|
|
Line 3: |
Line 3: |
| | | |
| <cmath>\sum_{j = 1}^n a_j^2 > \frac {1}{4} \left( 1 + \frac {1}{2} + \cdots + \frac {1}{n} \right).</cmath> | | <cmath>\sum_{j = 1}^n a_j^2 > \frac {1}{4} \left( 1 + \frac {1}{2} + \cdots + \frac {1}{n} \right).</cmath> |
− |
| |
− | == Solution ==
| |
− | Since each <math>a_{i}</math> is positive, by Muirhead's inequality,
| |
− | <math>2(\sum a_{i}^2) \ge (\sum a)^2 \ge n</math>. Now we claim that <math> \frac{n}{2}> frac{1}{4}(1+...\frac{1}{n)}</math>
| |
− |
| |
− | <math>n=1</math>, giving <math>1/2>1/4</math> works, but we set the base case <math>n=2</math>, which gives <math>1>3/8</math>. Now assume that it works for <math>n</math>.
| |
− | By our assumption, now we must prove that, for <math>n+1</math> case, <math>1/2>\frac{1}{n+1}</math>, which is clearly true for <math>n>1</math>. So we are done.
| |
| | | |
| == See Also == | | == See Also == |
| {{USAMO box|year=1994|num-b=3|num-a=5}} | | {{USAMO box|year=1994|num-b=3|num-a=5}} |
Revision as of 21:40, 13 April 2011