For invertible matrix A if B is (A^2)^-1 then AB=BA
by adityaguharoy, Nov 24, 2017, 5:10 AM
How I came across this problem
Let
be an invertible (non singular) matrix. Then we know that
is invertible (non singular since,
[since
for all square matrices
] ).
Let
.
Prove that
.
Proof
I strongly believe that this result is known or can be easily proved even in more easier manner than the one I present here.
Anyways, it happened that the night before my Linear algebra exam at college I was trying to conclude that
is non singular means
is non singular without using the result on determinants. Then, taking left inverse and right inverse I could prove it.
But, better thing as that : I witnessed this result which would otherwise not seen very evidently by me.
But of course, the more easy proof is : Find out
in terms of
. More direct ! .
But, I am also fond of this technique.
Okay, let us move on to discussing the problem.
Anyways, it happened that the night before my Linear algebra exam at college I was trying to conclude that


But, better thing as that : I witnessed this result which would otherwise not seen very evidently by me.
But of course, the more easy proof is : Find out


But, I am also fond of this technique.
Okay, let us move on to discussing the problem.
Let





Let

Prove that

Proof
Since, given that
so,

But, for any invertible matrix the Left inverse must be equal to the Right inverse.
[since,
]
So,
.



[since,

So,
