Fallacious proof/2equals1
Revision as of 13:42, 3 August 2006 by IntrepidMath (talk | contribs)
2 = 1
Let .
Then we have
(since )
(adding to both sides)
(factoring out a 2 on the LHS)
(dividing by )
Explanation
The trick in this argument is when we divide by . Since a=b, equals 0, and dividing by zero is illegal.