2022 AMC 10B Problems/Problem 23

The following problem is from both the 2022 AMC 10B #23 and 2022 AMC 12B #22, so both problems redirect to this page.

Problem

Ant Amelia starts on the number line at $0$ and crawls in the following manner. For $n=1,2,3,$ Amelia chooses a time duration $t_n$ and an increment $x_n$ independently and uniformly at random from the interval $(0,1).$ During the $n$ th step of the process, Amelia moves $x_n$ units in the positive direction, using up $t_n$ minutes. If the total elapsed time has exceeded $1$ minute during the $n$ th step, she stops at the end of that step; otherwise, she continues with the next step, taking at most $3$ steps in all. What is the probability that Amelia’s position when she stops will be greater than $1$ ?

$\textbf{(A) }\frac{1}{3} \qquad \textbf{(B) }\frac{1}{2} \qquad \textbf{(C) }\frac{2}{3} \qquad \textbf{(D) }\frac{3}{4} \qquad \textbf{(E) }\frac{5}{6}$

Solution 1 (Geometric Probability)

Let $x$ and $y$ be random variables that are independently and uniformly distributed in the interval $(0,1).$ Note that $P(x+y\leq 1)=\frac{\frac12\cdot1^2}{1^2}=\frac12,$ as shown below. $[asy] /* Made by MRENTHUSIASM */ size(200); real xMin = -0.25; real xMax = 1.25; real yMin = -0.25; real yMax = 1.25; //Draws the horizontal ticks void horizontalTicks() { for (real i = 1; i < yMax; ++i) { draw((-1/32,i)--(1/32,i), black+linewidth(1)); } } //Draws the vertical ticks void verticalTicks() { for (real i = 1; i < xMax; ++i) { draw((i,-1/32)--(i,1/32), black+linewidth(1)); } } horizontalTicks(); verticalTicks(); label("$0$",(0,0),2*SW); label("$1$",(1,0),2*S); label("$1$",(0,1),2*W); fill((0,0)--(1,0)--(0,1)--cycle,yellow); draw((0,1)--(1,1)^^(1,0)--(1,1),dashed); draw((0,1)--(1,0)); draw((xMin,0)--(xMax,0),black+linewidth(1.5),EndArrow(8)); draw((0,yMin)--(0,yMax),black+linewidth(1.5),EndArrow(8)); label("$x$",(xMax,0),(2,0)); label("$y$",(0,yMax),(0,2)); [/asy]$ Let $x,y,$ and $z$ be random variables that are independently and uniformly distributed in the interval $(0,1).$ Note that $P(x+y+z\leq 1)=\frac{\frac13\cdot\left(\frac12\cdot1^2\right)\cdot1}{1^3}=\frac16,$ as shown below. $[asy] /* Made by MRENTHUSIASM */ size(200); import graph3; import solids; currentprojection=orthographic((0.3,0.1,0.1)); draw(surface((1,0,0)--(0,1,0)--(0,0,1)--cycle),yellow); draw(surface((1,0,0)--(0,1,0)--(0,0,0)--cycle),yellow); draw(surface((1,0,0)--(0,0,1)--(0,0,0)--cycle),yellow); draw(surface((0,1,0)--(0,0,1)--(0,0,0)--cycle),yellow); draw((0,0,1)--(0,1,1)--(1,1,1)--(1,0,1)--cycle,dashed); draw((0,1,0)--(1,1,0)--(1,0,0),dashed); draw((0,1,1)--(0,1,0)^^(1,1,1)--(1,1,0)^^(1,0,1)--(1,0,0),dashed); draw((-0.5,0,0)--(1.5,0,0),linewidth(1.25),EndArrow3(10)); draw((0,-0.5,0)--(0,1.5,0),linewidth(1.25),EndArrow3(10)); draw((0,0,-0.5)--(0,0,1.5),linewidth(1.25),EndArrow3(10)); draw((-0.1,0,1)--(0.1,0,1),linewidth(1)); draw((0,1,-0.1)--(0,1,0.1),linewidth(1)); draw((1,-0.1,0)--(1,0.1,0),linewidth(1)); label("$x$",(1.5,0,0),4*dir((1.5,0,0))); label("$y$",(0,1.5,0),2*dir((0,1.5,0))); label("$z$",(0,0,1.5),2*dir((0,0,1.5))); label("$0$",(0,0,0),2*dir((0,0.5,-0.5))); label("$1$",(1,0,0),4*dir((0,-1,0))); label("$1$",(0,1,0),4*dir((0,0,-1))); label("$1$",(0,0,1),5*dir((-1,0,0))); draw((1,0,0)--(0,1,0)--(0,0,1)--cycle); [/asy]$ We have two cases:

Amelia takes exactly $2$ steps.

We need $x_1+x_2>1$ and $t_1+t_2>1.$ So, the probability is $P(x_1+x_2>1)\cdot P(t_1+t_2>1)=\left(1-\frac12\right)\cdot\left(1-\frac12\right)=\frac14.$

Amelia takes exactly $3$ steps.

We need $x_1+x_2+x_3>1$ and $t_1+t_2\leq1.$ So, the probability is $P(x_1+x_2+x_3>1)\cdot P(t_1+t_2\leq1)=\left(1-\frac16\right)\cdot\frac12=\frac{5}{12}.$

Together, the answer is $\frac14 + \frac{5}{12} = \boxed{\textbf{(C) }\frac{2}{3}}.$

~Steven Chen (Professor Chen Education Palace, www.professorchenedu.com)

~MRENTHUSIASM

Solution 2 (Generalization and Induction)

We can in fact find the probability that any number of randomly distributed numbers on the interval $[0, 1]$ sum to more than $1$ using geometric probability, as shown in the video below.

If we graph the points that satisfy $x + y < 1$ , $0 < x, y < 1$ , we get the triangle with points $(0, 0)$ , $(1, 0)$ , and $(0, 1)$ . If we graph the points that satisfy $x + y + z < 1$ , $0 < x, y, z < 1$ , we get the tetrahedron with points $(0, 0, 0)$ , $(1, 0, 0)$ , $(0, 1, 0)$ , and $(0, 0, 1)$ .

Of course, the probability of either of these cases happening is simply the area/volume of the points we graphed divided by the total area of the graph, which is always $1$ (this would be much simpler than my calculus proof above).

Thus, we can now solve for the probability that the sum is less than one for $n$ numbers using induction.

$\textbf{Claim:}$ The probability that the sum is less than one is $\frac{1}{n!}$ .

$\textbf{Base Case:}$ For just $1$ number, the probability is $1$ .

$\textbf{Induction step:}$ Suppose that the probability for $n$ numbers is $\frac{1}{n!}$ . We will prove that the probability for $n+1$ numbers is $\frac{1}{(n+1)!}$ . To prove this, we consider that the area of an $n+1$ -dimensional tetrahedron is simply the area/volume of the base times the height divided by $n+1$ .

Of course, the area of the base is $\frac{1}{n!}$ , and the height is $1$ , and thus, we obtain $\frac{1}{n! \cdot (n+1)} = \frac{1}{(n+1)!}$ as our volume (this may be hard to visualize for higher dimensions). The induction step is complete.

The probability of the sum being less than $1$ is $\frac{1}{n!}$ , and the probability of the sum being more than $1$ is $\frac{n!-1}{n!}$ . This trivializes the problem. The answer is $\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{2! - 1}{2!} + \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{3! - 1}{3!} = \boxed{\textbf{(C) }\frac{2}{3}}.$

~mathboy100

Solution 3 (Observations)

There are two cases: Amelia takes two steps or three steps.

The former case has a probability of $\frac{1}{2}$ , as stated in Solution 1, and thus the latter also has a probability of $\frac{1}{2}$ .

The probability that Amelia passes $1$ after two steps is also $\frac{1}{2}$ , as it is symmetric to the probability above.

Thus, if the probability that Amelia passes $1$ after three steps is $x$ , our total probability is $\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2} \cdot x$ . We know that $0 < x < 1$ , and it is relatively obvious that $x > \frac{1}{2}$ (because the probability that $x > \frac{3}{2}$ is $\frac{1}{2}$ ). This means that our total probability is between $\frac{1}{2}$ and $\frac{3}{4}$ , non-inclusive, so the only answer choice that fits is $\boxed{\textbf{(C) }\frac{2}{3}}$ .

~mathboy100

Remark (Calculus)

It is not immediately clear why three random numbers between $0$ and $1$ have a probability of $\frac{5}{6}$ of summing to more than $1$ . Here is a proof:

Let us start by finding the probability that two random numbers between $0$ and $1$ have a sum of more than $x$ , where $0 \leq x \leq 1$ .

Suppose that our two numbers are $y$ and $z$ . Then, the probability that $y > x$ (which means that $y + z > x$ ) is $1 - x$ , and the probability that $y < x$ is $x$ .

If $y < x$ , the probability that $y + z > x$ is $1 - x + y$ . This is because the probability that $y + z < x$ is equal to the probability that $z < x - y$ , which is $x - y$ , so our total probability is $1 - (x - y) = 1 - x + y$ .

Let us now find the average of the probability that $y + z > x$ when $y < x$ . Since $y$ is a random number between $0$ and $x$ , its average is $\frac{x}{2}$ . Thus, our average is $1 - x + \frac{1}{2} = 1 - \frac{x}{2}$ .

Hence, our total probability is equal to $1(1-x) + \left(1 - \frac{x}{2}\right)(x) = 1 - \frac{1}{2}x^2.$ Now, let us find the probability that three numbers uniformly distributed between $0$ and $1$ sum to more than $1$ .

Let our three numbers be $a$ , $b$ , and $c$ . Then, the probability that $a + b + c > 1$ is equal to the probability that $b + c$ is greater than $1 - a$ , which is equal to $1 - \frac{1}{2}(1 - a)^2$ .

To find the total probability, we must average over all values of $a$ . This average is simply equal to the area under the curve $1 - \frac{1}{2}(1-x)^2$ from $0$ to $1$ , all divided by $1$ . We can compute this value using integrals: $\begin{align*} \frac{\int_0^1 \! 1 - \frac{1}{2}(1 - x)^2 \mathrm{d}x}{1} &= \int_0^1 \! 1 - \frac{1}{2}(1 - x)^2 \mathrm{d}x \\ &= 1 - \frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 \! (1 - x)^2 \mathrm{d}x \\ &= 1 - \frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 \! x^2 \mathrm{d}x \\ &= 1 - \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) \\ &= \frac{5}{6}. \end{align*}$ For those who don't know calculus, $\int_m^n \! f(x) \mathrm{d}x$ is the area under the curve $f(x)$ from $m$ to $n$ .

~mathboy100

Video Solution by OmegaLearn Using Geometric Probability

https://youtu.be/-AqhcVX8mTw

~ pi_is_3.14

Video Solution

https://youtu.be/WsA94SmsF5o

~ThePuzzlr

https://youtu.be/qOxnx_c9kVo

~Steven Chen (Professor Chen Education Palace, www.professorchenedu.com)

2022 AMC 10B (Problems • Answer Key • Resources)
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2022 AMC 10B Problems/Problem 23

Contents

Problem

Solution 1 (Geometric Probability)

Solution 2 (Generalization and Induction)

Solution 3 (Observations)

Remark (Calculus)

Video Solution by OmegaLearn Using Geometric Probability

Video Solution

See Also