Fallacious proof/2equals1
Revision as of 14:42, 3 August 2006 by IntrepidMath (talk | contribs)
2 = 1
Let .
Then we have
(since
)
(adding
to both sides)
(factoring out a 2 on the LHS)
(dividing by
)
Explanation
The trick in this argument is when we divide by . Since a=b,
equals 0, and dividing by zero is illegal.