Difference between revisions of "2023 AMC 12A Problems/Problem 22"
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<math>\textbf{(A)}~-1536\qquad\textbf{(B)}~96\qquad\textbf{(C)}~108\qquad\textbf{(D)}~116\qquad\textbf{(E)}~144</math> | <math>\textbf{(A)}~-1536\qquad\textbf{(B)}~96\qquad\textbf{(C)}~108\qquad\textbf{(D)}~116\qquad\textbf{(E)}~144</math> | ||
+ | == Solution 1 (Very Thorough) == | ||
+ | First, we note that <math>f(1) = 1</math>, since the only divisor of <math>1</math> is itself. | ||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | Then, let's look at <math>f(p)</math> for <math>p</math> a prime. We see that | ||
+ | <cmath>\sum_{d \mid p} d \cdot f\left(\frac{p}{d}\right) = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>1 \cdot f(p) + p \cdot f(1) = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>f(p) = 1 - p \cdot f(1)</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>f(p) = 1-p</cmath> | ||
+ | Nice. | ||
+ | |||
+ | Now consider <math>f(p^k)</math>, for <math>k \in \mathbb{N}</math>. | ||
+ | <cmath>\sum_{d \mid p^k} d \cdot f\left(\frac{p^k}{d}\right) = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>1 \cdot f(p^k) + p \cdot f(p^{k-1}) + p^2 \cdot f(p^{k-2}) + \dotsc + p^k f(1) = 1</cmath>. | ||
+ | |||
+ | |||
+ | It can be (strongly) inductively shown that <math>f(p^k) = f(p) = 1-p</math>. Here's how. | ||
+ | |||
+ | We already showed <math>k=1</math> works. Suppose it holds for <math>k = n</math>, then | ||
+ | |||
+ | <cmath>1 \cdot f(p^n) + p \cdot f(p^{n-1}) + p^2 \cdot f(p^{n-2}) + \dotsc + p^n f(1) = 1 \implies f(p^m) = 1-p \; \forall \; m \leqslant n</cmath> | ||
+ | |||
+ | For <math>k = n+1</math>, we have | ||
+ | |||
+ | <cmath>1 \cdot f(p^{n+1}) + p \cdot f(p^{n}) + p^2 \cdot f(p^{n-1}) + \dotsc + p^{n+1} f(1) = 1</cmath>, then using <math>f(p^m) = 1-p \; \forall \; m \leqslant n</math>, we simplify to | ||
+ | |||
+ | <cmath>1 \cdot f(p^{n+1}) + p \cdot (1-p) + p^2 \cdot (1-p) + \dotsc + p^n \cdot (1-p) + p^{n+1} f(1) = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>f(p^{n+1}) + \sum_{i=1}^n p^i (1-p) + p^{n+1} = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>f(p^{n+1}) + p(1 - p^n) + p^{n+1} = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>f(p^{n+1}) + p = 1 \implies f(p^{n+1}) = 1-p</cmath>. | ||
+ | |||
+ | Very nice! Now, we need to show that this function is multiplicative, i.e. <math>f(pq) = f(p) \cdot f(q)</math> for <math>p,q</math> prime. | ||
+ | It's pretty standard, let's go through it quickly. | ||
+ | <cmath>\sum_{d \mid pq} d \cdot f\left(\frac{pq}{d}\right) = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>1 \cdot f(pq) + p \cdot f(q) + q \cdot f(p) + pq \cdot f(1) = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | Using our formulas from earlier, we have | ||
+ | <cmath>f(pq) + p(1-q) + q(1-p) + pq = 1 \implies f(pq) = 1 - p(1-q) - q(1-p) - pq = (1-p)(1-q) = f(p) \cdot f(q)</cmath> | ||
+ | |||
+ | Great! We're almost done now. | ||
+ | Let's actually plug in <math>2023 = 7 \cdot 17^2</math> into the original formula. | ||
+ | <cmath>\sum_{d \mid 2023} d \cdot f\left(\frac{2023}{d}\right) = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>1 \cdot f(2023) + 7 \cdot f(17^2) + 17 \cdot f(7 \cdot 17) + 7 \cdot 17 \cdot f(17) + 17^2 \cdot f(7) + 7 \cdot 17^2 \cdot f(1) = 1</cmath> | ||
+ | Let's use our formulas! We know | ||
+ | <cmath>f(7) = 1-7 = -6</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>f(17) = 1-17 = -16</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>f(7 \cdot 17) = f(7) \cdot f(17) = (-6) \cdot (-16) = 96</cmath> | ||
+ | <cmath>f(17^2) = f(17) = -16</cmath> | ||
+ | |||
+ | So plugging ALL that in, we have | ||
+ | <cmath>f(2023) = 1 - \left(7 \cdot (-16) + 17 \cdot (-6) \cdot (-16) + 7 \cdot 17 \cdot (-16) + 17^2 \cdot (-6) + 7 \cdot 17^2\right)</cmath> | ||
+ | which, be my guest simplifying, is <math>\boxed{\textbf{(B)} \ 96}</math> | ||
+ | |||
+ | ~ <math>\color{magenta} zoomanTV</math> | ||
==Video Solution by MOP 2024== | ==Video Solution by MOP 2024== |
Revision as of 16:02, 9 November 2023
Problem
Let be the unique function defined on the positive integers such that for all positive integers . What is ?
Solution 1 (Very Thorough)
First, we note that , since the only divisor of is itself.
Then, let's look at for a prime. We see that
Nice.
Now consider , for . .
It can be (strongly) inductively shown that . Here's how.
We already showed works. Suppose it holds for , then
For , we have
, then using , we simplify to
.
Very nice! Now, we need to show that this function is multiplicative, i.e. for prime. It's pretty standard, let's go through it quickly. Using our formulas from earlier, we have
Great! We're almost done now. Let's actually plug in into the original formula. Let's use our formulas! We know
So plugging ALL that in, we have which, be my guest simplifying, is
~
Video Solution by MOP 2024
https://YouTube.com/watch?v=gdhVqdRhMsQ
~r00tsOfUnity
See also
2023 AMC 12A (Problems • Answer Key • Resources) | |
Preceded by Problem 21 |
Followed by Problem 23 |
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 • 7 • 8 • 9 • 10 • 11 • 12 • 13 • 14 • 15 • 16 • 17 • 18 • 19 • 20 • 21 • 22 • 23 • 24 • 25 | |
All AMC 12 Problems and Solutions |
The problems on this page are copyrighted by the Mathematical Association of America's American Mathematics Competitions.