Difference between revisions of "User talk:Bobthesmartypants/Sandbox"

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We can let <math>SH=n</math>. The triangle <math>SHX'</math> therefore has sides of length <math>n</math>, <math>100</math>, and <math>150</math>.
 
We can let <math>SH=n</math>. The triangle <math>SHX'</math> therefore has sides of length <math>n</math>, <math>100</math>, and <math>150</math>.
  
However, because of SSS congruency, <math>SHX'</math> must be congruent to <math>SHX</math>. Since <math>SX'=SX</math>, then <math>X</math> and <math>X'</math> are the same point, and therefore <math>X</math> is unique. <math>\Box</math>
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However, because of SSS congruency, <math>SHX'</math> must be congruent to <math>SHX</math>.  
 +
 
 +
Since <math>SX'=SX</math>, then <math>X</math> and <math>X'</math> are the same point, and therefore <math>X</math> is unique. <math>\Box</math>
  
 
Note that there is an extraneous solution for <math>X'</math> that is to the left of the line <math>\overline{SH}</math>.  
 
Note that there is an extraneous solution for <math>X'</math> that is to the left of the line <math>\overline{SH}</math>.  
  
 
However, since this does not meet the requirements of the point being on land, it does not work.
 
However, since this does not meet the requirements of the point being on land, it does not work.

Revision as of 17:04, 8 December 2013

Bobthesmartypants's Sandbox

Solution 1

[asy] path Q; Q=(0,0)--(1,2)--(5,2)--(4,0)--cycle; draw(Q); draw((0,0)--(1.5,1)); label("D",(0,0),S); draw((1,2)--(1.5,1)); label("A",(1,2),N); draw((5,2)--(1.5,1)); label("B",(5,2),N); draw((4,0)--(1.5,1)); label("C",(4,0),S); draw((2,0)--(1.5,1),linetype("8 8")); label("E",(2,0),S); draw((2/3,4/3)--(1.5,1),linetype("8 8")); label("F",(2/3,4/3),W); label("P",(1.5,1),NNE); [/asy]

First, continue $\overline{AP}$ to hit $\overline{CD}$ at $E$. Also continue $\overline{CP}$ to hit $\overline{AD}$ at $F$.

We have that $\angle PAB=\angle PCB$. Because $\overline{AB}\parallel\overline{CD}$, we have $\angle PAB=\angle PED$.

Similarly, because $\overline{AD}\parallel\overline{BC}$, we have $\angle PCB=\angle PFD$.

Therefore, $\angle PAB=\angle PED=\angle PCB=\angle PFD$.

We also have that $\angle ADC=\angle ABC$ because $ABCD$ is a parallelogram, and $\angle APC=\angle FPE$.

Therefore, $ABCP\sim FDEP$. This means that $\dfrac{FD}{AB}=\dfrac{FP}{AP}=\dfrac{DP}{BP}$, so $\Delta ABP\sim\Delta FDP$.

Therefore, $\angle PBA=\angle PDA$. $\Box$


Solution 2

Note that $\dfrac{1}{n}$ is rational and $n$ is not divisible by $2$ nor $5$ because $n>11$.

This means the decimal representation of $\dfrac{1}{n}$ is a repeating decimal.

Let us set $a_1a_2\cdots a_x$ as the block that repeats in the repeating decimal: $\dfrac{1}{n}=0.\overline{a_1a_2\cdots a_x}$.

($a_1a_2\cdots a_x$ written without the overline used to signify one number so won't confuse with notation for repeating decimal)

The fractional representation of this repeating decimal would be $\dfrac{1}{n}=\dfrac{a_1a_2\cdots a_x}{10^x-1}$.

Taking the reciprocal of both sides you get $n=\dfrac{10^x-1}{a_1a_2\cdots a_x}$.

Multiplying both sides by $a_1a_2\cdots a_n$ gives $n(a_1a_2\cdots a_x)=10^x-1$.

Since $10^x-1=9\times \underbrace{111\cdots 111}_{x\text{ times}}$ we divide $9$ on both sides of the equation to get $\dfrac{n(a_1a_2\cdots a_x)}{9}=\underbrace{111\cdots 111}_{x\text{ times}}$.

Because $n$ is not divisible by $3$ (therefore $9$) since $n>11$ and $n$ is prime, it follows that $n|\underbrace{111\cdots 111}_{x\text{ times}}$. $\Box$

Picture 1

[asy]draw(Circle((1,1),2)); draw(Circle((sqrt(2),sqrt(3)/2),1)); dot((8/5,2/5)); dot((1,1)); draw((1,1)--(8/5,2/5),linetype("8 8")); label("a",(6/5,7/10),SSW); draw((8/5,2/5)--(12/5,-2/5),linetype("8 8")); label("b",(2,0),SSW); [/asy] \[\text{Find the probability that }b>a \text{.}\]

Picture 2

[asy] for (int i=0;i<6;i=i+1){ draw(dir(60*i)--dir(60*i+60)); } draw(dir(120)--(dir(0)+dir(-60))/2); draw(dir(180)--(dir(60)+dir(0))/2); fill(dir(120)--dir(180)--intersectionpoint(dir(120)--(dir(0)+dir(-60))/2,dir(180)--(dir(60)+dir(0))/2)--cycle,grey); fill((dir(0)+dir(-60))/2--dir(0)--(dir(60)+dir(0))/2--intersectionpoint(dir(120)--(dir(0)+dir(-60))/2,dir(180)--(dir(60)+dir(0))/2)--cycle,grey); [/asy] \[\text{Prove the shaded areas are equal.}\]

sandbox

[asy] unitsize(0.2mm); pair H,S,X,Y,A,B; H = (25,0); S = (0,115); X = (122,26); Y = (-75,-17); A = ((H+X)/2); B = ((S+X)/2); draw(Circle(H,100)); draw(Circle(S,150)); draw(H--S--X--cycle); draw(H--Y--S,linetype("8 8")); label("100",A,dir(-90)); label("150",B,dir(-120)); label("H",H,dir(-90)); label("S",S,dir(90)); label("X",X,dir(0)); label("X'",Y,dir(-135)); [/asy]

PROVING THE EXISTENCE OF SUCH A POINT

We first want to prove that a point $X$ exists such that $HX=100$ and $SX=150$.

First we draw a circle with center $H$ and radius $100$. This denotes the locus of all points $P$ such that $HP=100$.

Now we draw a circle with center $S$ and radius $150$. This denotes the locus of all points $P$ such that $SP=150$.

Note that the intersection of these two locuses are the points which satisfy both conditions.

We see that there are two points which satisfy both locuses: $X$ and $X'$.

We get rid of the extraneous solution, $X'$, because it does not satisfy the need that the treasure is on land.

Therefore the point that we seek is $X$, and we have proved its existence. $\Box$

Note that we are assuming that $SH\le SX+HX$. This is true because the diagram given is to scale.

PROVING THAT THE POINT IS UNIQUE

[asy] unitsize(0.2mm); pair H,S,X,Y,A,B,C; H = (25,0); S = (0,115); X = (122,26); Y = (120,50); A = ((H+X)/2); B = ((S+X)/2); C = ((H+S)/2); draw(H--S--X--cycle); draw(H--Y--S,linetype("8 8")); label("100",A,dir(-90)); label("150",B,dir(-120)); label("H",H,dir(-90)); label("S",S,dir(90)); label("X",X,dir(0)); label("X'",Y,dir(45)); label("n",C,dir(210)); [/asy]

Note that if there is another point $X'$, then it must satisfy that $HX'=100$ and $SX'=150$.

We can let $SH=n$. The triangle $SHX'$ therefore has sides of length $n$, $100$, and $150$.

However, because of SSS congruency, $SHX'$ must be congruent to $SHX$.

Since $SX'=SX$, then $X$ and $X'$ are the same point, and therefore $X$ is unique. $\Box$

Note that there is an extraneous solution for $X'$ that is to the left of the line $\overline{SH}$.

However, since this does not meet the requirements of the point being on land, it does not work.