# 1989 IMO Problems/Problem 5

## Problem

Prove that for each positive integer $n$ there exist $n$ consecutive positive integers none of which is an integral power of a prime number.

## Solution 1

There are at most $1+\sqrt{n}+\sqrt{n}+\sqrt{n}+...+\sqrt[\left\lfloor \log_2(n)\right\rfloor]{n} \leq 1+ \sqrt n log_2(n)$ 'true' powers $m^k , k\geq 2$ in the set $\{1,2,...,n\}$. So when $p(n)$ gives the amount of 'true' powers $\leq n$ we get that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{p(n)}{n} = 0$.

Since also $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\pi(n)}{n} = 0$, we get that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{p(n)+\pi(n)}{n} = 0$. Now assume that there is no 'gap' of lenght at least $k$ into the set of 'true' powers and the primes. Then this would give that $\frac{p(n)+\pi(n)}{n} \geq \frac{1}{k}$ for all $n$ in contrary to the above (at east this proves a bit more).

Edit: to elementarize the $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\pi(n)}{n} = 0$ part: Look $\mod (k+1)!$. Then all numbers in the residue classes $2,3,4,...,k+1$ are not primes (except the smallest representants sometimes). So when there wouldn't exist a gap of length $k$, there has to be a 'true' power in each of these gaps of the prime numbers, so at least one power each $(k+1)!$ numbers, again contradicting $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{p(n)}{n} = 0$.

This solution was posted and copyrighted by ZetaX. The original thread for this problem can be found here: 

## Solution 2

By Chinese Remainder theorem, there exists $x$ such that: $x \equiv -1\;mod\;p_1 q_1\\ x \equiv -2\;mod\;p_2 q_2\\ x \equiv -3\;mod\;p_3 q_3\\ ...\newline x \equiv -n\;mod\;p_n q_n$ Where $p_1, p_2, ..., p_n, q_1, q_2, ..., q_n$ are distinct primes. The n consecutive numbers $x+1, x+2, ..., x+n$ each have at least two prime factors, so none of them can be expressed as an integral power of a prime.