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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
Spring is in full swing and summer is right around the corner, what are your plans? At AoPS Online our schedule has new classes starting now through July, so be sure to keep your skills sharp and be prepared for the Fall school year! Check out the schedule of upcoming classes below.

WOOT early bird pricing is in effect, don’t miss out! If you took MathWOOT Level 2 last year, no worries, it is all new problems this year! Our Worldwide Online Olympiad Training program is for high school level competitors. AoPS designed these courses to help our top students get the deep focus they need to succeed in their specific competition goals. Check out the details at this link for all our WOOT programs in math, computer science, chemistry, and physics.

Looking for summer camps in math and language arts? Be sure to check out the video-based summer camps offered at the Virtual Campus that are 2- to 4-weeks in duration. There are middle and high school competition math camps as well as Math Beasts camps that review key topics coupled with fun explorations covering areas such as graph theory (Math Beasts Camp 6), cryptography (Math Beasts Camp 7-8), and topology (Math Beasts Camp 8-9)!

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following events:
[list][*]April 3rd (Webinar), 4pm PT/7:00pm ET, Learning with AoPS: Perspectives from a Parent, Math Camp Instructor, and University Professor
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April 9th (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Learn about Video-based Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus
[*]April 10th (Math Jam), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, 2025 MathILy and MathILy-Er Math Jam: Multibackwards Numbers
[*]April 22nd (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Competitive Programming at AoPS (USACO).[/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
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What belongs on this forum?
How do I write a thorough solution?
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Mathcounts and how to learn

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Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
Choose P on (AOB) and Q on (AOC)
MarkBcc168   8
N a few seconds ago by NO_SQUARES
Source: ELMO Shortlist 2024 G5
Let $ABC$ be a triangle with circumcenter $O$ and circumcircle $\omega$. Let $D$ be the foot of the altitude from $A$ to $\overline{BC}$. Let $P$ and $Q$ be points on the circumcircles of triangles $AOB$ and $AOC$, respectively, such that $A$, $P$, and $Q$ are collinear. Prove that if the circumcircle of triangle $OPQ$ is tangent to $\omega$ at $T$, then $\angle BTD=\angle CAP$.

Tiger Zhang
8 replies
MarkBcc168
Jun 22, 2024
NO_SQUARES
a few seconds ago
easy functional
B1t   13
N 5 minutes ago by AshAuktober
Source: Mongolian TST 2025 P1.
Denote the set of real numbers by $\mathbb{R}$. Find all functions $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ such that for all $x, y, z \in \mathbb{R}$,
\[
f(xf(x+y)+z) = f(z) + f(x)y + f(xf(x)).
\]
13 replies
B1t
Apr 26, 2025
AshAuktober
5 minutes ago
Geometry with orthocenter config
thdnder   2
N 15 minutes ago by thdnder
Source: Own
Let $ABC$ be a triangle, and let $AD, BE, CF$ be its altitudes. Let $H$ be its orthocenter, and let $O_B$ and $O_C$ be the circumcenters of triangles $AHC$ and $AHB$. Let $G$ be the second intersection of the circumcircles of triangles $FDO_B$ and $EDO_C$. Prove that the lines $DG$, $EF$, and $A$-median of $\triangle ABC$ are concurrent.
2 replies
thdnder
Yesterday at 5:26 PM
thdnder
15 minutes ago
problem interesting
Cobedangiu   3
N 15 minutes ago by tom-nowy
Let $a=3k^2+3k+1 (a,k \in N)$
$i)$ Prove that: $a^2$ is the sum of $3$ square numbers
$ii)$ Let $b \vdots a$ and $b$ is the sum of $3$ square numbers. Prove that: $b^n$ is the sum of $3$ square numbers
3 replies
Cobedangiu
Today at 5:06 AM
tom-nowy
15 minutes ago
Can someone explain this one
hawa   10
N Yesterday at 8:23 PM by VivaanKam
Suppose n is the largest integer obtained by solving the following inequality:

3+9+18+30+...+n
n < 2021.
10 replies
hawa
Yesterday at 1:36 AM
VivaanKam
Yesterday at 8:23 PM
Alcumus specs
YeohZY   5
N Yesterday at 7:23 PM by PikaPika999
Hi, can I ask about how Alcumus gives you points? (I mean the number on the red/orange/green/blue line on top that gains once you get correct answers. I'll just call it the score). I want to get my score up to 100, but I always can't and get stuck at like 98 or sth. Why is this so, and also how does alcumus make that "score" higher?
5 replies
YeohZY
Apr 27, 2025
PikaPika999
Yesterday at 7:23 PM
Math Problem I cant figure out how to do without bashing
equalsmc2   3
N Yesterday at 3:55 PM by NovaFrost
Hi,
I cant figure out how to do these 2 problems without bashing. Do you guys have any ideas for an elegant solution? Thank you!
Prob 1.
An RSM sports field has a square shape. Poles with letters M, A, T, H are located at the corners of the square (see the diagram). During warm up, a student starts at any pole, runs to another pole along a side of the square or across the field along diagonal MT (only in the direction from M to T), then runs to another pole along a side of the square or along diagonal MT, and so on. The student cannot repeat a run along the same side/diagonal of the square in the same direction. For instance, she cannot run from M to A twice, but she can run from M to A and at some point from A to M. How many different ways are there to complete the warm up that includes all nine possible runs (see the diagram)? One possible way is M-A-T-H-M-H-T-A-M-T (picture attached)

Prob 2.
In the expression 5@5@5@5@5 you replace each of the four @ symbols with either +, or, or x, or . You can insert one or more pairs of parentheses to control the order of operations. Find the second least whole number that CANNOT be the value of the resulting expression. For example, each of the numbers 25=5+5+5+5+5 and 605+(5+5)×5+5 can be the value of the resulting expression.

Prob 3. (This isnt bashing I don't understand how to do it though)
Suppose BC = 3AB in rectangle ABCD. Points E and F are on side BC such that BE = EF = FC. Compute the sum of the degree measures of the four angles EAB, EAF, EAC, EAD.

P.S. These are from an RSM olympiad. The answers are
3 replies
equalsmc2
Apr 6, 2025
NovaFrost
Yesterday at 3:55 PM
Counting Problems
mithu542   1
N Yesterday at 3:30 PM by Bummer12345
Hello!

Here are some challenging practice counting problems. Enjoy! (You're allowed to use a calculator) hint


1.
Yan rolls 9 standard six-sided dice.
What is the probability that at least one pair of dice has a sum of 8?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

2.
Each face of a cube is painted one of 5 colors: red, blue, green, yellow, or white.
What is the probability that no two adjacent faces are painted the same color?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

3.
You roll 8 standard six-sided dice in a row.
What is the probability that at least one pair of adjacent dice differ by exactly 2?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

4.
A 4×4×4 cube (made of 64 mini-cubes) is randomly painted, each mini-cube colored independently either black or white.
What is the probability that at least one mini-cube adjacent to the center mini-cube is black?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

5.
Yan rolls 7 dice, each numbered 11 to 88.
What is the probability that at least two dice show the same number?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

6.
Each vertex of a cube is randomly colored either red, blue, or green.
What is the probability that there exists at least one face whose four vertices are all the same color?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

7.
You roll 6 standard six-sided dice.
What is the probability that the sum of all six dice is divisible by 4?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

8.
Each face of a cube is randomly colored red, blue, green, or yellow.
What is the probability that no two opposite faces are painted the same color?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

9.
Yan flips a fair coin 12 times.
What is the probability that there is at least one sequence of 4 consecutive heads?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.

10.
Each edge of a cube is randomly colored either red, blue, or green.
What is the probability that no face of the cube has all three edges the same color?
Round your answer to 3 decimal places.
1 reply
mithu542
Monday at 9:02 PM
Bummer12345
Yesterday at 3:30 PM
1234th Post!
PikaPika999   253
N Yesterday at 3:11 PM by ZMB038
I hit my 1234th post! (I think I missed it, I'm kinda late, :oops_sign:)

But here's a puzzle for you all! Try to create the numbers 1 through 25 using the numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4! You are only allowed to use addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and parenthesis. If you're post #1, try to make 1. If you're post #2, try to make 2. If you're post #3, try to make 3, and so on. If you're a post after 25, then I guess you can try to make numbers greater than 25 but you can use factorials, square roots, and that stuff. Have fun!

1: $(4-3)\cdot(2-1)$
253 replies
PikaPika999
Apr 21, 2025
ZMB038
Yesterday at 3:11 PM
random problem i just thought about one day
ceilingfan404   28
N Yesterday at 11:26 AM by PikaPika999
i don't even know if this is solvable
Prove that there are finite/infinite powers of 2 where all the digits are also powers of 2. (For example, $4$ and $128$ are numbers that work, but $64$ and $1024$ don't work.)
28 replies
ceilingfan404
Apr 20, 2025
PikaPika999
Yesterday at 11:26 AM
9 What is the most important topic in maths competition?
AVIKRIS   60
N Yesterday at 3:44 AM by valisaxieamc
I think arithmetic is the most the most important topic in math competitions.
60 replies
AVIKRIS
Apr 19, 2025
valisaxieamc
Yesterday at 3:44 AM
300 MAP Goal??
Antoinette14   76
N Yesterday at 3:42 AM by valisaxieamc
Hey, so as a 6th grader, my big goal for MAP this spring is to get a 300 (ambitious, i know). I'm currently at a 285 (288 last year though). I'm already taking a intro to counting and probability course (One of my weak points), but is there anything else you recommend I focus on to get a 300?
76 replies
Antoinette14
Jan 30, 2025
valisaxieamc
Yesterday at 3:42 AM
Purple Comet Math Meet Recources
RabtejKalra   6
N Monday at 8:59 PM by LXC007
I heard that you can take a packet of information to the Purple Comet examination with some formulas, etc. Does anybody have a copy of a guidebook with all the important formulas? I'm just too lazy to write one myself.......
6 replies
RabtejKalra
Apr 24, 2025
LXC007
Monday at 8:59 PM
Preparing for Higher AIME+
PhoenixMathClub   8
N Monday at 7:57 PM by BS2012
Hello, I am going to be a 7th grader next year and I really want to qualify for USAJMO in 8th grade, so far I have these goals reached

1. AMC 10 Honor Roll A and B 2025
2. AMC 8 DHR and HR
3. AIME 3 :(

This year on AIME something happened and I got a 3 :( on the AMC's I got a 105 on AMC 10 A and I got a 114 on AMC 10 B. I want to improve mostly on AIME but since the AMC 10 is coming up quicker what would you guys recommend for getting 110+ on both of the AMC 10's and getting a 6+ on AIME? So far I am only doing Alcumus and have no books so far.... Checking the table of contents on the books Alcumus provides the same topics. I was thinking to take WOOT 1 and AMC 10 Problem Series.
8 replies
PhoenixMathClub
Apr 19, 2025
BS2012
Monday at 7:57 PM
IMO Shortlist 2009 - Problem N5
April   36
N Jan 27, 2025 by Mathandski
Let $P(x)$ be a non-constant polynomial with integer coefficients. Prove that there is no function $T$ from the set of integers into the set of integers such that the number of integers $x$ with $T^n(x)=x$ is equal to $P(n)$ for every $n\geq 1$, where $T^n$ denotes the $n$-fold application of $T$.

Proposed by Jozsef Pelikan, Hungary
36 replies
April
Jul 5, 2010
Mathandski
Jan 27, 2025
IMO Shortlist 2009 - Problem N5
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April
1270 posts
#1 • 4 Y
Y by arandomperson123, Davi-8191, jhu08, Adventure10
Let $P(x)$ be a non-constant polynomial with integer coefficients. Prove that there is no function $T$ from the set of integers into the set of integers such that the number of integers $x$ with $T^n(x)=x$ is equal to $P(n)$ for every $n\geq 1$, where $T^n$ denotes the $n$-fold application of $T$.

Proposed by Jozsef Pelikan, Hungary
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Zhero
2043 posts
#2 • 9 Y
Y by StanleyST, arandomperson123, jhu08, Adventure10, Mango247, and 4 other users
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SCP
1502 posts
#3 • 2 Y
Y by jhu08, Adventure10
I didn't understand $ia_i$ is trivial, but that is cleared/ thanks.

But isn't it so there is a simpler solution with fact $T(T(x))=x$ has max. $gr(T)^2$ solutions, hence $T^n(x)=x$ has also a finite number of solutions...

edit: it works with polonomials, but not in other way and I saw.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by SCP, Jul 14, 2011, 11:45 AM
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RaleD
118 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by jhu08, Adventure10
$i|a_i$ because of cycles.
And your solution is nonsense because $T$ isn't polymomial.
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mavropnevma
15142 posts
#5 • 3 Y
Y by jhu08, Adventure10, Mango247
You mean you don't understand that $i \mid a_i$, i.e. $i$ divides $a_i$. This follows from the fact that if for some $a$ we have $T^i(a) = a$, but not $T^j(a) = a$ for any $0<j<i$, then the orbit of $a$ is given by $i$ distinct numbers $a,T(a),\ldots,T^{i-1}(a)$, and since orbits are clearly disjoint, it means $a_i$, which counts all elements of all such orbits, is divisible by $i$.

As for your second assertion, the concept $\deg T$ is ill-used, since $T$ is not specified to be a polynomial function.
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JuanOrtiz
366 posts
#6 • 3 Y
Y by jhu08, Adventure10, Mango247
Let $b_i$ be the number of primitive solutions to $T^i(x)=x$. Clearly $i | b_i$, since $b_i$ is the number of elements of $i$-cycles of $T$. And $P(n) = \sum_{d|n} b_d$. There are two ways to finish

(1) We see that if $q$ is prime, $P(nq) = \sum_{d|n} b_d + \sum_{e} b_e$, where the second sum runs over divisors of $nq$ with maximal $v_q$. Therefore $q | P(nq)-P(n)$, and from this, $q | P(n)-a_0$, where $a_0$ is the constant term of $P$. Then the polynomial $P-a_0$ is always divisible by all primes, contradiction since this implies $P$ is constant.

(2) Mobius Inversion. We get $n | b_n = \sum_{d|n} P(d)\mu(n/d)$ and we can finish easily.
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dibyo_99
487 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by jhu08, Adventure10
Suppose to the contrary. Define $\text{ord}(x)$ to be the smallest integer $d$ such that $T^d(x) = x$. Let $a_n$ denote the number of positive integers $x$ such that $\text{ord}(x) = n$.

Let $d = \text{ord}(x)$. Now, if $T^n(x) = x$ for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$, let $n = dq+r$, with $r \in [0,d)$. Then \[ x = T^n(x) = T^{dq+r}(x) = T^r(T^{dq}(x)) = T^r(x) \]. Since this is impossible for $r \in (0, d)$ (minimality of $d$), we must have $r = 0$, i.e. $d|n$. Note also that whenever $d|n$, $T^n(x) = x$.

Now, $P(n)$ counts the number of integers $x$ with $T^n(x) = x$. Since $d|n$, therefore $P(n)$ must be obtained by adding the number of integers $x$, for which $\text{ord}(x)$ is in the set of divisors of $n$. Therefore, $P(n) = \sum_{d|n}a_d$.

Observe that $d|a_d$. This is because whenever $\text{ord}(x) = d$, we also have $\text{ord}(T^i(x)) = d$ $\forall i \in [1, d)$. To see why, note that $T^{i+d}(x) = T^i(x)$. If there is a smaller integer $d'$ such that $T^{d'+i}(x) = T^i(x)$, we may apply $T$ iterated $d-i$ times on either side to obtain \[ T^{d+d'}(x) = T^d(x) \Longleftrightarrow T^{d'}(x) = x \], a contradiction. Furthermore, note that we can split these numbers into the aforementioned kind of cycles. To prove that these cycles are disjoint, suppose to the contrary. Then, for some $y$ not in the cycle corresponding to $x$, we must have $\text{ord}(x) = \text{ord}(y) = d$ and $T^i(x) = T^j(y)$ for some $i, j \in [0, d)$. Applying $T$ iterated $d-j$ times on either side, we have \[T^{d+i-j}(x) = T^d(y) \implies T^{d+i-j}(x) = y\], contradicting our assumption. Since $a_d$ counts the number of such integers and since these can be split into cycles of length $d$, we must have $d|a_d$.

Now, let $p, q$ be distinct primes $\in \mathbb{P}$. Then, \[P(pq) = a_1+a_p+a_q+a_{pq} \equiv a_1+a_q \equiv P(q) \pmod{p} \] But, $P(pq) \equiv P(0) \pmod{p}$. Therefore, \[ P(q) \equiv P(0) \pmod{p} \implies p|P(q)-P(0) \]Since $P$ is non-constant, there exists $q$ such that $P(q) \neq P(0)$ (otherwise, there would exist infinitely many roots to $P(x)-P(0)$). Now, choosing $p$ arbitrarily large, we have a contradiction, since $P(q)-P(0)$ cannot have arbitrarily large prime divisors.
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v_Enhance
6877 posts
#8 • 5 Y
Y by anantmudgal09, Aryan-23, v4913, jhu08, Adventure10
Write $T$ in cycle notation and let $c_n \ge 0$ denote the number of cycles of length $n$. Then the point is that \[ P(n) = \sum_{d \mid n} d c_d. \]By shifting $P$ by a constant we may assume $c_1 = 0$. Now we contend $c_q = 0$ for every prime $q$, which implies $P(q) = 0$ for all primes $q$, hence $P \equiv 0$.

First, note that by selecting $p$ prime we get \[ P(0) \equiv P(p) = c_1 + pc_p \equiv c_1 \equiv 0 \pmod p \]whence $P(0) = 0$, since $p$ was any prime.

Now observe \[ P(pq) = c_1 + p \cdot c_p + q \cdot c_q + pq \cdot c_{pq} \implies 0 \equiv P(0) \equiv P(pq) \equiv q c_q \pmod p \]whence $c_q \equiv 0 \pmod p$ for all $p \neq q$, hence $c_q = 0$.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by v_Enhance, Mar 30, 2017, 10:23 PM
Reason: q not k
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Aiscrim
409 posts
#9 • 2 Y
Y by jhu08, Adventure10
Take $p$ a prime and $x_0$ such that $T^p(x_0)=x_0$. We infer that either $x$ is a fixed point or the orbit of $x_0$ within $T$ is of length $p$. As a general observation that will be used later, if $T^n(x_0)=x_0$ then $T^n (T(x_0))=T(x_0)$, so all the values from the orbit of $x_0$ satisfy $T^n(x)=x$.

On a set $R$ whose elements all have finite orbits length we can define the relation $a \sim b\Leftrightarrow a=T^i (b)$ for some nonnegative integer $i$. It is easy to see that $\sim$ is an equivalence relation and that the class of an element $a$ is exactly the orbit of $a$. This in turn implies that if the length of the orbits of all the elements are divisible by a number $k$, then $k$ divides $|R|$ because each class has a multiple of $k$ elements and the classes partition $R$.

Take $p,q$ distinct primes and look at the set $M=\{x\in \mathbb{Z}| T^{pq}(x)=x\}$. The length of the orbit of an element in $M$ can only take values in the set $\{1,p,q,pq\}$. The set $N$ of elements from $M$ with orders $1$ and $q$ is actually the set of solutions to $T^q(x)=x$, hence its cardinality is $P(q)$. The set $M-N$ has only elements of orders $p$ and $pq$, so, by the previous paragraph, the total number of elements in $M-N$ is divisible by $p$.

We conclude that $P(pq)=|M|=|N|+|M-N|=P(q)+p\alpha$, so $p$ divides $P(pq)-P(q)$, or equivalently $P(0)-P(q)$. Taking $p$ very large we conclude that $P(0)=P(q)$. But this happens for an infinite number of primes $q$, hence $P$ is constant, contradiction.
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Kayak
1298 posts
#10 • 3 Y
Y by biomathematics, jhu08, Adventure10
Please check my solution :help:
Solution

Random Notes
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by Kayak, Sep 6, 2017, 7:43 AM
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khbghvb
33 posts
#11 • 3 Y
Y by jhu08, Adventure10, Mango247
It seems to be correct
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DrMath
2130 posts
#12 • 3 Y
Y by jhu08, Adventure10, Mango247
Note that $\sum_{d\mid n} P(d) \mu (n/d)$ gives the number of solutions $x$ such that $T^n(x)=x$ but $T^m(x)\neq x$ for $m<n$. Clearly, this number must be divisible by $n$, so we have $n\mid \sum_{d\mid n} P(d)\mu (n/d)$.

Let $p$ and $q$ be primes and $n>1$ an arbitrary integer. Then $q\mid p^nq\mid P(p^nq)-P(p^n)-P(p^{n-1}q)+P(p^{n-1})$. Since $q\mid P(p^nq)-P(p^{n-1}q)$, we get $q\mid P(p^n)-P(p^{n-1})$. Repeating this for all primes $q$, we get $P(p^n)=P(p^{n-1})$. Since this holds for all integers $n>1$, we get $P(x)$ attains the same value for infinitely integers $x$, and thus $P$ must be constant, contradiction.
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MathStudent2002
934 posts
#13 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Define the order of $x\in \mathbb Z$ to be the minimum $n > 0$ such that $T^n(x) = x$ and $0$ if $n$ does not exist. Note that $a_n \leq P(n)$ is finite. Now, if we draw the graph on $\mathbb Z$ where $x\to T(x)$, then $a_n = nb_n$ where $b_n$ is the number of cycles of length $n$; in particular $n\mid a_n$. Now, clearly \[
P(n) = \sum_{d\mid n} a_d,
\]so by Mobius Inversion we have \[
n\mid a_n = \sum_{d\mid n} \mu\left(\frac nd\right) P(d).
\]Let $p,q$ be distinct primes. Then, \[
p\mid a_{pq} = P(1)-P(p)-P(q)+P(pq),
\]i.e. $p\mid P(1)-P(q)$. Combining with $p\mid a_p = P(1)-P(p)$ we get that $p\mid P(1)-P(q)$ for all primes $q$. In particular, $q$ hits every residue mod $p$ by Dirichlet, so $P$ is constant mod $p$ for all $p$. This implies $P$ is constant on $\mathbb N$: indeed, if there existed $a,b > 0$ with $P(a)\neq P(b)$, then we could find some prime $Q$ such that $P(a)\not\equiv P(b)\pmod Q$ (take $Q > |P(a)-P(b)|$), contradiction. So, $P$ is constant on $\mathbb N$ and is a constant polynomial, contradiction. $\blacksquare$
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math_pi_rate
1218 posts
#14 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Nice problem. Here's my solution: FTSOC assume that such a function $T$ exists. Construct an infinite directed graph, and label the vertices $1,2,3, \dots,$ such that there is an edge from $i$ to $j$ if and only if $j=T(i)$ (The graph is not necessarily simple). Let $p$ be some prime, and $f(p)$ denote the number of directed cycles of length $p$. Also, let $f(1)$ be the number of integers $x$ satisfying $T(x)=x$ (i.e. the number of loops in our graph). Then, the given condition states that $P(p)=pf(p)+f(1)$ (since each element $x$ of a cycle of length $p$ satisfies $T^p(x)=x$). Now, $$p \mid P(p)-P(0) \Rightarrow P(0) \equiv pf(p)+f(1) \equiv f(1) \pmod{p}$$Thus, $p \mid P(0)-f(1)$ for all primes $p$, which is only possible if $P(0)=f(1)$. Let $p'$ be another prime ($p' \neq p$). Then, again from the given condition, we get that $$P(pp')=f(1)+pf(p)+p'f(p')+pp'f(pp') \Rightarrow P(pp') \equiv f(1)+pf(p) \equiv P(0)+pf(p) \pmod{p'}$$But, we know that $$pp' \mid P(pp')-P(0) \Rightarrow pf(p) \equiv P(pp')-P(0) \equiv 0 \pmod{p'}$$This means that $p' \mid f(p)$ for all primes $p' \neq p$, which is only possible if $f(p)=0$. Thus, $P(p)=f(1)$ for all primes $p$. But then the polynomial $P-f(1)$ has infinitely many roots, and so it must be an identity; which contradicts the fact that $P$ is non-constant. Hence, done. $\blacksquare$
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niyu
830 posts
#15 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Nothing different from the above solutions, but posting for storage.

Suppose for contradiction that such a function $T$ did exist.

We let the order of an integer $k$ be the minimal $\ell \geq 1$ such that $T^\ell(k) = k$. Let $f(n)$ be the number of integers $k$ that have order $n$ (where $n \geq 1$).

We claim that $n \mid f(n)$. Indeed, let $k$ be an integer with order $n$. Then, $k, T(k), T^2(k), \ldots, T^{n - 1}(k)$ all have order $n$ as well; hence, integers of order $n$ come in groups of $n$, proving the claim.

Now, suppose $k$ satisfies $T^n(k) = k$. Trivially, the order of $k$ must divide $n$. It follows that there are
\begin{align*}
		\sum_{d \mid n} f(d)
	\end{align*}integers $k$ that satisfy $T^n(k) = k$. Therefore,
\begin{align*}
		P(n) &= \sum_{d \mid n} f(d).
	\end{align*}
Now, fix a prime $q$, and let $p > q$ be a prime. We have
\begin{align*}
		P(1) &= f(1) \\
		P(p) &= f(1) + f(p) \\
		P(q) &= f(1) + f(q) \\
		P(pq) &= f(1) + f(p) + f(q) + f(pq).
	\end{align*}Hence,
\begin{align*}
		f(pq) &= P(pq) - P(p) - P(q) + P(1).
	\end{align*}Since $p \mid pq \mid f(pq)$, we have
\begin{align*}
		P(pq) - P(p) - P(q) + P(1) &\equiv 0 \pmod{p} \\
		P(1) - P(q) &\equiv 0 \pmod{p}.
	\end{align*}Hence, for all primes $p > q$, we have $p \mid P(1) - P(q)$, which is enough to imply that $P(q) = P(1)$. Hence, $P(q) = P(1)$ for all primes $q$, which is enough to imply that $P$ is a constant polynomial; contradiction. $\Box$
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by niyu, May 1, 2019, 11:32 PM
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yayups
1614 posts
#16 • 2 Y
Y by XbenX, Adventure10
Obviously, we'll assume that such a $(T,P)$ existed.

Let $c_n$ be the number of integers such that the smallest $m$ such that $T^m(x)=x$ is $n$. We see then that
\[P(n)=\sum_{d\mid n} c_d,\]so
\[c_n=\sum_{d\mid n}\mu(d)P(n/d)\]by Mobius inversion.

Motivational Remarks
For any two primes $p,q$, we see that
\[c_{pq^n}=P(pq^n)-P(q^n)-P(pq^{n-1})+P(q^{n-1}).\]This must be divisible by $p$, and we see that $p\mid P(pq^n)-P(pq^{n-1})$, so we have
\[P(q^n)\equiv P(q^{n-1})\pmod{p}\]for all primes $p$. This implies $P(q^n)=P(q^{n-1})$ for all $n$, which is clearly a contradiction, as desired. $\blacksquare$
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mathaddiction
308 posts
#17
Y by
Suppose on the contrary that such function exists, for each positive integer $n$, suppose that $T$ has $x_n$ $n-$cycles. Then the number of integer $x$ with $t^n(x)=x$ is equal to
$$\sum_{d|n}nx_n=P(n)$$Let $y_n=nx_n$, by Mobius inversion formula,
$$y_n=\sum_{d|n}\mu(d)P(\frac{n}{d})$$In particular for every prime $p$ and integer $\alpha$ we have
$$p^{\alpha}|y_{p^\alpha}=\sum_{d|p^{\alpha}}\mu(d)P(\frac{p^{\alpha}}{d})=P(p)-P(1)$$since $\mu(p^i)=0$ for all $i\geq 2$. This implies $P(p)-P(1)=0$. Since this holds for every prime $p$, $P$ must be a constant, contradiction.
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Mikeglicker
258 posts
#18
Y by
The number of solutions of T^q(X)=X is divisble by q for every prime q that's because we have a string a1,a2,..,a_q with T(a_i)=a_(i+1) and T(a_q)=a1 and we cant have a_i=a_j because then we get that something divides q (the reader should check why). Therefor the string has q different solutions to the equation which are a_i for all i multiplied by the number of such strings and therefore q divides P(q) for all q so q divides the free coeficent of P so q is infinitly big (impossible) or zero.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Mikeglicker, Aug 15, 2020, 7:36 PM
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amuthup
779 posts
#19
Y by
Suppose FTSOC that such a $T$ exists, and define the $\emph{order}$ of $x$ as the smallest $k$ such that $T^k(x)=x.$ It follows from cycle decomposition that the number of integers with order $k$ is divisible by $k$ for all $k.$

$\textbf{Claim: }$ $P(0)=P(x)$ for infinitely many primes $x.$

$\emph{Proof: }$ Divide the set of primes into two disjoint infinite sets $A$ and $B,$ and fix $p\in A,q\in B.$

Suppose $x$ is an integer satisfying $T^{pq}(x)=x.$ Then, the order of $x$ is $1,p,q,$ or $pq.$ Now observe the following.
  • The number of integers with order $p$ or $pq$ is divisible by $p.$
  • The number of integers with order $1$ or $q$ is equivalent to the number of solutions to $T^{q}(x)=x,$ which is $P(q).$
Therefore, $P(pq)\equiv P(q)\pmod{p}.$ But it is well-known that $P(pq)\equiv P(0)\pmod{p},$ so we have $p\mid P(q)-P(0).$

Since we can apply the same reasoning for all $p\in A,$ we have $P(0)=P(q)$ for all $q\in B.$ $\blacksquare$

Therefore, $P$ must be constant, contradiction.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by amuthup, Nov 27, 2020, 4:14 AM
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Eyed
1065 posts
#20 • 1 Y
Y by AwesomeYRY
Same as everyone else:

Put the function $T$ on a graph of integers, and draw an arrow between $x$ and $T(x)$. Let $f(n)$ be the number of cycles of length $n$. Clearly, the only time $T^{n}(x) = x$ is if $x$ is in a cycle of length $d$, where $d | n$. This implies
\[\sum_{d|n} df(d) = P(d)\]Consider some $n$ such that $v_{p}(n) = r$, and let $m = \frac{n}{p^{r}}$. Then, consider $P(n) - P(m)$; for any $d | n$ and $d\not | m$, we must have $p | d$. Thus, using the formula for $P(n)$, it implies
\[p | P(n) - P(m) \Rightarrow p | P(m) - P(0)\]However, observe that $m$ can take on any value, and $p$ can be any prime. Thus, for all $p$ and all $m$, this holds. However, for large enough $p$, we have $p > |P(m) - P(0)|$, which means $P(m) = P(0)$. This means $P$ is a constant polynomial, a contradiction.
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sriraamster
1492 posts
#21 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Does this work?????

View as a directed graph where we draw an arrow from $x \to T(x).$

Let $c_k$ denote the number of cycles of length $k.$ Assuming there existed a $T,$ \[ P(n) = \sum_{d \mid n} d c_d. \]Then, consider $P(pq) - P(q)$ for fixed primes $p$ and $q.$ We must have $P(pq) - P(q) = pq c_{pq}.$ Let $P(x) = a_k x^k + \cdots + a_0.$ Then, \[ pq \mid P(pq) - P(q) \iff p \mid q^k(p^k-1)a_k + q^{k-1} (p^{k-1}-1) + \cdots + q(p-1) \]which gives $p \mid P(q) - a_0.$ However, since we can now fix $q$ and take $p$ very large, this cannot be true for all $(p,q),$ so $P(q) - a_0 = 0 \implies P(q) = a_0$ for all $q,$ which in turn implies that $P$ is constant, contradiction. $\blacksquare$
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blackbluecar
302 posts
#22
Y by
Let $c_i$ denote the number of cycles of length $i$. We get the following identity. \[ P(n)=\sum_{d|n} nc_n \]. We claim this is impossible. Indeed, assume that such a polynomial exists. For any prime $p$ we have $P(p)=c_1+pc_p$. So, $P(p) \equiv c_1$ (mod $p$) for every prime $p$. Thus, $P(x)=x \cdot Q(x)+c_1$ for some integer polynomial $Q$. Now, we have \[ pq \cdot Q(pq)+c_1=P(pq)=c_1+pc_p+qc_q+pqc_{pq} \]for any primes $p$ and $q$. Thus, $pq$ divides $pc_p+qc_q$ but by making $p$ sufficiently large, this identity clearly breaks down. Contradiction.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by blackbluecar, Apr 11, 2022, 12:54 PM
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IAmTheHazard
5001 posts
#23 • 1 Y
Y by centslordm
View $T$ as a directed graph in the obvious way. We only care about directed cycles. Let $C(n)$ denote the number of cycles of length $n$, so we want to have
$$P(n)=\sum_{d \mid n} dC(d)$$for all $n$. In particular, $P(p)=C(1)+pC(p)$ for all primes $p$. Let $P(x)=xQ(x)+C$ for some constant $C$, so we can write
$$pQ(p)-pC(p)=C(1)-C$$for all $p$, hence $C(1)-C$ has infinitely many prime divisors so it equals zero, i.e. $P(x)=xQ(x)+C(1)$. Let $p$ be an arbitrary prime. Then for all $q$, we have
$$pqQ(pq)+C(1)=P(pq)=C(1)+pC(p)+qC(q)+pqC(pq),$$so $q \mid pC(p) \implies q \mid C(p)$. Thus $C(p)=0$, as $C(p)$ has infinitely many prime divisors. As such,
$$P(p)=C(1)+pC(p)=0$$for all primes $p$, hence $P$ must be the zero polynomial, which is forbidden. $\blacksquare$
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AwesomeYRY
579 posts
#24 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Consider $T$ as an arrows graph: a collection of chains and cycles. Let $a_i$ denote the number of cycles of length $i$. Assume that $P(n)$ is the number of fixed points of $T^n(x)$, then $P(n)$ can be fully characterized as
\[P(n) = \sum_{d\mid n} d a_d \]where $\{a_i\}_i$ is an infinite sequence of nonnegative integers. Let $P(x) = b_n x^n + b_{n-1} x^{n-1} + \cdots b_0$. Then, note that $P(q^{k+1}) \equiv P(q^k) \pmod{q^{k+1}}$. But, $q^{k+1} \mid P(q^{k+1}) - P(0)$. Thus, $P(q^k)\equiv P(0) \pmod{q^{k+1}}$. Thus, $b_1 q^k \equiv 0 \pmod{q^{k+1}}$. By selecting $p>b$, we win. $\blacksquare$

poggers
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megarnie
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#25 • 1 Y
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Solved with CT17.

We show that if there exists a function $T$ satisfying the problem conditions, then $P$ is constant.

Notice that any $x$ satisfying $T^n(x) = x$ for some $n\ge 1$ must be in a cycle of $T$. For each positive integer $n$, let $a_n$ denote the number of cycles length $n$ of $T$. Define the order of $x$ to denote the smallest $m\ge 1$ such that $T^m(x) = x$.

There are in total $n\cdot a_n$ elements of order $n$ for all positive integers $n$, and $P(n)$ consists of all the elements with order dividing $n$.
Hence \[P(n) = \sum d a_d,\]where the sum is over all divisors of $n$.

For any prime $p$, $P(p) = p a_p + a_1$. This implies that $P(p) \equiv P(0)\equiv a_1 \pmod p$, for all primes $p$, hence $P(0) = a_1$. This implies that $a_p = \frac{P(p) - P(0)}{p}$.

For any primes $p,q$, we have $P(pq) = pq a_{pq} + p a_p + qa_q + a_1$. Take the equation mod $p$. The LHS is $P(pq) \equiv P(0) = a_1 \pmod p$, and the RHS is $qa_q + a_1 \pmod p$. Therefore, $qa_q\equiv 0\pmod p$, so $p \mid a_q \mid P(q)- P(0)$. Varying $p$, we find $P(q) - P(0)$ has infinitely many divisors, so $P(q) = P(0)$.

Since this is true for all primes $q$, the polynomial $P(x) -P(0)$ has infinitely many roots, so it must be the zero polynomial, which implies $P$ is constant, as desired.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by megarnie, Mar 20, 2023, 1:16 PM
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HamstPan38825
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#26
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Funny problem.

Suppose that such a function $P$ exists. Let $a_k$ be the number of cycles of length $k$, so $$P(n) = \sum_{d \mid n} da_d.$$Then by Mobius inversion, $$na_n = \sum_{d \mid n} \mu(d) P\left(\frac nd\right).$$For $n = p^r$ prime, this implies $p^r \mid P(p) - P(1)$ for all $r$, thus $P(p) = P(1)$ and $P$ must be constant.
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john0512
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#27
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Note that a fixed point of $T^n$ is precisely the numbers in cycles of length $d\mid n$. Let $c(d)$ denote the number of cycles of length $d$. Thus, we have $$\sum_{d\mid n}dc(d)=P(n).$$
We claim that this implies that $P$ is constant, which would solve the problem.

\begin{claim}
For any prime $p$, we have $$c(p)=\frac{P(p)-P(1)}{p}.$$\end{claim}

This follows by $$c(1)+pc(p)=P(p).$$
Of course, the next thing to try is $P(pq)$.

\begin{claim}
For distinct primes $p$ and $q$, we have $$c(pq)=\frac{P(pq)-P(p)-P(q)+P(1)}{pq}.$$\end{claim}

To prove this, use the the fact that $$c(1)+pc(p)+qc(q)+pqc(pq)=P(pq)$$combined with the previous claim. In particular, we have $$pq\mid P(pq)-P(p)-P(q)+P(1),$$which implies that $$p\mid P(pq)-P(p)-P(q)+P(1).$$Since $p\mid P(pq)-P(p)$, we have $$p\mid P(1)-P(q).$$Thus, $$P(1)\equiv P(q)\pmod{p}$$for all primes $p$ and $q$. Note that since $P(1)$ and $P(q)$ are finite, this holding for all primes $p\neq q$ implies that $P(1)=P(q)$. Thus, the polynomial reaches the same value of $P(1)$ infinitely often. By polynomial identity theorem, $P$ is constant, and we are done.
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thdnder
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#28
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Let $a_n$ be the number of cycles in the graph of $G$. Then it's clear that $\sum_{d \mid n} d \cdot a_d = P(n)$ for all positive integer $n$. Then mobius inversion formula yields $a_n \cdot n = \sum_{d \mid n} P(d) \mu(\frac{n}{d})$. Therefore $P(pq^a) - P(q^a) - P(pq^{a-1}) + P(q^{a-1}) \equiv 0 (pq^a)$, so $p \mid P(q^a) - P(q^{a-1})$ for all primes $p, q$. But this is an evident contradiction. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by thdnder, Jan 30, 2024, 1:08 PM
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Pyramix
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#29
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Let $n$ be a positive integer and $p$ be a prime. Let $f(x)$ denote the number of numbers $z$ such that $T^x(z)=z$ holds for $f(x)$ values of $z$. Note, we have
\[P(n)=\sum_{d\mid n}df(d)\]It follows that $p\mid P(np)-P(n)$ and since $p\mid P(np)-P(0)$, we have that $p\mid P(n)-P(0)$. Taking $p>|P(n)-P(0)|$ forces $P(n)=P(0)$ which is the constant polynomial, a contradiction.
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awesomeming327.
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#30
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Represent $T$ as a directed graph where each edge $x\to T(x)$ is drawn. Then, $T^n(x)=x$ if and only if $x$ is in a cycle of size $d$ where $d\mid n$. Let $k$ be the number of loops. Then, for all primes $p$, $P(p)$ is the number of vertices in cycles of size $p$, plus $k$. Therefore, $P(p)\equiv k\pmod p$ for infinitely many $p$, which means that we can write $P(x)=xQ(x)+k$ for some integer polynomial $Q$.

Now, fix some prime $p$ and vary $q$, then we have $P(pq)=pqa+pb+qc+k$, where $a$ is the number of cycles of size $pq$, $b$ is the number of cycles of size $p$, and $c$ is the number of cycles of size $q$. Then, $pq\mid pqa+pb+qc$ so $pq\mid pb+qc$ which implies $q\mid b$ for all $q$, which means $b=0$. This means that $P(x)=k$ for all primes which is a contradiction.
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MathLuis
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#31
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Let $c_i$ the number of integers satisfying that $T^i(x)=x$ and $T^j(x) \ne x$ for all $1 \le j <i$, then note that if $x$ works so do $T(x), T^2(x), \cdots, T^{i-1}(x)$ and since we said that they are all different we must in fact have $i \mid c_i$, now the problem condition is that $P(n)=\sum_{d \mid n} c_d$, now for some $n$ consider primes $p>n$, then:
$$P(pn)=\sum_{d \mid pn} c_d=\sum_{d \mid n} c_d+\sum_{d \mid n} c_{pd}=P(n)+\sum_{d \mid n} c_{pd}$$Now each $c_{pd}$ is divisible by $p$ so we in fact have $p \mid P(pn)-P(n)$ for all $p>n$ primes, but this means $p \mid P(n)-P(0)$ ans by setting a huge prime we get $P(n)=P(0)$ for all positive integers $n$, thus $P$ is constant, contradiction!.
Therefore no such function $T$ should exist thus we are done :cool:.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by MathLuis, Jun 29, 2024, 5:21 PM
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ihategeo_1969
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#32
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Assume the contrary and let the \emph{order} of $n$ be defined as the amount of numbers $x$ such that $n$ is the smallest natural number such that $T^n(x)=x$, and let it be denoted by $\text{ord}(n)$. One can easily see that \[n \mid \text{ord}(n) \text{ and } P= \text{ord} \ast 1\]And hence let $q$ be any prime and we get
$\bullet$ $P(1)=\text{ord}(1)$.
$\bullet$ $P(q)=\text{ord}(1)+\text{ord}(q) \implies q \mid P(0)-P(1) \iff P(0)=P(1)$.
And so
\begin{align*}
\implies & P(qr)=\text{ord}(1)+\text{ord}(q)+\text{ord}(r)+\text{ord}(qr)\\
\implies & qr \mid P(qr)+P(1)-P(q)-P(r)\\
\implies & q \mid P(r)-P(0) 
\end{align*}for any two distinct primes $q$, $r$; and we easily get that $P(X) \equiv P(0)$, which is a contradiction.
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Mathandski
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#33
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You can actually prove it's zero not just for the primes.
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N3bula
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#34
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Let, $g_T(i)$ be the number of values $x$ such that $T^i(x)=x$ and $i$ is the minimal value for which that occurs, clearly we have that $n\mid g_T(n)$,
thus let $g_T(1)=k$, now let $f_T(i)$ denote the number of values such that $T^i(x)=x$, thus we get that $f_T(p^2)\equiv k\pmod p^2$ for some $g_T(p)\neq 0$,
as we can't have infinetly many values where $g_T(p)=0$. Thus we get that $p^2\mid g_T(p)$, which because of infintely many primes having that property
means the minimal power term that isnt the constant term must be at least $2$, and by repeating this argument we get that the minimal power term that
isnt the constant term is abitrarily large which is a contradicition.
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cj13609517288
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#35
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This problem is quite contrived, since we really only need to consider the cycles of $T$. Say there are $a_n$ cycles of length $n$, then we get
\[\sum_{d\mid n}da_d=P(n).\]Consider this for $n$ a prime. Then $a_1+pa_p=P(p)$, so $P(0)\equiv a_1\pmod p$. This is true for all $p$, so $P(0)=a_1$. Thus we may set $a_1=0$ and $P(0)=0$ (since $a_1$ and $P(0)$ always appear in the equation).

Now we will prove that for every number $n$, $a_n=0$. We will do this by strong inducting on $\Omega(n)$. So say we proved it for when $\Omega(n)=m$, now consider $\Omega(n)=m+1$. Consider a prime $p\nmid n$, using $pn$ in the big equation has the RHS divisible by $p$ and the LHS is just $na_n$ mod $p$. So $p\mid na_n$ for all $p\nmid n$, so $a_n=0$.

Thus $P$ is constant, contradiction.
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lelouchvigeo
181 posts
#36 • 1 Y
Y by L13832
Why was this so easy
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by lelouchvigeo, Jan 16, 2025, 12:47 PM
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Mathandski
752 posts
#37
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Subjective Rating (MOHs)
Please contact westskigamer@gmail.com if there is an error with any of my solution for cash bounties by 3/18/2025.

Reminds me of 2D Prefix Sums
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