Difference between revisions of "Talk:1988 IMO Problems/Problem 6"

(Idea with proof via Chinese Remainder Theorem)
 
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I just wonder if it's possible to solve this problem with Chinese Remainder Theorem
 
I just wonder if it's possible to solve this problem with Chinese Remainder Theorem
  
First: assuming tha GCD(a,b)=1.
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First: assuming that GCD(a,b)=1.
  
Then quotient is always square mod a and mod b and is less or equal than a times b, which implies it's square of integer.
+
Then quotient is always square mod a and mod b and is less or equal than a times b and is not divisible by neither a nor b which implies it's square of integer.
  
  
 
In case of GCD(a,b) = d>1 we can transform quotient to d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2*a_1*b_1 + 1) where a_1 = a/d and b_1 = b/d and follow the same reasoning as above.
 
In case of GCD(a,b) = d>1 we can transform quotient to d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2*a_1*b_1 + 1) where a_1 = a/d and b_1 = b/d and follow the same reasoning as above.
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It's just an idea without final and rigorous proof.
  
 
Am I mistaken?
 
Am I mistaken?
  
 
Help :)
 
Help :)

Revision as of 08:22, 2 July 2024

I just wonder if it's possible to solve this problem with Chinese Remainder Theorem

First: assuming that GCD(a,b)=1.

Then quotient is always square mod a and mod b and is less or equal than a times b and is not divisible by neither a nor b which implies it's square of integer.


In case of GCD(a,b) = d>1 we can transform quotient to d^2((a_1)^2 + (b_1)^2)/(d^2*a_1*b_1 + 1) where a_1 = a/d and b_1 = b/d and follow the same reasoning as above.

It's just an idea without final and rigorous proof.

Am I mistaken?

Help :)