Difference between revisions of "Wilson's Theorem"

(Proof)
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== Statement ==
 
== Statement ==
If and only if p is a prime, then <math>(p-1)! + 1</math> is a multiple of p.  Written more mathematically,
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If and only if <math>{p}</math> is a prime, then <math>(p-1)! + 1</math> is a multiple of <math>{p}</math>.  Written more mathematically,
 
<math>(p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod{p}</math>
 
<math>(p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod{p}</math>
  
 
== Proof ==
 
== Proof ==
Wilson's theorem is easily verifiable for 2 and 3, so let's consider <math>p>3</math>.  If p is composite, then its positive factors are among
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Wilson's theorem is easily verifiable for 2 and 3, so let's consider <math>p>3</math>.  If <math>{p}</math> is composite, then its positive factors are among <math>1, 2, 3, \dots, p-1</math>Hence, <math>\gcd((p-1)!, p) > 1</math>, so  <math>(p-1)! \neq -1 \pmod{p}</math>.
<math>1, 2, 3, \dots, p-1</math>
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Hence, <math>gcd((p-1)!, p) > 1</math>, so  <math>(p-1)! \neq -1 \pmod{p}</math>.
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However if <math>{p}</math> is prime, then each of the above integers are relatively prime to <math>{p}</math>. So for each of these integers a there is another <math>b</math> such that <math>ab \equiv 1 \pmod{p}</math>. It is important to note that this <math>b</math> is unique modulo <math>{p}</math>, and that since <math>{p}</math> is prime, <math>a = b</math> if and only if <math>{a}</math> is <math>1</math> or <math>p-1</math>. Now if we omit 1 and <math>p-1</math>, then the others can be grouped into pairs whose product is congruent to one, <math>2\cdot3\cdot4\cdots(p-2) \equiv 1\pmod{p}</math>
    However if <math>p</math> is prime, then each of the above integers are relatively prime to <math>p</math>. So for each of these integers <math>a</math> there is another <math>b</math> such that <math>ab \equiv 1 \pmod{p}</math>. It is important to note that this <math>b</math> is unique modulo <math>p</math>, and that since <math>p</math> is prime, <math>a = b</math> if and only if <math>a</math> is <math>1</math> or <math>p-1</math>. Now if we omit <math>1</math> and <math>p-1</math>, then the others can be grouped into pairs whose product is congruent to one,
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<math>2*3*4*\dots*(p-2) \equiv 1\pmod{p}</math>
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Finally, multiply this equality by <math>p-1</math> to complete the proof.
Finally, multiply this equality by p-1 to complete the proof.
 
 
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Revision as of 14:56, 17 June 2006

Statement

If and only if ${p}$ is a prime, then $(p-1)! + 1$ is a multiple of ${p}$. Written more mathematically, $(p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod{p}$

Proof

Wilson's theorem is easily verifiable for 2 and 3, so let's consider $p>3$. If ${p}$ is composite, then its positive factors are among $1, 2, 3, \dots, p-1$. Hence, $\gcd((p-1)!, p) > 1$, so $(p-1)! \neq -1 \pmod{p}$.

However if ${p}$ is prime, then each of the above integers are relatively prime to ${p}$. So for each of these integers a there is another $b$ such that $ab \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$. It is important to note that this $b$ is unique modulo ${p}$, and that since ${p}$ is prime, $a = b$ if and only if ${a}$ is $1$ or $p-1$. Now if we omit 1 and $p-1$, then the others can be grouped into pairs whose product is congruent to one, $2\cdot3\cdot4\cdots(p-2) \equiv 1\pmod{p}$

Finally, multiply this equality by $p-1$ to complete the proof. Insert non-formatted text here