Difference between revisions of "2000 AMC 8 Problems/Problem 21"

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==Problem==
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Keiko tosses one penny and Ephraim tosses two pennies. The probability that Ephraim gets the same number of heads that Keiko gets is
 
Keiko tosses one penny and Ephraim tosses two pennies. The probability that Ephraim gets the same number of heads that Keiko gets is
  
 
<math> \text{(A)}\ \frac{1}{4}\qquad\text{(B)}\ \frac{3}{8}\qquad\text{(C)}\ \frac{1}{2}\qquad\text{(D)}\ \frac{2}{3}\qquad\text{(E)}\ \frac{3}{4} </math>
 
<math> \text{(A)}\ \frac{1}{4}\qquad\text{(B)}\ \frac{3}{8}\qquad\text{(C)}\ \frac{1}{2}\qquad\text{(D)}\ \frac{2}{3}\qquad\text{(E)}\ \frac{3}{4} </math>
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==Solution==
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Let <math>K(n)</math> be the probability that Keiko gets <math>n</math> heads, and let <math>E(n)</math> be the probability that Ephriam gets <math>n</math> heads.
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<math>K(0) = \frac{1}{2}</math>
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<math>K(1) = \frac{1}{2}</math>
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<math>K(2) = 0</math>  (Keiko only has one penny!)
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<math>E(0) = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}</math>
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<math>E(1) = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} = 2\cdot\frac{1}{4} = \frac{1}{2}</math>  (because Ephraim can get HT or TH)
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<math>E(2) = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}</math>
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The probability that Keiko gets <math>0</math> heads and Ephriam gets <math>0</math> heads is <math>K(0)\cdot E(0)</math>.  Simiarly for <math>1</math> head and <math>2</math> heads.  Thus, we have:
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<math>P = K(0)\cdot E(0) + K(1)\cdot E(1) + K(2)\cdot E(2)</math>
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<math>P = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} + 0</math>
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<math>P = \frac{3}{8}</math>
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Thus the answer is <math>\boxed{B}</math>.
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==See Also==
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{{AMC8 box|year=2000|num-b=20|num-a=22}}

Revision as of 20:35, 30 July 2011

Problem

Keiko tosses one penny and Ephraim tosses two pennies. The probability that Ephraim gets the same number of heads that Keiko gets is

$\text{(A)}\ \frac{1}{4}\qquad\text{(B)}\ \frac{3}{8}\qquad\text{(C)}\ \frac{1}{2}\qquad\text{(D)}\ \frac{2}{3}\qquad\text{(E)}\ \frac{3}{4}$

Solution

Let $K(n)$ be the probability that Keiko gets $n$ heads, and let $E(n)$ be the probability that Ephriam gets $n$ heads.

$K(0) = \frac{1}{2}$

$K(1) = \frac{1}{2}$

$K(2) = 0$ (Keiko only has one penny!)

$E(0) = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}$

$E(1) = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} = 2\cdot\frac{1}{4} = \frac{1}{2}$ (because Ephraim can get HT or TH)

$E(2) = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}$

The probability that Keiko gets $0$ heads and Ephriam gets $0$ heads is $K(0)\cdot E(0)$. Simiarly for $1$ head and $2$ heads. Thus, we have:

$P = K(0)\cdot E(0) + K(1)\cdot E(1) + K(2)\cdot E(2)$

$P = \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} + 0$

$P = \frac{3}{8}$

Thus the answer is $\boxed{B}$.

See Also

2000 AMC 8 (ProblemsAnswer KeyResources)
Preceded by
Problem 20
Followed by
Problem 22
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
All AJHSME/AMC 8 Problems and Solutions