Difference between revisions of "1993 AHSME Problems/Problem 24"

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(Solution: There is some flaw in my solution that causes the answer to be 68 instead of 66. I am trying to figure it out.)
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== Solution ==
 
== Solution ==
<math>\fbox{E}</math>
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Let's look at the problem and its numbers. We want to find the probability that it takes strictly more than 4 tries to get all 3 shiny pennies without replacement. Should we calculate the probably or 1 minus it? Of course the latter, because either we get all 3 shiny pennies in 3 draws (easy to calculate) or 4 (just one case). The probability and its not happening are mutually exclusive, so we can use the 1-P and P approach.
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We know that if we draw in 3, the denominator is <math>7*6*5 = 210*. If 4, then </math>210 * 4 = 840<math>.
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Let's start with drawing all 3. We only have </math>3*2*1<math>, drawing one shiny penny each time, and the probability is </math>\frac{1/35}<math>.
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Now, on to four pennies. We know that no matter what, we will still incorporate the </math>3*2*1<math>, but this time, we multiply by a 4 because we can afford to take one of the
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4/whatever denominator
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pennies that are dull.
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Since this probability is also 1/35, we have our probability that it takes 4 or less: 2/35. One minus this result is 33/35, or answer choice </math>\fbox{E}$.
  
 
== See also ==
 
== See also ==

Revision as of 20:50, 26 June 2017

Problem

A box contains $3$ shiny pennies and $4$ dull pennies. One by one, pennies are drawn at random from the box and not replaced. If the probability is $a/b$ that it will take more than four draws until the third shiny penny appears and $a/b$ is in lowest terms, then $a+b=$

$\text{(A) } 11\quad \text{(B) } 20\quad \text{(C) } 35\quad \text{(D) } 58\quad \text{(E) } 66$

Solution

Let's look at the problem and its numbers. We want to find the probability that it takes strictly more than 4 tries to get all 3 shiny pennies without replacement. Should we calculate the probably or 1 minus it? Of course the latter, because either we get all 3 shiny pennies in 3 draws (easy to calculate) or 4 (just one case). The probability and its not happening are mutually exclusive, so we can use the 1-P and P approach.

We know that if we draw in 3, the denominator is $7*6*5 = 210*. If 4, then$210 * 4 = 840$.

Let's start with drawing all 3. We only have$ (Error compiling LaTeX. Unknown error_msg)3*2*1$, drawing one shiny penny each time, and the probability is$\frac{1/35}$.

Now, on to four pennies. We know that no matter what, we will still incorporate the$ (Error compiling LaTeX. Unknown error_msg)3*2*1$, but this time, we multiply by a 4 because we can afford to take one of the

4/whatever denominator

pennies that are dull.

Since this probability is also 1/35, we have our probability that it takes 4 or less: 2/35. One minus this result is 33/35, or answer choice$ (Error compiling LaTeX. Unknown error_msg)\fbox{E}$.

See also

1993 AHSME (ProblemsAnswer KeyResources)
Preceded by
Problem 23
Followed by
Problem 25
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
All AHSME Problems and Solutions

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