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Difference between revisions of "2017 AMC 10A Problems/Problem 18"

(Problem Type)
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<math>\textbf{(A)}\ 1\qquad\textbf{(B)}\ 2\qquad\textbf{(C)}\ 3\qquad\textbf{(D)}\ 4\qquad\textbf{(E)}\ 5</math>
 
<math>\textbf{(A)}\ 1\qquad\textbf{(B)}\ 2\qquad\textbf{(C)}\ 3\qquad\textbf{(D)}\ 4\qquad\textbf{(E)}\ 5</math>
  
−
==Solution==
+
==Solution 1==
 
Let <math>P</math> be the probability Amelia wins. Note that <math>P = \text{chance she wins on her first turn} + \text{chance she gets to her turn again}\cdot P</math>, as if she gets to her turn again, she is back where she started with probability of winning <math>P</math>. The chance she wins on her first turn is <math>\frac{1}{3}</math>. The chance she makes it to her turn again is a combination of her failing to win the first turn - <math>\frac{2}{3}</math> and Blaine failing to win - <math>\frac{3}{5}</math>. Multiplying gives us <math>\frac{2}{5}</math>. Thus,
 
Let <math>P</math> be the probability Amelia wins. Note that <math>P = \text{chance she wins on her first turn} + \text{chance she gets to her turn again}\cdot P</math>, as if she gets to her turn again, she is back where she started with probability of winning <math>P</math>. The chance she wins on her first turn is <math>\frac{1}{3}</math>. The chance she makes it to her turn again is a combination of her failing to win the first turn - <math>\frac{2}{3}</math> and Blaine failing to win - <math>\frac{3}{5}</math>. Multiplying gives us <math>\frac{2}{5}</math>. Thus,
 
<cmath>P = \frac{1}{3} + \frac{2}{5}P</cmath>
 
<cmath>P = \frac{1}{3} + \frac{2}{5}P</cmath>
 
Therefore, <math>P = \frac{5}{9}</math>, so the answer is <math>9-5=\boxed{\textbf{(D)}\ 4}</math>.
 
Therefore, <math>P = \frac{5}{9}</math>, so the answer is <math>9-5=\boxed{\textbf{(D)}\ 4}</math>.
 +
 
==Solution 2==
 
==Solution 2==
 
Let <math>P</math> be the probability Amelia wins. Note that <math>P = \text{chance she wins on her first turn} + \text{chance she gets to her second turn}\cdot \frac{1}{3} + \text{chance she gets to her third turn}\cdot \frac{1}{3} ...</math>This can be represented by an infinite geometric series, <cmath>P=\frac{\frac{1}{3}}{1-\frac{2}{3}\cdot \frac{3}{5}} = \frac{\frac{1}{3}}{1-\frac{2}{5}} = \frac{\frac{1}{3}}{\frac{3}{5}} = \frac{1}{3}\cdot \frac{5}{3} = \frac{5}{9}</cmath>.  
 
Let <math>P</math> be the probability Amelia wins. Note that <math>P = \text{chance she wins on her first turn} + \text{chance she gets to her second turn}\cdot \frac{1}{3} + \text{chance she gets to her third turn}\cdot \frac{1}{3} ...</math>This can be represented by an infinite geometric series, <cmath>P=\frac{\frac{1}{3}}{1-\frac{2}{3}\cdot \frac{3}{5}} = \frac{\frac{1}{3}}{1-\frac{2}{5}} = \frac{\frac{1}{3}}{\frac{3}{5}} = \frac{1}{3}\cdot \frac{5}{3} = \frac{5}{9}</cmath>.  

Revision as of 13:02, 9 September 2018

Problem

Amelia has a coin that lands heads with probability $\frac{1}{3}$, and Blaine has a coin that lands on heads with probability $\frac{2}{5}$. Amelia and Blaine alternately toss their coins until someone gets a head; the first one to get a head wins. All coin tosses are independent. Amelia goes first. The probability that Amelia wins is $\frac{p}{q}$, where $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime positive integers. What is $q-p$?

$\textbf{(A)}\ 1\qquad\textbf{(B)}\ 2\qquad\textbf{(C)}\ 3\qquad\textbf{(D)}\ 4\qquad\textbf{(E)}\ 5$

Solution 1

Let $P$ be the probability Amelia wins. Note that $P = \text{chance she wins on her first turn} + \text{chance she gets to her turn again}\cdot P$, as if she gets to her turn again, she is back where she started with probability of winning $P$. The chance she wins on her first turn is $\frac{1}{3}$. The chance she makes it to her turn again is a combination of her failing to win the first turn - $\frac{2}{3}$ and Blaine failing to win - $\frac{3}{5}$. Multiplying gives us $\frac{2}{5}$. Thus, \[P = \frac{1}{3} + \frac{2}{5}P\] Therefore, $P = \frac{5}{9}$, so the answer is $9-5=\boxed{\textbf{(D)}\ 4}$.

Solution 2

Let $P$ be the probability Amelia wins. Note that $P = \text{chance she wins on her first turn} + \text{chance she gets to her second turn}\cdot \frac{1}{3} + \text{chance she gets to her third turn}\cdot \frac{1}{3} ...$This can be represented by an infinite geometric series, \[P=\frac{\frac{1}{3}}{1-\frac{2}{3}\cdot \frac{3}{5}} = \frac{\frac{1}{3}}{1-\frac{2}{5}} = \frac{\frac{1}{3}}{\frac{3}{5}} = \frac{1}{3}\cdot \frac{5}{3} = \frac{5}{9}\]. Therefore, $P = \frac{5}{9}$, so the answer is $9-5 = \boxed{\textbf{(D)}\ 4}$

Solution by ktong

See Also

2017 AMC 10A (Problems • Answer Key • Resources)
Preceded by
Problem 17 		Followed by
Problem 19
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 • 7 • 8 • 9 • 10 • 11 • 12 • 13 • 14 • 15 • 16 • 17 • 18 • 19 • 20 • 21 • 22 • 23 • 24 • 25
All AMC 10 Problems and Solutions

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