Difference between revisions of "Talk:1988 IMO Problems/Problem 6"

(Possible approach with Chinese Remainder Theorem?)
 
Line 8: Line 8:
 
In case of <math>GCD(a,b) = d>1</math> we can transform quotient to <math>d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2a_1b_1 + 1)</math> where <math>a_1 = a/d</math> and <math>b_1 = b/d</math> and follow the same reasoning as above.
 
In case of <math>GCD(a,b) = d>1</math> we can transform quotient to <math>d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2a_1b_1 + 1)</math> where <math>a_1 = a/d</math> and <math>b_1 = b/d</math> and follow the same reasoning as above.
  
It's just an idea without final and rigorous proof yet.
+
It's just an idea without final and rigorous proof yet and it may contain counterexample gaps.
  
 
Am I mistaken?
 
Am I mistaken?
  
 
Help :)
 
Help :)

Latest revision as of 08:55, 2 July 2024

I just wonder if it's possible to solve this problem with Chinese Remainder Theorem

First: assuming that $GCD(a,b)=1$.

Then quotient is always square $mod a$ and $mod b$ and is less or equal than $ab$ and is not divisible by neither $a$ nor $b$ which implies it's square of integer.


In case of $GCD(a,b) = d>1$ we can transform quotient to $d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2a_1b_1 + 1)$ where $a_1 = a/d$ and $b_1 = b/d$ and follow the same reasoning as above.

It's just an idea without final and rigorous proof yet and it may contain counterexample gaps.

Am I mistaken?

Help :)