Difference between revisions of "Talk:1988 IMO Problems/Problem 6"

 
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I just wonder if it's possible to solve this problem with Chinese Remainder Theorem
 
I just wonder if it's possible to solve this problem with Chinese Remainder Theorem
  
First: assuming that GCD(a,b)=1.
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First: assuming that <math>GCD(a,b)=1</math>.
  
Then quotient is always square mod a and mod b and is less or equal than a times b and is not divisible by neither a nor b which implies it's square of integer.
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Then quotient is always square <math>mod a</math> and <math>mod b</math> and is less or equal than <math>ab</math> and is not divisible by neither <math>a</math> nor <math>b</math> which implies it's square of integer.
  
  
In case of GCD(a,b) = d>1 we can transform quotient to d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2*a_1*b_1 + 1) where a_1 = a/d and b_1 = b/d and follow the same reasoning as above.
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In case of <math>GCD(a,b) = d>1</math> we can transform quotient to <math>d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2a_1b_1 + 1)</math> where <math>a_1 = a/d</math> and <math>b_1 = b/d</math> and follow the same reasoning as above.
  
It's just an idea without final and rigorous proof.
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It's just an idea without final and rigorous proof yet and it may contain counterexample gaps.
  
 
Am I mistaken?
 
Am I mistaken?
  
 
Help :)
 
Help :)

Latest revision as of 08:55, 2 July 2024

I just wonder if it's possible to solve this problem with Chinese Remainder Theorem

First: assuming that $GCD(a,b)=1$.

Then quotient is always square $mod a$ and $mod b$ and is less or equal than $ab$ and is not divisible by neither $a$ nor $b$ which implies it's square of integer.


In case of $GCD(a,b) = d>1$ we can transform quotient to $d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2a_1b_1 + 1)$ where $a_1 = a/d$ and $b_1 = b/d$ and follow the same reasoning as above.

It's just an idea without final and rigorous proof yet and it may contain counterexample gaps.

Am I mistaken?

Help :)