Difference between revisions of "1972 IMO Problems/Problem 3"
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== Solution 1 == | == Solution 1 == | ||
− | + | Denote the given expression as <math>f(m,n)</math>. We intend to show that <math>f(m,n)</math> is integral for all <math>m,n \geq 0</math>. To start, we would like to find a recurrence relation for <math>f(m,n)</math>. First, let's look at <math>f(m,n-1)</math>: | |
− | + | <cmath>\begin{align*} | |
− | First, let's look at <math>f(m,n-1)</math>: | + | f(m,n-1) &=\frac{(2m)!(2n-2)!}{m!(n-1)!(m+n-1)!}\\ |
− | + | &=\frac{(2m)!(2n)!(n-1)(m+n)}{m!n!(m+n)!(2n-1)(2n-2)}\\ | |
− | < | + | &=f(m,n) \cdot \frac{(n-1)(m+n)}{(2n-1)(2n-2)}\\ |
− | + | &=f(m,n) \cdot \frac{m+n}{2(2n-1)} | |
+ | \end{align*}</cmath> | ||
Second, let's look at <math>f(m+1,n-1)</math>: | Second, let's look at <math>f(m+1,n-1)</math>: | ||
− | + | <cmath>\begin{align*} | |
− | < | + | f(m+1,n-1) &=\frac{(2m+2)!(2n-2)!}{(m+1)!(n-1)!(m+n)!}\\ |
− | + | &=\frac{(2m)!(2n)!(2m+1)(2m+2)(n-1)}{m!n!(m+n)!(m+1)(2n-1)(2n-2)}\\ | |
+ | &= f(m,n) \cdot \frac{(2m+1)(2m+2)(n-1)}{(m+1)(2n-1)(2n-2)}\\ | ||
+ | &=f(m,n) \cdot \frac{(2m+1)}{2n-1} | ||
+ | \end{align*}</cmath> | ||
Combining, | Combining, | ||
+ | <cmath>\begin{align*} | ||
+ | 4f(m,n-1)-f(m+1,n-1) &=f(m,n)\cdot \Bigg(\frac{4(m+n)}{2(2n-1)}-\frac{2m+1}{2n-1}\Bigg)\\ | ||
+ | &=f(m,n) \cdot \frac{2m+2n-2m-1}{2n-1}\\ | ||
+ | &=f(m,n). | ||
+ | \end{align*}</cmath> | ||
+ | Therefore, we have found the recurrence relation <cmath>f(m,n)=4f(m,n-1)-f(m+1,n-1).</cmath> | ||
− | <math> | + | Note that <math>f(m,0)</math> is just <math>\binom{2m}{m}</math>, which is an integer for all <math>m \geq 0</math>. Then <cmath>f(m,1)=4f(m,0)-f(m+1,0),</cmath> so <math>f(m,1)</math> is an integer, and therefore <math>f(m,2)=4f(m,1)-f(m+1,1)</math> must be an integer, etc. |
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− | By induction, <math>f(m,n)</math> is | + | By induction, <math>f(m,n)</math> is an integer for all <math>m,n \geq 0</math>. |
Borrowed from http://www.cs.cornell.edu/~asdas/imo/imo/isoln/isoln723.html | Borrowed from http://www.cs.cornell.edu/~asdas/imo/imo/isoln/isoln723.html |
Latest revision as of 23:26, 6 December 2022
Let and be arbitrary non-negative integers. Prove that is an integer. (.)
Solution 1
Denote the given expression as . We intend to show that is integral for all . To start, we would like to find a recurrence relation for . First, let's look at : Second, let's look at : Combining, Therefore, we have found the recurrence relation
Note that is just , which is an integer for all . Then so is an integer, and therefore must be an integer, etc.
By induction, is an integer for all .
Borrowed from http://www.cs.cornell.edu/~asdas/imo/imo/isoln/isoln723.html
Solution 2
Let p be a prime, and n be an integer. Let be the largest positive integer such that
WTS: For all primes ,
We know
Lemma 2.1: Let be real numbers. Then
Proof of Lemma 2.1: Let and
On the other hand,
It is trivial that (Triangle Inequality)
Apply Lemma 2.1 to the problem: and we are pretty much done.
Note: I am lazy, so this is only the most important part. I hope you can come up with the rest of the solution. This is my work, but perhaps someone have come up with this method before I did.
See Also
1972 IMO (Problems) • Resources | ||
Preceded by Problem 2 |
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 | Followed by Problem 4 |
All IMO Problems and Solutions |