At Mathcamp, students can explore undergraduate and even graduate-level topics while building problem-solving skills that will help them in any field they choose to study. This Math Jam will discuss solutions to the 2018 Mathcamp Qualifying Quiz.
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Facilitator:
Hello and welcome to the Canada/USA Mathcamp Qualifying Quiz Math Jam!
Before I introduce our guests, let me briefly explain how our online classroom works.
This room is moderated, which means that all your questions and comments come to the moderators. We may share your comments with the whole room if we so choose.
Also, you'll find that you can adjust the classroom windows in a variety of ways, and can adjust the font size by clicking the A icons atop the main window.
Canada/USA Mathcamp is an intensive five-week-long summer program for high-school students interested in mathematics, designed to expose students to the beauty of advanced mathematical ideas and to new ways of thinking. You can learn more about Canada/USA Mathcamp here: http://www.mathcamp.org
Many AoPS instructors, assistants, and students are alumni of this outstanding problem!
Each year, Mathcamp releases a Qualifying Quiz that is the main component of the application process. If you haven't already seen it, you can find the 2018 Qualifying Quiz at http://www.mathcamp.org/prospectiveapplicants/quiz/index.php . In this Math Jam, the following Canada/USA Mathcamp admission committee members will discuss the problems from this year's Qualifying Quiz:
Misha Lavrov (Misha) is a postdoc at the University of Illinois and has been teaching topics ranging from graph theory to pillow-throwing at Mathcamp since 2014.
Yasha (Yasha) is a postdoc at Washington University in St. Louis. He's been a Mathcamp camper, JC, and visitor.
Yulia Gorlina (ygorlina) was a Mathcamp student in '99 - '01 and staff in '02 - '04. She went to Caltech for undergrad, and then the University of Arizona for grad school, where she got a Ph.D. in math. She's about to start a new job as a Data Architect at a hospital in Chicago.
Marisa Debowsky (MarisaD) is the Executive Director of Mathcamp. She's been teaching Topological Graph Theory and singing pop songs at Mathcamp every summer since 2006.
Kevin Carde (KevinCarde) is the Assistant Director and CTO of Mathcamp. He's been teaching Algebraic Combinatorics and playing piano at Mathcamp every summer since 2011.
hello!
hello
Hello!
Let's turn the room over to Marisa now to get us started!
Hi, everybody, and welcome to the (now annual) Mathcamp Qualifying Quiz Jam!
A big thanks as always to @5space, @rrusczyk, and the AoPS team for hosting us.
We're here to talk about the Mathcamp 2018 Qualifying Quiz. To follow along, you should all have the quiz open in another window: http://www.mathcamp.org/2018/qquiz.php
The Quiz problems are written by Mathcamp alumni, staff, and friends each year, and the solutions we'll be walking through today are a collaboration by lots of Mathcamp staff (with good ideas from the applicants, too!).
If you applied this year, I highly recommend having your solutions open. That way, you can reply more quickly to the questions we ask of the room. And we're expecting you all to pitch in to the solutions!
Students can use LaTeX in this classroom, just like on the message board. Specifically, place your math LaTeX code inside dollar signs. For example, type:
We know that \$\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} = \frac{5}{6}\$.
This should give you:
We know that $\frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{3} = \frac{5}{6}$.
Also, as @5space pointed out: this chat room is moderated. That means your messages go only to us, and we will choose which to pass on, so please don't be shy to contribute and/or ask questions about the problems at any time (and we'll do our best to answer).
Today, we'll just be talking about the Quiz. If you have questions about Mathcamp itself, you'll find lots of info on our website (e.g., at http://mathcamp.org/gettoknowmathcamp/ ), or check out the AoPS Jam about the program and the application process from a few months ago: https://artofproblemsolving.com/school/mathjams-transcripts?id=455
If we don't end up getting to your questions, feel free to post them on the Mathcamp forum on AoPS: http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/community/c135
when does it take place
hi!
hi
Hi Marisa!
hello !!!!!
Hello!
Hello!
Hi!
hello!
Hi all!
We've got a lot to cover, so let's get started! We're aiming to keep it to two hours tonight. With that, I'll turn it over to Yulia to get us started with Problem #1.
hihi
Hi Yulia!
Hello everyone
Problem 1.
hello
hi hi hi
hi yulia
Hi
João and Kinga play a game with a fair $n$-sided die whose faces are numbered $1, 2, 3, \dots, n$. In this game, João is assigned a value $j$ and Kinga is assigned a value $k$, both also in the range $1, 2, 3, \dots, n$. João and Kinga take turns rolling the die; João goes first.
If João rolls a number less than or equal to $j$, the game ends and he wins. If Kinga rolls a number less than or equal to $k$, the game ends and she wins. The game continues until one player wins.
(a) Show that if $j=k$, then João always has an advantage.
(b) If $n=6$, find all possible values of $j$ and $k$ which make the game fair. (That is, João and Kinga have equal 50% chances of winning.)
(c) If $n=101$, show that no values of $j$ and $k$ will make the game fair.
Part (a) solution
You might think intuitively, that it is obvious João has an advantage because he goes first.
Let’s make this precise.
On the first roll, João will win immediately with probability $\frac{j}{n}$ and Kinga will get a chance to roll with probability $\frac{n-j}{n}$.
After that first roll, João’s and Kinga’s roles become reversed!
Right before Kinga takes her first roll, her probability of winning the whole game is the same as João’s probability was right before he took his first roll.
Let’s call the probability of João winning $P$ the game. Then the probability of Kinga winning is $$P\cdot\frac{n-j}{n}$$
Since $1\leq j\leq n$, João will always have an advantage.
You could also compute the $P$ in terms of $j$ and $n$. We’ll use that for parts (b) and (c)!
Part (b) solution
To figure this out, let’s calculate the probability $P$ that João will win the game.
Just like in Part (a), João will win on the first roll with probability $\frac{j}{n}$ and Kinga will get a chance to roll with probability $\frac{n-j}{n}$.
Then, Kinga will win on her first roll with probability $\frac{k}{n}$ and João will get a chance to roll again with probability $\frac{n-k}{n}$.
That means that the probability that João gets to roll a second time is $\frac{n-j}{n}\cdot\frac{n-k}{n}$.
so geometric series?
You could use geometric series, yes!
However, the solution I will show you is similar to how we did part (a)
At that point, the game resets to the beginning, so João’s chance of winning the whole game starting with his second roll is $P$.
So,
$$P = \frac{j}{n} + \frac{n-j}{n}\cdot\frac{n-k}{n}P$$
Solving this for $P$, we get
$$P=\frac{jn}{jn+kn-jk}$$
Now, let $P=\frac{1}{2}$ and simplify:
$$jk=n(k-j)$$
For Part (b), $n=6$. From here, you can check all possible values of $j$ and $k$. This is made easier if you notice that $k>j$, which we could also conclude from Part (a).
The two solutions are $j=2, k=3$, and $j=3, k=6$.
Notice that in the latter case, the game will always be very short, ending either on João’s or Kinga’s first roll.
Part (c) solution
We can actually generalize and let $n$ be any prime $p>2$.
$$jk=p(k-j)$$
Since $p$ divides $jk$, it must divide either $j$ or $k$.
We know that $1\leq j < k \leq p$, so $k$ must equal $p$. However, then $j=\frac{p}{2}$, which is not an integer.
So, when $n$ is prime, the game cannot be fair.
Why can we generate and let n be a prime number? Sorry if this isn't a good question. I am only in 5th grade.
Thank you for your question!
The solutions is the same for every prime. So whether we use $n=101$ or $n$ is any odd prime, you can use the same solution.
why do we know that k>j?
$jk$ is positive, so $(k-j)>0$.
Alright, I will pass things over to Misha for Problem 2.
ok let's see if I can figure out how to work this
Problem 2.
The pirates of the Cartesian sail an infinite flat sea, with a small island at coordinates $(x,y)$ for every integer $x$ and $y$.
A pirate's ship has two sails. Every day, the pirate raises one of the sails and travels for the whole day without stopping. With the first sail raised, a pirate at $(x,y)$ can travel to $(x+3,y+5)$ in a single day, or in the reverse direction to $(x-3,y-5)$. With the second sail raised, a pirate at $(x,y)$ can travel to $(x+4,y+6)$ in a single day, or in the reverse direction to $(x-4,y-6)$.
(a) Which islands can a pirate reach from the island at $(0,0)$, after traveling for any number of days?
(b) The Dread Pirate Riemann replaces the second sail on his ship by a sail that lets him travel from $(x,y)$ to either $(x+a,y+b)$ or $(x-a,y-b)$ in a single day, where $a$ and $b$ are integers. (The first sail stays the same as in part (a).) For which values of $a$ and $b$ will the Dread Pirate Riemann be able to reach any island in the Cartesian sea?
(c) Can you generalize the result in (b) to two arbitrary sails?
ok that's the problem. here we go!
Problem 2(a) solution.
After we look at the first few islands we can visit, which include islands such as $(3,5), (4,6), (1,1), (6,10), (7,11), (2,4)$, and so on, we might notice a pattern. What do all of these have in common?
sum of coordinates is even
same parity
the coordinate sum to an even number
sum of coordinates is even
sum is even
We can express this a bunch of ways: say that $x+y$ is even, or that $x-y$ is even, or that $x$ and $Y$ are both even or both odd. So if this is true, what are the two things we have to prove?
if x+y is even you can reach it, and if x+y is odd you can't reach it
you can get to all such points and only such points.
1. We can reach all like this and 2. We can reach none not like this
that we cannot go to points where the coordinate sum is odd
That we can reach it and can't reach anywhere else
(proving only one of these tripped a lot of people up, actually!)
First, we prove that this condition is necessary: if $x-y$ is odd, then we can't reach island $(x,y)$. Then, we prove that this condition is even: if $x-y$ is even, then we can reach the island.
To prove that the condition is necessary, it's enough to look at how $x-y$ changes. We can change it by $-2$ with $(3,5)$ or $(4,6)$ or $+2$ with their opposites. These are all even numbers, so the total is even.
To prove that the condition is sufficient, it's enough to show that we can take $(+1,+1)$ steps and $(+2,+0)$ steps (and their opposites). A $(+1,+1)$ step is easy: it's $(+4,+6)$ then $(-3,-5)$. $(+2,+0)$ is longer: it's five $(+4,+6)$ steps and six $(-3,-5)$ steps.
Once we have both of them, we can get to any island with even $x-y$. Just go from $(0,0)$ to $(x-y,0)$ and then to $(x,y)$.
So that solves part (a).
Problem 2(b) solution.
If Riemann can reach any island, then Riemann can reach islands $(1,0)$ and $(0,1)$. But if those are reachable, then by repeating these $(+1,+0)$ and $(+0,+1)$ steps and their opposites, Riemann can get to any island. So there's only two islands we have to check.
Suppose that Riemann reaches $(1,0)$ after $p$ steps of $(+3,+5)$ and $q$ steps of $(+a,+b)$. Then $(3p + aq, 5p + bq) = (1,0)$, which means $$5 = 5(1) - 3(0) = 5(5p+bq) - 3(3p+aq) = (5a-3b)(q).$$ What does this tell us about $5a-3b$?
isn't (+1, +1) and (+3, +5) enough?
divides 5
5a - 3b must be a multiple of 5
whoops that was me being slightly bad at passing on things
but it tells us that $5a-3b$ divides $5$.
Suppose that Riemann reaches $(0,1)$ after $p$ steps of $(+3,+5)$ and $q$ steps of $(+a,+b)$. Then $(3p + aq, 5p + bq) = (0,1)$, which means $$3 = 3(1) - 5(0) = 3(5p+bq) - 5(3p+aq) = (5a-3b)(-q).$$ What does this tell us about $5a-3b$?
It divides 3
divides 3
So now we know that if $5a-3b$ divides both $3$ and $5...
it must be $1$
gcf(5,3) = 1
Conversely, if $5a-3b = \pm 1$, then Riemann can get to both $(0,1)$ and $(1,0)$. (And so Riemann can get anywhere.) For example, if $5a-3b = 1$, then Riemann can get to $(1,0)$ by 5 steps of $(+a,+b)$ and $b$ steps of $(-3,-5)$.
Cool proof
thanks
Problem 2(c) solution.
When our sails were $(+3,+5)$ and $(+a,+b)$ and their opposites, we needed $5a-3b = \pm 1$. So if our sails are $(+a,+b)$ and $(+c,+d)$ and their opposites, what's a natural condition to guess?
Just slap in 5 = b, 3 = a, and use the formula from last time?
ad - bc = +- 1
ad-bc=+ or - 1
It turns out that $ad-bc = \pm1$ is the condition we want. If it holds, then Riemann can get from $(0,0)$ to $(0,1)$ and to $(1,0)$, so he can get anywhere. For example, how would you go from $(0,0)$ to $(1,0)$ if $ad-bc = 1$?
(by the way, people that are saying the word "determinant": hold on a couple of minutes
Almost as before, we can take $d$ steps of $(+a,+b)$ and $b$ steps of $(-c,-d)$. Something similar works for going to $(0,1)$, and this proves that having $ad-bc = \pm1$ is sufficient. We also need to prove that it's necessary.
a steps of sail 2 and d of sail 1?
yep!
We can copy the algebra in part (b) to prove that $ad-bc$ must be a divisor of both $a$ and $b$: just replace 3 and 5 by $c$ and $d$. Actually, we can also prove that $ad-bc$ is a divisor of both $c$ and $d$, by switching the roles of the two sails. Why does this prove that we need $ad-bc = \pm 1$?
All the distances we travel will always be multiples of the numbers' gcd's, so their gcd's have to be 1 since we can go anywhere
If $ad-bc$ is not $\pm 1$, then $a,b,c,d$ have a nontrivial divisor. In that case, we can only get to islands whose coordinates are multiples of that divisor.
And finally, for people who know linear algebra...
Note: $ad-bc$ is the determinant of the $2\times 2$ matrix $\begin{bmatrix}a&b \\ c&d\end{bmatrix}$. This problem is actually equivalent to showing that this matrix has an integer inverse exactly when its determinant is $\pm 1$, which is a very useful result from linear algebra!
but as we just saw, we can also solve this problem with just basic number theory.
on to #3!
Problem 3.
For any positive integer $n$, its list of divisors contains all integers between 1 and $n$, including 1 and $n$ itself, that divide $n$ with no remainder; they are always listed in increasing order. For example, if $n = 20$, its list of divisors is $1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20$.
In a fill-in-the-blank puzzle, we take the list of divisors, erase some of them and replace them with blanks, and ask what the original number was.
(a) Solve the puzzle 1, 2, _, _, _, 8, _, _.
(b) Does there exist a fill-in-the-blank puzzle that has exactly 2018 solutions?
(c) For each value of $n$, the very hard puzzle for $n$ is the one that leaves only the next-to-last divisor, replacing all the others with blanks. For example, the very hard puzzle for 10 is _, _, 5, _. It has two solutions: 10 and 15. For which values of $n$ does the very hard puzzle for $n$ have no solutions other than $n$?
Let's warm up by solving part (a). What's the only value that $n$ can have?
24
$24$
24.
24
24
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24
24
24
24
24
24
24
The logic is this: the blanks before 8 include 1, 2, 4, and two other numbers. So the original number has at least one more prime divisor other than 2, and that prime divisor appears before 8 on the list: it can be 3, 5, or 7.
If it's 3, we get 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24. If it's 5 or 7, we don't get a solution: 10 and 14 are both bigger than 8, so they need the blanks to be in a different order.
this is a good practice for the later parts
Problem 3(b) solution.
The warm-up problem gives us a pretty good hint for part (b). The extra blanks before 8 gave us 3 cases. (Not all of the solutions worked out, but that's a minor detail.) So how do we get 2018 cases?
1, _ , p_2019, _
2018 primes less than n
1, blank, 2019th prime, blank
2019th prime
(more blanks doesn't help us - it's more primes that does)
We want to go up to a number with 2018 primes below it. The simplest puzzle would be 1, _, 17569, _, where 17569 is the 2019-th prime. (For any prime p below 17659, we get a solution 1, p, 17569, 17569p.) There are other solutions along the same lines.
Problem 3(c) solution.
Here's two examples of "very hard" puzzles. One is "_, _, _, 35, _". Another is "_, _, _, _, _, _, 35, _". Which has a unique solution, and which one doesn't?
the first one is the unique solution, second one isnt
the first one has a unique solution
the first one has a unique solution and the second one does not
First one has a unique solution
By counting the divisors of the number we see, and comparing it to the number of blanks there are, we can see that the first puzzle doesn't introduce any new prime factors, and the second puzzle does. (This can be done in general.) So the first puzzle must begin "1, 5, ..." and the answer is $5\cdot 35 = 175$. The second puzzle can begin "1, 2, ..." or "1, 3, ..." and has multiple solutions.
(I'm skipping some of the arithmetic here, but you can count how many divisors $175$ has, and that helps.)
When does the next-to-last divisor of $n$ already contain all its prime factors?
when the smallest prime that divides n is taken to a power greater than 1
When n is divisible by the square of its smallest prime factor
This happens when $n$'s smallest prime factor is repeated. (For example, $175 = 5 \cdot 5 \cdot 7$.) In such cases, the very hard puzzle for $n$ always has a unique solution.
this is because the next-to-last divisor tells us what all the prime factors are, here
so we can just fill the smallest one
but there's another case...
Now suppose that $n$ has a prime factor missing from its next-to-last divisor. Are there any cases when we can deduce what that prime factor must be?
if we know it's divisible by 3 from the second to last entry
when the first prime factor is 2 and the second one is 3
The missing prime factor must be the smallest. So we can figure out what it is if it's 2, and the prime factor 3 is already present. (For example, "_, _, _, _, 9, _" only has one solution.)
So there are two cases answering this question: the very hard puzzle for $n$ has only one solution if $n$'s smallest prime factor is repeated, or if $n$ is divisible by both 2 and 3.
Alright. On to...
Problem 4.
A flock of $3^k$ crows hold a speed-flying competition. All crows have different speeds, and each crow's speed remains the same throughout the competition. Because crows love secrecy, they don't want to be distinctive and recognizable, so instead of trying to find the fastest or slowest crow, they want to be as medium as possible.
The crows split into groups of 3 at random and then race. In each group of 3, the crow that finishes second wins, so there are $3^{k-1}$ winners, who repeat this process. In each round, a third of the crows win, and move on to the next round. The crow left after $k$ rounds is declared the most medium crow.
(a) How many of the crows have a chance (depending on which groups of 3 compete together) of being declared the most medium?
(b) If there are $n$ crows, where $n$ is not a power of 3, this process has to be modified. In a round where the crows cannot be evenly divided into groups of 3, one or two crows are randomly chosen to sit out: they automatically move on to the next round. At the end, there is either a single crow declared the most medium, or a tie between two crows.
For which values of $n$ will a single crow be declared the most medium? When this happens, which of the crows can it be?
(I'll give you a moment to remind yourself of the problem.)
induction!
things are certainly looking induction-y
Problem 4(a) solution.
There's a quick way to see that the $k$ fastest and the $k$ slowest crows can't win the race. The most medium crow has won $k$ rounds, so it's finished second $k$ times. This gives us $k$ crows that were faster (the ones that finished first) and $k$ crows that were slower (the ones that finished third).
But actually, there are lots of other crows that must be faster than the most medium crow. Why?
Because we need at least one buffer crow to take one to the next round
because each of the winners from the first round was slower than a crow
Each of the crows that the most medium crow faces in later rounds had to win their previous rounds
The crows that the most medium crow wins against in later rounds must, themselves, have been fairly medium to make it that far. They have their own crows that they won against. A race with two rounds gives us the following picture:
Here, all red crows must be faster than the black (most-medium) crow, and all blue crows must be slower. (Each rectangle is a race, with first through third place drawn from left to right.)
Here's another picture for a race with three rounds:
Here, all the crows previously marked red were slower than other crows that lost to them in the very first round. Again, all red crows in this picture are faster than the black crow, and all blue crows are slower.
So here, when we started out with $27$ crows, there are $7$ red crows and $7$ blue crows that can't win.
If we draw this picture for the $k$-round race, how many red crows must there be at the start? (And how many blue crows?)
$2^k$ crows would be kicked out
2^k-1
$2^k - 1$
2^k
2^k?
f(k-1)*2+1
Together with the black, most-medium crow, the number of red crows doubles with each round back we go. So in a $k$-round race, there are $2^k$ red-or-black crows: $2^k-1$ crows faster than the most medium crow.
2^k-1
(be careful about the $-1$ here!)
This proves that the fastest $2^k-1$ crows, and the slowest $2^k-1$ crows, cannot win.
In fact, this picture also shows how any other crow can win. If the blue crows are the $2^k-1$ slowest crows, and the red crows are the $2^k-1$ fastest crows, then the black crow can be any of the other crows and win.
So that tells us the complete answer to (a)
Problem 4(b) solution.
First, the easier of the two questions. What determines whether there are one or two crows left at the end?
whether the original number was even or odd
The parity of n
odd=1, even=2
odd number of crows to start means one crow left
parity
starting number of crows is even or odd
Every time three crows race and one crow wins, the number of crows still in the race goes down by 2. So if we start with an odd number of crows, the number of crows always stays odd, and we end with 1 crow; if we start with an even number of crows, the number stays even, and we end with 2 crows.
Now we can think about how the answer to "which crows can win?" changes when we don't have a perfect power of 3. Here's one possible picture of the result:
Just as before, if we want to say "the $x$ many slowest crows can't be the most medium", we should count the number of blue crows at the bottom layer. (They are the crows that the most medium crow must beat.) What changes about that number?
decreases every round by 1
by 2*
there are remainders
people are on the right track
but keep in mind that the number of byes depends on the number of crows
Before, each blue-or-black crow must have beaten another crow in a race, so their number doubled. Now, in every layer, one or two of them can get a "bye" and not beat anyone.
the byes are either 1 or 2
Just from that, we can write down a recurrence for $a_n$, the least rank of the most medium crow, if all crows are ranked by speed. (So the slowest $a_n-1$ and the fastest $a_n-1$ crows cannot win.) We have: $$\begin{cases}a_{3n} &= 2a_n \\ a_{3n-2} &= 2a_n - 1 \\ a_{3n-4} &= 2a_n - 2.\end{cases}$$
This just says: if the bottom layer contains no byes, the number of black-or-blue crows doubles from the previous layer. If there's a bye, the number of black-or-blue crows might grow by one less; if there's two byes, it grows by two less.
Then is there a closed form for which crows can win?
We didn't expect everyone to come up with one, but...
There is also a more interesting formula, which I don't have the time to talk about, so I leave it as homework It can be found on http://oeis.org/A065365 and gives us the number of crows too slow to win in a race with $2n+1$ crows.
I'd have to first explain what "balanced ternary" is!
Finally, one consequence of all this is that with $3^k+2$ crows, every single crow except the fastest and the slowest can win.
Do you see why?
crows can get byes all the way up to the top
Save the slowest and second slowest with byes till the end
The "+2" crows always get byes
two crows are safe until the last round
the fastest and slowest crows could get byes until the final round?
I thought this was a particularly neat way for two crows to "rig" the race.
Problem 5.
Take a unit tetrahedron: a 3-dimensional solid with four vertices $A, B, C, D$ all at distance one from each other. We can cut the tetrahedron along a plane that's equidistant from and parallel to edge $AB$ and edge $CD$. If we do, the cross-section is a square with side length 1/2, as shown in the diagram below.
Now take a unit 5-cell, which is the 4-dimensional analog of the tetrahedron: a 4-dimensional solid with five vertices $A, B, C, D, E$ all at distance one from each other. We can cut the 5-cell along a 3-dimensional surface (a hyperplane) that's equidistant from and parallel to edge $AB$ and plane $CDE$. If we do, what (3-dimensional) cross-section do we get?
Problem 5 solution.
For lots of people, their first instinct when looking at this problem is to give everything coordinates. This is great for 4-dimensional problems, because it lets you avoid thinking about what anything looks like. But we're not looking for easy answers, so let's not do coordinates.
One way to figure out the shape of our 3-dimensional cross-section is to understand all of its 2-dimensional faces. This would be like figuring out that the cross-section of the tetrahedron is a square by understanding all of its 1-dimensional sides.
So to get an intuition for how to do this: in the diagram above, where did the sides of the squares come from?
From the triangular faces
faces of the tetrahedron
the smaller triangles that make up the side
The key two points here are this:
1. The sides of the square come from its intersections with a face of the tetrahedron (such as $ABC$).
2. The thing we get inside face $ABC$ is a solution to the 2-dimensional problem: a cut halfway between edge $AB$ and point $C$.
(Look back at the 3D picture and make sure this makes sense.)
The same thing should happen in 4 dimensions. So how many sides is our 3-dimensional cross-section going to have? Which shapes have that many sides?
5, triangular prism
it should have 5 choose 4 sides, so five sides
(some other people have this answer too, but are a bit ahead of the game)
There are actually two 5-sided polyhedra this could be
A triangular prism, and a square pyramid
So we'll have to do a bit more work to figure out which one it is.
Our next step is to think about each of these sides more carefully. For example, suppose we are looking at side $ABCD$: a 3-dimensional facet of the 5-cell $ABCDE$, which is shaped like a tetrahedron. When we make our cut through the 5-cell, how does it intersect side $ABCD$?
(This will tell us what all the sides are: each of $ABCD$, $ABCE$, $ABDE$, $ACDE$, $BCDE$ will give us a side.)
through the square triangle thingy section
As a square, similarly for all including A and B
This is just the example problem in 3 dimensions! The intersection with $ABCD$ is a 2-dimensional cut halfway between $AB$ and $CD$, so it's a square whose side length is $\frac12$. The same thing happens with sides $ABCE$ and $ABDE$.
What about the intersection with $ACDE$, or $BCDE$?
triangle!!
It's a triangle with side lengths 1/2
triangle?
those are a plane that's equidistant from a point and a face on the tetrahedron, so it makes a triangle
triangle
Here, the intersection is also a 2-dimensional cut of a tetrahedron, but a different one. For $ACDE$, it's a cut halfway between point $A$ and plane $CDE$. This cut is shaped like a triangle. The same thing happens with $BCDE$: the cut is halfway between point $B$ and plane $BCDE$.
Why isn’t it not a cube when the 2d cross section is a square (leading to a 3D square,cube)
It's not a cube so that you wouldn't be able to just guess the answer!
So if we have three sides that are squares, and two that are triangles, the cross-section must look like a triangular prism. Here is my best attempt at a diagram:
Thats a little...
Umm...
No.
That's what 4D geometry is like
And on that note, it's over to Yasha for Problem 6.
Hi everyone!
Problem 6.
Max finds a large sphere with 2018 rubber bands wrapped around it. Each rubber band is stretched in the shape of a circle. Max notices that any two rubber bands cross each other in two points, and that no three rubber bands cross at the same point.
By the nature of rubber bands, whenever two cross, one is on top of the other. Max has a magic wand that, when tapped on a crossing, switches which rubber band is on top at that crossing. He may use the magic wand any number of times.
Prove that Max can make it so that if he follows each rubber band around the sphere, no rubber band is ever the top band at two consecutive crossings.
Problem 5 solution.
For this problem I got an orange and placed a bunch of rubber bands around it
An excellent plan!
It's always a good idea to try some small cases. Two rubber bands is easy, and you can work out that Max can make things work with three rubber bands.
With an orange, you might be able to go up to four or five.
( I got 7 and then gave up)
impressive
problem 5 solution :o
oops, I meant problem 6.
i think using a watermelon would have been more effective
watermelon challenge!
you'd need some pretty stretchy rubber bands
Does the number 2018 seem relevant to the problem?
no
no
nope
no
no
not really
No
Not really, besides being the year
...no
no
After trying small cases, we might guess that Max can succeed regardless of the number of rubber bands, so the specific number of rubber bands is not relevant to the problem.
Hopefully.
One good solution method is to work backwards. If each rubber band alternates between being above and below, we can try to understand what conditions have to hold. Then we can try to use that understanding to prove that we can always arrange it so that each rubber band alternates.
There's a lot of ways to explore the situation, making lots of pretty pictures in the process. Here's one thing you might eventually try:
Like weaving?
Yup, that's the goal, to get each rubber band to weave up and down
Let's say we're walking along a red rubber band. We eventually hit an intersection, where we meet a blue rubber band. We find that, at this intersection, the blue rubber band is above our red one. At this point, rather than keep going, we turn left onto the blue rubber band. What can we say about the next intersection we meet?
Blue is on bottom
should be under
it is also under
blue will go under
The next rubber band will be on top of the blue one
blue will be underneath
we will switch to another band's path
it'll be under
blue has to be below
At the next intersection, our rubber band will once again be below the one we meet.
After all, if blue was above red, then it has to be below green.
so basically each rubber band is under the previous one and they form a circle?
this continues
If we keep turning left, our rubber band will always be below the one we meet, and eventually we'll get back to where we started.
It might take more steps, or fewer steps, depending on what the rubber bands decided to be like.
2018 colors
:-/
When we get back to where we started, we see that we've enclosed a region. What we found is that if we go around the region counter-clockwise, every time we get to an intersection, our rubber band is below the one we meet.
are the rubber bands always straight?
They bend around the sphere, and the problem doesn't require them to go straight.
But it does require that any two rubber bands cross each other in two points.
but it won't matter if they're straight or not right?
it said circle
perfect circle?
yeah it doesn't have to be a great circle necessarily, but it should probably be pretty close for it to cross the other rubber bands in two points
but experimenting with an orange or watermelon or whatever would suggest that it doesn't matter all that much
Anyways, in our region, we found that if we keep turning left, our rubber band will always be below the one we meet, and eventually we'll get back to where we started. Will that be true of every region?
No! Start the same way we started, but turn right instead, and you'll get the same result.
We might also have the reverse situation: If we go around a region counter-clockwise, we might find that every time we get to an intersection, our rubber band is above the one we meet.
In fact, we can see that happening in the above diagram if we zoom out a bit.
Look at the region bounded by the blue, orange, and green rubber bands. As we move counter-clockwise around this region, our rubber band is always above.
So it looks like we have two types of regions. Going counter-clockwise around regions of the first type, our rubber band is always below the one we meet. Going counter-clockwise around regions of the second type, our rubber band is always above the one we meet.
Are there any other types of regions?
No.
no
nope
No, our reasoning from before applies. If, at the first intersection we encounter, our rubber band is below, then that will continue to be the case at all other intersections as we go around the region. Likewise, if, at the first intersection we encounter, our rubber band is above, then that will continue to be the case at all other intersections as we go around the region.
multiple lines intersecting at one point
the problem bans that, so we're good.
Now that we've identified two types of regions, what should we add to our picture?
color-code the regions
We should add colors! We'll leave the regions where we have to "hop up" when going around white, and color the regions where we have to "hop down" black.
Here's another picture showing this region coloring idea.
As we move around the region counterclockwise, we either keep hopping up at each intersection or hopping down
so, here, we hop up from red to blue, then up from blue to green, then up from green to orange, then up from orange to cyan, and finally up from cyan to red.
But in the triangular region on the right, we hop down from blue to orange, then from orange to green, and then from green to blue.
Would it be true at this point that no two regions next to each other will have the same color?
is the ball gonna look like a checkerboard soccer ball thing
so just partitioning the surface into black and white portions
The coloring seems to alternate. All neighbors of white regions are black, and all neighbors of black regions are white.
Why do you think that's true?
Because going counterclockwise on two adjacent regions requires going opposite directions on the shared edge
If, in one region, we're hopping up from green to orange, then in a neighboring region, we'd be hopping down from orange to green.
OK. We've gotten a sense of what's going on. Now it's time to write down a solution.
We've worked backwards. But now it's time to consider a random arrangement of rubber bands and tell Max how to use his magic wand to make each rubber band alternate between above and below.
What's the first thing we should do upon seeing this mess of rubber bands?
color in regions!
designate regions?
alternating regions
We should look at the regions and try to color them black and white so that adjacent regions are opposite colors.
Our first step will be showing that we can color the regions in this manner. What should our step after that be?
start off with solving one region
make it so that each region alternates?
then either move counterclockwise or clockwise
Our second step will be to use the coloring of the regions to tell Max which rubber band should be on top at each intersection. We'll need to make sure that the result is what Max wants, namely that each rubber band alternates between being above and below.
How do we know it doesn't loop around and require a different color upon rereaching the same region?
Yes, exactly. Step 1 isn't so simple.
Now we have a two-step outline that will solve the problem for us, let's focus on step 1.
Think about adding 1 rubber band at a time
Yup, induction is one good proof technique here. I'll cover induction first, and then a direct proof.
If we have just one rubber band, there are two regions. We color one of them black and the other one white, and we're done.
So now we assume that we've got some rubber bands and we've successfully colored the regions black and white so that adjacent regions are different colors. But now a magenta rubber band gets added, making lots of new regions and ruining everything. What do we do? How do we fix the situation?
Use induction: Add a band and alternate the colors of the regions it cuts
reverse all regions on one side of the new band
Reverse all of the colors on one side of the magenta, and keep all the colors on the other side
Leave the colors the same on one side, swap on the other
We can keep all the regions on one side of the magenta rubber band the same color, and flip the colors of the regions on the other side.
Why does this procedure result in an acceptable black and white coloring of the regions?
Because the only problems are along the band, and we're making them alternate along the band
regions that got cut now are different colors, other regions not changed wrt neighbors
because all the colors on one side are still adjacent and different, just different colors white instead of black. but we've fixed the magenta problem
If the magenta rubber band cut a white region into two halves, then, as a result of this procedure, one half will be white and the other half will be black, which is acceptable.
Here's a before and after picture.
Meanwhile, if two regions share a border that's not the magenta rubber band, they'll either both stay the same or both get flipped, depending on which side of the magenta rubber band they're on.
Here are pictures of the two possible outcomes.
or
Either way works.
So, because we can always make the region coloring work after adding a rubber band, we can get all the way up to 2018 rubber bands.
OK, so let's do another proof, starting directly from a mess of rubber bands, and hopefully answering some questions people had.
We can also directly prove that we can color the regions black and white so that adjacent regions are different colors.
Here's a naive thing to try. Start with a region $R_0$ colored black. To determine the color of another region $R$, walk from $R_0$ to $R$, avoiding intersections because crossing two rubber bands at once is too complex a task for our simple walker. If you cross an odd number of rubber bands, color $R$ white. If you cross an even number of rubber bands, color $R$ black.
This procedure ensures that neighboring regions have different colors. If $R$ and $S$ are neighbors, then if it took an odd number of steps to get to $R$, it'll take one more (or one fewer) step to get to $S$, resulting in an even number of steps, and vice versa. Or will it?
This procedure is also similar to declaring one region black, declaring its neighbors white, declaring the neighbors of those regions black, etc.
What might go wrong?
you could reach the same region in 1 step or 2 steps right?
odd cycle
a region might already have a black and a white neighbor that give conflicting messages
Maybe one way of walking from $R_0$ to $R$ takes an odd number of steps, but a different way of walking from $R_0$ to $R$ takes an even number of steps.
One red flag you should notice is that our reasoning didn't use the fact that our regions come from rubber bands. With arbitrary regions, you could have something like this:
It's not possible to color these regions black and white so that adjacent regions are different colors. You can also see that if you walk between two different regions, you might end up taking an odd number of steps or an even number steps, depending on the path you take.
But we've got rubber bands, not just random regions. Can we salvage this line of reasoning?
Probably
Our goal is to show that the parity of the number of steps it takes to get from $R_0$ to $R$ doesn't depend on the path we take. We either need an even number of steps or an odd number of steps.
Let's just consider one rubber band $B_1$. If $R_0$ and $R$ are on different sides of $B_!$, we can get from $R_0$ to $R$ crossing $B_!$ once. If we take a silly path, we might cross $B_1$ three times or five times or seventeen times, but, no matter what, we'll cross $B_1$ an odd number of times.
fixed it slightly
well almost there's still an exclamation point instead of a 1
Likewise, if $R_0$ and $R$ are on the same side of $B_1$, then, no matter how silly our path is, we'll cross $B_1$ an even number of times.
And that works for all of the rubber bands
We have the same reasoning for rubber bands $B_2$, $B_3$, and so forth, all the way to $B_{2018}$. The number of times we cross each rubber band depends on the path we take, but the parity (odd or even) does not.
How does that help?
The parity is all that determines the color
Adding all of these numbers up, we get the total number of times we cross a rubber band. Again, that number depends on our path, but its parity does not.
So, we'll make a consistent choice of color for the region $R$, regardless of which path we take from $R_0$.
So, indeed, if $R$ and $S$ are neighbors, they must be different colors, since we can take a path to $R$ and then take one more step to get to $S$. The number of steps to get to $R$ thus has a different parity from the number of steps to get to $S$. Importantly, this path to get to $S$ is as valid as any other in determining the color of $S$, so we conclude that $R$ and $S$ are different colors.
So, we've finished the first step of our proof, coloring the regions. Now we need to do the second step. We've colored the regions. How do we use that coloring to tell Max which rubber band to put on top?
he starts from any point and makes his way around
Yeah, let's focus on a single point.
Near each intersection, we've got two rubber bands meeting, splitting the neighborhood into four regions, two black and two white.
Moving counter-clockwise around the intersection, we see that we move from white to black as we cross the green rubber band, and we move from black to white as we cross the orange rubber band.
So what we tell Max to do is to go counter-clockwise around the intersection. We tell him to look at the rubber band he crosses as he moves from a white region to a black region, and to use his magic wand to put that rubber band below.
Now we need to make sure that this procedure answers the question. We need to consider a rubber band $B$, and consider two adjacent intersections with rubber bands $B_1$ and $B_2$. Must it be true that $B$ is either above $B_1$ and below $B_2$ or below $B_1$ and then above $B_2$? If so, why?
Here is a picture of the situation at hand.
add the coloring
What might the coloring be?
WB BW WB, with space-separated columns.
That's one option. Is that the only possibility?
no
invert black and white
We could also have the reverse of that option. Are those two the only possibilities?
yes
Yes.
There are only two ways of coloring the regions of this picture black and white so that adjacent regions are different colors. Using the rule above to decide which rubber band goes on top, our resulting picture looks like:
or
Either way, these two intersections satisfy Max's requirements.
Are we done?
Just about
yes
almost
no
seems people disagree.
We've instructed Max how to color the regions and how to use those regions to decide which rubber band is on top at each intersection, and then we proved that this procedure results in a configuration that satisfies Max's requirements.
So we are, in fact, done.
This problem illustrates that we can often understand a complex situation just by looking at local pieces: a region and its neighbors, the immediate vicinity of an intersection, and the immediate vicinity of two adjacent intersections. We solved most of the problem without needing to consider the "big picture" of the entire sphere.
And now, back to Misha for the final problem.
Hi again everyone!
yay
that was way easier than it looked
Problem 7.
A tribble is a creature with unusual powers of reproduction. Tribbles come in positive integer sizes. Every night, a tribble grows in size by 1, and every day, any tribble of even size can split into two tribbles of half its size (possibly multiple times), if it wants to.
(a) Suppose that we start with a single tribble of size $n$. (We start in the morning, so if $n$ is even, the tribble has a chance to split before it grows.) What is the fastest way in which it could split fully into tribbles of size $1$? How many tribbles of size $1$ would there be?
(b) Suppose that we start with a single tribble of size $1$. Let $T(k)$ be the number of different possibilities for what we could see after $k$ days (in the evening, after the tribbles have had a chance to split). What are the best upper and lower bounds you can give on $T(k)$, in terms of $k$?
(c) Given a tribble population such as "Ten tribbles of size 3", it can be difficult to tell whether it can ever be reached, if we start from a single tribble of size 1. Can you come up with any simple conditions that tell us that a population can definitely be reached, or that it definitely cannot be reached?
Okay, let's go.
Problem 7(a) solution.
To begin with, there's a strategy for the tribbles to follow that's a natural one to guess. (And which works for small tribble sizes.) What is it?
divide whenever you can
split whenever you can
split whenever possible
It's: all tribbles split as often as possible, as much as possible. This is called a "greedy" strategy, because it doesn't look ahead: it just does what's best in the moment.
In this case, the greedy strategy turns out to be best, but that's important to prove. (For some other rules for tribble growth, it isn't best!)
So suppose that at some point, we have a tribble of an even size $2a$. It decides not to split right then, and waits until it's size $2b$ to split into two tribbles of size $b$. How do we know that's a bad idea?
because it takes more days to wait until 2b and then split than to split and then grow into b
because 2a-- > 2b --> b is slower than 2a --> a --> b
We had waited 2b-2a days. If we split, b-a days is needed to achieve b
It takes $2b-2a$ days for it to grow before it splits. But if the tribble split right away, then both tribbles can grow to size $b$ in just $b-a$ more days.
(Note that this argument doesn't care what else is going on or what we're doing. It just says: if we wait to split, then whatever we're doing, we could be doing it faster.)
So now we know that any strategy that's not greedy can be improved. In other words, the greedy strategy is the best! So if we follow this strategy, how many size-1 tribbles do we have at the end? (If you like, try out what happens with 19 tribbles.)
2^ceiling(log base 2 of n) i think
the least power of $2$ greater than $n$
the next highest power of two
This seems like a good guess. For 19, you go to 20, which becomes 5,5,5,5. Then 6,6,6,6 becomes 3,3,3,3,3,3.
Then 4,4,4,4,4,4 becomes 32 tribbles of size 1.
It sure looks like we just round up to the next power of 2. (That is, if we start with a size-$n$ tribble, and $2^{k-1} < n \le 2^k$, then we end with $2^k$ size-1 tribbles.) There's a lot of ways to prove this, but my favorite approach that I saw in solutions is induction on $k$.
Base case: it's not hard to prove that this observation holds when $k=1$.
(We just check $n=1$ and $n=2$.)
Suppose it's true in the range $(2^{k-1}, 2^k]$.
If $2^k < n \le 2^{k+1}$ and $n$ is even, we split into two tribbles of size $\frac n2$, which eventually end up as $2^k$ size-1 tribbles each by the induction hypothesis.
If $2^k < n \le 2^{k+1}$ and $n$ is odd, then we grow to $n+1$ (still in the same range!) and then split into two tribbles of size $\frac{n+1}2$ and then the same thing happens.
So by induction, we round up to the next power of $2$ in the range $(2^k, 2^{k+1}]$, too.
This solves (a).
efficient proof!
It's not mine!
I was reading all of y'all's solutions for the quiz
and took the best one
(I don't know whose because I was reading them anonymously)
Anyway.
Problem 7(b) solution.
First, some philosophy. How can we prove a lower bound on $T(k)$? One way is to limit how the tribbles split, and only consider those cases in which the tribbles follow those limits. To prove an upper bound, we might consider a larger set of cases that includes all real possibilities, as well as some impossible outcomes.
In both cases, our goal with adding either limits or impossible cases is to get a number that's easier to count.
So as a warm-up, let's get some not-very-good lower and upper bounds. Suppose I add a limit: for the first $k-1$ days, all tribbles of size 2 must split. On the last day, they can do anything. How many outcomes are there now?
2^k
2^k
Not quite.
But mostly.
There's $2^{k-1}+1$ outcomes. (More or less $2^k$.) After $k-1$ days, there are $2^{k-1}$ size-1 tribbles. On the last day, they all grow to size 2, and between 0 and $2^{k-1}$ of them split. All those cases are different.
Really, just seeing "it's kind of like $2^k$" is good enough.
Okay, so now let's get a terrible upper bound.
After $k$ days, there are going to be at most $2^k$ tribbles, which have total volume at most $2^k$ or less.
If we also line up the tribbles in order, then there are $2^{2^k}-1$ ways to "split up" the tribble volume into individual tribbles.
(Some of you are already giving better bounds than this!)
So $2^k$ and $2^{2^k}$ are very far apart. Let's get better bounds. First, let's improve our bad lower bound to a good lower bound.
We can get a better lower bound by modifying our first strategy strategy a bit. Let's say that:
* All tribbles split for the first $k/2$ days.
* Then we split the $2^{k/2}$ tribbles we have into groups numbered $1$ through $k/2$.
* The tribbles in group $i$ will keep splitting for the next $i$ days, and grow without splitting for the remainder.
How many ways can we split the $2^{k/2}$ tribbles into $k/2$ groups?
(maybe "split" is a bad word to use here. How many ways can we divide the tribbles into groups?)
This can be counted by stars and bars. (See https://artofproblemsolving.com/wiki/index.php?title=Ball-and-urn if you haven't seen these before.) The total is $\binom{2^{k/2} + k/2 -1}{k/2-1}$, which is very approximately $2^{k^2/4}$. And all the different splits produce different outcomes at the end, so this is a lower bound for $T(k)$.
Does everyone see the stars and bars connection? We have $2^{k/2}$ identical tribbles, and we just put in $k/2-1$ dividers between them to separate them into groups.
how do we find the higher bound?
Our higher bound will actually look very similar!
But for this, remember the philosophy: to get an upper bound, we need to allow extra, impossible combinations, and we do this to get something easier to count.
So now let's get an upper bound. Here, we notice that there's at most $2^k$ tribbles after $k$ days, and all tribbles have size $k+1$ or less (since they've had at most $k$ days to grow). How can we use these two facts?
partitions of $2^k(k+1)$
Almost this.
We can count all ways to split $2^k$ tribbles into $k+2$ groups (size 1, size 2, all the way up to size $k+1$, and size "does not exist".) A bunch of these are impossible to achieve in $k$ days, but we don't care: we just want an upper bound. How many such ways are there?
Do we user the stars and bars method again?
$(2^k+k+1)$ choose $(k+1)$
This is just stars and bars again. But now the answer is $\binom{2^k+k+1}{k+1}$, which is very approximately $2^{k^2}$.
How do you get to that approximation?
Great question! I am saying that $\binom nk$ is approximately $n^k$.
This is kind of a bad approximation.
Actually, $\frac{n^k}{k!}$ would be better.
(Since $\binom nk$ is $\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)(\dots)(n-k+1)}{k!}$.)
But in our case, the bottom part of the $\binom nk$ is much smaller than the top part, so $\frac[n^k}{k!}$ is about the same as $n^k$.
Sorry, that was a $\frac[n^k}{k!}$.
that approximation only works for relativly small values of k, right?
Right.
So now we have lower and upper bounds for $T(k)$ that look about the same; let's call that good enough!
(We have about $2^{k^2/4}$ on one side and $2^{k^2}$ on the other.)
Problem 7(c) solution.
Lots of people wrote in conjectures for this one. It was popular to guess that you can only reach $n$ tribbles of the same size if $n$ is a power of 2.
So let me surprise everyone. You can reach ten tribbles of size 3. All you have to do is go 1 to 2 to 11 to 22 to 1111 to 2222 to 11222 to 22333 to 1111333 to 2222444 to 2222222222 to 3333333333.
howd u get that?
This is part of a general strategy that proves that you can reach any even number of tribbles of size 2 (and any higher size). Of all the partial results that people proved, I think this was the most exciting.
wow
wow is right!
reading all of these solutions was really fun for me, because I got to see all the cool things everyone did
So here's how we can get $2n$ tribbles of size $2$ for any $n$.
First of all, we know how to reach $2^k$ tribbles of size 2, for any $k$. These can be split into $n$ tribbles in a mix of sizes 1 and 2, for any $n$ such that $2^k \le n \le 2^{k+1}$.
Those $n$ tribbles can turn into $2n$ tribbles of size 2 in just two more days. The size-1 tribbles grow, split, and grow again. The size-2 tribbles grow, grow, and then split.
And since any $n$ is between some two powers of $2$, we can get any even number this way.
(This is how I got the solution for ten tribbles, above.)
So I think that wraps up all the problems!
And right on time, too!
Okay, everybody - time to wrap up. Thank you so much for spending your evening with us!
If we didn't get to your question, you can also post questions in the Mathcamp forum here on AoPS, at http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/community/c135_mathcamp - the Mathcamp staff will post replies, and you'll get student opinions, too!
I'll stick around for another five minutes and answer non-Quiz questions (e.g. about the program and the application process).
find an expression using the variables
Thank you to all the moderators who are working on this and all the AOPS staff who worked on this, it really means a lot to me and to us so I hope you know we appreciate all your work and kindness.
Thank you very much for working through the problems with us! See you all at Mines this summer!
Thank YOU for joining us here!
We love getting to actually *talk* about the QQ problems.
How many problems do people who are admitted generally solved?
It varies widely. Most successful applicants have at least a few complete solutions.
(Very few have full solutions to every problem!)
how do we get the summer camp?
Well, first, you apply! See http://www.mathcamp.org/prospectiveapplicants/index.php for details.
And then most students fly.
Alrighty – we've hit our two hour mark. Time to wrap up. Thanks again, everybody - good night!
Thanks again, everybody - good night!
If you have further questions for Mathcamp, you can contact them at http://www.mathcamp.org/contact.php
Or ask on the Mathcamps forum
Finally, a transcript of this Math Jam will be posted soon here: http://www.aops.com/school/mathjams-transcripts
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