Difference between revisions of "2008 IMO Problems/Problem 3"
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Since <math>a</math> and <math>b</math> are (obviously) co-prime, there must exist integers <math>c</math> and <math>d</math> such that | Since <math>a</math> and <math>b</math> are (obviously) co-prime, there must exist integers <math>c</math> and <math>d</math> such that | ||
<cmath>ad+bc=1 \leqno{(1)}</cmath> | <cmath>ad+bc=1 \leqno{(1)}</cmath> | ||
− | In fact, if <math>c</math> and <math>d</math> are such numbers, then <math>c\pm | + | In fact, if <math>c</math> and <math>d</math> are such numbers, then <math>c\pm ma</math> and <math>d\mp mb</math> work as well for any integer <math>m</math>, so we can assume that <math>c \in \left[-\frac{a}{2}, \frac{a}{2}\right]</math>. |
Define <math>n=|ac-bd|</math> and let's see what happens. Notice that <math>(a^2+b^2)(c^2+d^2)=n^2+1</math>. | Define <math>n=|ac-bd|</math> and let's see what happens. Notice that <math>(a^2+b^2)(c^2+d^2)=n^2+1</math>. | ||
− | If <math>c=\pm\frac{a}{2}</math>, then from (1), we get <math>a\2</math> and hence <math>a=2</math>. That means that <math> | + | If <math>c=\pm\frac{a}{2}</math>, then from (1), we get <math>a\2</math> and hence <math>a=2</math>. That means that <math>d=-\frac{b-1}{2}</math> and <math>n=\frac{b(b-1)}{2}-2</math>. Therefore, <math>b^2-b=2n+4>2n</math> and so <math>\left(b-\frac{1}{2}\right)^2>2n</math>, from where <math>b > \sqrt{2n}+\frac{1}{2}</math>. Finally, <math>p=b^2+2^2 > 2n+\sqrt{2n}</math> and the case <math>c=\pm\frac{a}{2}</math> is cleared. |
We can safely assume now that | We can safely assume now that | ||
<cmath>|c| \le \frac{a-1}{2}.</cmath> | <cmath>|c| \le \frac{a-1}{2}.</cmath> | ||
− | + | As <math>b>a>1</math>, we have <math>b>2</math> and so | |
− | <cmath> | + | <cmath>|d| = \left|\frac{1-bc}{a}\right| \le \frac{b(a-1)+2}{2a} < \frac{ba}{2a} = \frac{b}{2},</cmath> |
− | + | so | |
− | + | <cmath>|d| \le \frac{b-1}{2}.</cmath> | |
<cmath>n^2+1 = (a^2+b^2)(c^2+d^2) > p \left( \frac{(a-1)^2}{4}+\frac{(b-1)^2}{4} \right).</cmath> | <cmath>n^2+1 = (a^2+b^2)(c^2+d^2) > p \left( \frac{(a-1)^2}{4}+\frac{(b-1)^2}{4} \right).</cmath> |
Revision as of 21:58, 3 September 2008
(still editing...)
The main idea is to take a gaussian prime and multiply it by a "twice smaller" to get . The rest is just making up the little details.
For each sufficiently large prime of the form , we shall find a corresponding satisfying the required condition with the prime number in question being . Since there exist infinitely many such primes and, for each of them, , we will have found infinitely many distinct satisfying the problem.
Take a prime of the form and consider its "sum-of-two squares" representation , which we know to exist for all such primes. As , assume without loss of generality that . If , then is our guy, and as long as (and hence ) is large enough. Let's see what happens when .
Since and are (obviously) co-prime, there must exist integers and such that In fact, if and are such numbers, then and work as well for any integer , so we can assume that .
Define and let's see what happens. Notice that .
If , then from (1), we get $a\2$ (Error compiling LaTeX. Unknown error_msg) and hence . That means that and . Therefore, and so , from where . Finally, and the case is cleared.
We can safely assume now that As , we have and so so