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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Yesterday at 3:18 PM
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0 replies
jlacosta
Yesterday at 3:18 PM
0 replies
Sum of floors with primes p,q
WakeUp   6
N 6 minutes ago by L13832
Source: Baltic Way 2001
Let $p$ and $q$ be two different primes. Prove that
\[\left\lfloor\frac{p}{q}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{2p}{q}\right\rfloor+\left\lfloor\frac{3p}{q}\right\rfloor+\ldots +\left\lfloor\frac{(q-1)p}{q}\right\rfloor=\frac{1}{2}(p-1)(q-1) \]
6 replies
WakeUp
Nov 17, 2010
L13832
6 minutes ago
Floor double summation
CyclicISLscelesTrapezoid   51
N 7 minutes ago by cubres
Source: ISL 2021 A2
Which positive integers $n$ make the equation \[\sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{j=1}^n \left\lfloor \frac{ij}{n+1} \right\rfloor=\frac{n^2(n-1)}{4}\]true?
51 replies
CyclicISLscelesTrapezoid
Jul 12, 2022
cubres
7 minutes ago
nice problem
hanzo.ei   3
N 7 minutes ago by X.Luser
Source: I forgot
Let triangle $ABC$ be inscribed in the circumcircle $(O)$ and circumscribed about the incircle $(I)$, with $AB < AC$. The incircle $(I)$ touches the sides $BC$, $CA$, and $AB$ at $D$, $E$, and $F$, respectively. A line through $I$, perpendicular to $AI$, intersects $BC$, $CA$, and $AB$ at $X$, $Y$, and $Z$, respectively. The line $AI$ meets $(O)$ at $M$ (distinct from $A$). The circumcircle of triangle $AYZ$ intersects $(O)$ at $N$ (distinct from $A$). Let $P$ be the midpoint of the arc $BAC$ of $(O)$. The line $AI$ cuts segments $DF$ and $DE$ at $K$ and $L$, respectively, and the tangents to the circle $(DKL)$ at $K$ and $L$ intersect at $T$. Prove that $AT \perp BC$.
3 replies
hanzo.ei
Mar 29, 2025
X.Luser
7 minutes ago
Old problem :(
Drakkur   2
N 11 minutes ago by Drakkur
Let a, b, c be positive real numbers. Prove that
$$\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{a^2+bc}}+\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{b^2+ca}}+\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{c^2+ab}}\le \sqrt{2}\left(\dfrac{1}{a+b}+\dfrac{1}{b+c}+\dfrac{1}{c+a}\right)$$
2 replies
Drakkur
Yesterday at 3:38 PM
Drakkur
11 minutes ago
Geometry problem
Raul_S_Baz   1
N 4 hours ago by sunken rock
IMAGE
1 reply
Raul_S_Baz
Yesterday at 8:49 PM
sunken rock
4 hours ago
Prove that
abduqahhor_math   5
N 5 hours ago by krancky22
n^2+3n+5 is not divided to 121
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abduqahhor_math
Mar 31, 2025
krancky22
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ez problem
Noname23   3
N 5 hours ago by KevinKV01
Find $x$
$7 + \sqrt7 + 2\sqrt{x + 4} + \sqrt{7x + 28} + \sqrt{14x + 7} + \sqrt{2x^2 + 9x + 4} - \sqrt{2x + 1} = 0$
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Noname23
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KevinKV01
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Solve the equetion
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N 5 hours ago by KevinKV01
Solve the equetion:$\sin 2x+\tan x=2$
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Inequalities
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Let $ a,b> 0 $ and $ a^2+ b^2+a+b= 2 . $ Prove that
$$ \frac{a^5}{a^5+ b^3}+ \frac{b^5}{b^5+ a^3}\leq 1$$
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sqing
5 hours ago
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Real variables inequality
JK1603JK   1
N 6 hours ago by lbh_qys
Let a,b,c\in R then prove that \frac{15}{2}\cdot\frac{a^2+b^2+c^2}{(a+b+c)^2}+\frac{ab}{a^2+b^2}+\frac{bc}{b^2+c^2}+\frac{ca}{c^2+a^2}\ge 4
1 reply
JK1603JK
Today at 12:31 AM
lbh_qys
6 hours ago
Inequalities
sqing   14
N 6 hours ago by sqing
Let $ a,b,c\geq 0 $ and $a+b+c=1$. Prove that$$a^3b+b^3c+c^3a+\frac{473}{256}abc\le\frac{27}{256}$$Equality holds when $ a=b=c=\frac{1}{3} $ or $ a=0,b=\frac{3}{4},c=\frac{1}{4} $ or $ a=\frac{1}{4} ,b=0,c=\frac{3}{4} $
or $ a=\frac{3}{4} ,b=\frac{1}{4},c=0. $
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sqing
Mar 22, 2025
sqing
6 hours ago
Geo Mock #1
Bluesoul   2
N Today at 4:13 AM by jb2015007
Consider the rectangle $ABCD$ with $AB=4$. Point $E$ lies inside the rectangle such that $\triangle{ABE}$ is equilateral. Given that $C,E$ and the midpoint of $AD$ are on the same line, compute the length of $BC$.
2 replies
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Apr 1, 2025
jb2015007
Today at 4:13 AM
pinkpig's Problem Collection - Signup
pinkpig   257
N Today at 4:13 AM by Yiyj1
Hello, all AoPS users!

I am very happy to release my Problem Collection. Here is the direct link to the forum for users interested in solving problems.

This problem collection will consist of various competition problems that I find very fun to solve. Some questions will be made by me, while others will be from competitions. There are Geometry, Intermediate Algebra, Precalculus, Number Theory, and Combinatorics questions. You may compete with other users in this forum. So, be competitive and active if you join!
Reviews
Sample Problems

Post \signup to join the fun!

Hope you enjoy the problems! :D
257 replies
pinkpig
Aug 16, 2021
Yiyj1
Today at 4:13 AM
Easiest functional equation?
ZETA_in_olympiad   28
N Today at 4:07 AM by jkim0656
Here I want the users to post the functional equations that they think are the easiest. Everyone (including the one who posted the problem) are able to post solutions.
28 replies
ZETA_in_olympiad
Mar 19, 2022
jkim0656
Today at 4:07 AM
f(x*f(y)) = f(x)/y
orl   23
N Mar 30, 2025 by Maximilian113
Source: IMO 1990, Day 2, Problem 4, IMO ShortList 1990, Problem 25 (TUR 4)
Let $ {\mathbb Q}^ +$ be the set of positive rational numbers. Construct a function $ f : {\mathbb Q}^ + \rightarrow {\mathbb Q}^ +$ such that
\[ f(xf(y)) = \frac {f(x)}{y}
\]
for all $ x$, $ y$ in $ {\mathbb Q}^ +$.
23 replies
orl
Nov 11, 2005
Maximilian113
Mar 30, 2025
f(x*f(y)) = f(x)/y
G H J
Source: IMO 1990, Day 2, Problem 4, IMO ShortList 1990, Problem 25 (TUR 4)
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orl
3647 posts
#1 • 6 Y
Y by Amir Hossein, Adventure10, megarnie, son7, Mango247, and 1 other user
Let $ {\mathbb Q}^ +$ be the set of positive rational numbers. Construct a function $ f : {\mathbb Q}^ + \rightarrow {\mathbb Q}^ +$ such that
\[ f(xf(y)) = \frac {f(x)}{y}
\]
for all $ x$, $ y$ in $ {\mathbb Q}^ +$.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by orl, Aug 15, 2008, 4:20 PM
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grobber
7849 posts
#2 • 5 Y
Y by Adventure10, son7, Mango247, and 2 other users
It suffices to construct such a function satisfying $f(ab)=f(a)f(b),\ \forall a,b\in\mathbb Q^+\ (*)$ (this implies $f(1)=1$) and $f(f(x))=\frac 1x,\ \forall x\in\mathbb Q^+\ (**)$.

All we need to do is define $f(p_i)$ s.t. $(*)$ whenever $x=p_i$ for some $i\ge 1$, where $(p_n)_{n\ge 1}$ is the sequence of primes, and then extend it to the rest of $\mathbb Q^+$ so that $(**)$ holds. Then it's clear that $(*)$ will automatically hold.
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Amir.S
786 posts
#3 • 4 Y
Y by vsathiam, son7, Adventure10, Mango247
as Grobber said(he didn't prove it) we have $ f(ab) = f(a)f(b)$ , this implies $ f(\prod_{i = 1}^np_i^{\alpha_i}) = \prod_{i = 1}^nf(p_i)^{\alpha_i}$ , hence we must deifne the function on all primes, let $ p_i$ denote the $ i - th$ prime number we define $ f$ as:
$ f(p_{2k - 1}) = p_{2k}\ ,\ f(p_{2k}) = \frac {1}{p_{2k - 1}}$
this function satisfies the problem , clearly.
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Rofler
802 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
So how do you extend to Q?
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aznlord1337
130 posts
#5 • 3 Y
Y by Jasurbek, Adventure10, Mango247
$ f(f(y)) = f(1)/y$. This implies that $ f$ is injective. $ f(f(1)) = f(1) \longrightarrow f(1) = 1$

Therefore $ f(f(y)) = 1/y$. Let $ y=f(y)$, so $ f(x/y) = f(x)/f(y)$. Then $ f(1/f(y)) = f(1)/f(f(y)) = y$

From the original equation, letting $ y=1/f(y)$ implies $ f(xy) = f(x)f(y)$. A function on primes like Amir's works.
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triplebig
278 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I don't understand how you can conclude that $ f$ is injective, can anyone please share some light?
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pco
23497 posts
#7 • 3 Y
Y by Amir Hossein, Adventure10, Mango247
triplebig wrote:
I don't understand how you can conclude that $ f$ is injective, can anyone please share some light?
$ f(y_1) = f(y_2)$ $ \implies$ $ f(xf(y_1)) = f(xf(y_2))$ $ \implies$ $ \frac {f(x)}{y_1} = \frac {f(x)}{y_2}$ $ \implies$ $ y_1 = y_2$ (since $ f(x)\neq 0$)
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triplebig
278 posts
#8 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Got it, thank you for the help
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Dijkschneier
131 posts
#9 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Rofler wrote:
So how do you extend to Q?
Can sameone answer to this, please ?
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pco
23497 posts
#10 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, panche, and 1 other user
Dijkschneier wrote:
Rofler wrote:
So how do you extend to Q?
Can sameone answer to this, please ?

There is no need for extension : the problem is just for Q+ and we know that any positive rational may be written in a unique manner as the product of prime numbers raised to integer powers.

What do you want more ?
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Dijkschneier
131 posts
#11 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Thank you.
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CPT_J_H_Miller
47 posts
#12 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Sorry to revive this topic, but can someone please explain why this doesn't work? :

Note that from the above we've already established that $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$ and $f$ is injective.
Also, from $ f(f(y)) = \frac{1}{y} $, we know that $ f $ is surjective, therefore $ f^{-1}(x) $ exists for all positive rationals $ x $.

So set $ f^{-1}(y)$ as $ y $ in $ f(f(y)) = \frac{1}{y} \Rightarrow f(y)f^{-1}(y) = 1 $

Thus set $ f^{-1}(x) $ as $ x $ and $ y $ as $ y $ into the original equation and we obtain:
$ f(f^{-1}(x)f(y)) = \frac{x}{y} $
$ \Rightarrow f^{-1}(x)f(y) = \frac{x}{y} $
$ \Rightarrow \frac{f(y)}{f(x)} = \frac{x}{y} $
$ \Rightarrow f(x) = \frac{1}{x} $ $\forall$ $ x \in \mathbb{Q}^{+} $
which is obviously not a solution to the equation.

Can someone please explain what went wrong? Thanks.
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mavropnevma
15142 posts
#13 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
CPT_J_H_Miller wrote:
Thus set $ f^{-1}(x) $ as $ x $ and $ y $ as $ y $ into the original equation and we obtain:
$ f(f^{-1}(x)f(y)) = \frac{x}{y} $
$ \Rightarrow f^{-1}(x)f(y) = \frac{x}{y} $.
The implication is abusive; from $f(A) = B$ you infer $A=B$.
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CPT_J_H_Miller
47 posts
#14 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Argh... silly mistake... yes it should be $ f(f^{-1}(x)f(y)) = xf(f(y)) = \frac{x}{y} $.
Thanks!
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flare
202 posts
#15 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I was able to determine the conditions for the function, but not able to construct it.
Out of curiosity, how many points would I get for this (on the actual thing I would probably spend time finding it since the conditions take a very small time to find, but...)?
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subham1729
1479 posts
#16 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
:mad: Plugging in x = 1 we get f(f(y)) = f(1)/y and hence f(y1) = f(y2)
implies y1 = y2 i.e. that the function is bijective. Plugging in y = 1 gives
us f(xf(1)) = f(x) ⇒ xf(1) = x ⇒ f(1) = 1. Hence f(f(y)) = 1/y.
Plugging in y = f(z) implies 1/f(z) = f(1/z). Finally setting y = f(1/t)
into the original equation gives us f(xt) = f(x)/f(1/t) = f(x)f(t).
Conversely, any functional equation on Q+ satisfying (i) f(xt) = f(x)f(t)
and (ii) f(f(x)) = 1
x for all x, t ∈ Q+ also satisfies the original functional
equation: f(xf(y)) = f(x)f(f(y)) = f(x)
y . Hence it suffices to find
a function satisfying (i) and (ii).
We note that all elements q ∈ Q+ are of the form q = $n i=1 pai i where pi are prime and ai ∈ Z. The criterion (a) implies f(q) = f($n
i=1 pai
i ) = $n
i=1 f(pi)ai . Thus it is sufficient to define the function on all primes. For
the function to satisfy (b) it is necessary and sufficient for it to satisfy
f(f(p)) = 1
p for all primes p. Let qi denote the i-th smallest prime. We
define our function f as follows:
f(q2k−1) = q2k, f(q2k) =
1
q2k−1
, k ∈ N .
Such a function clearly satisfies (b) and along with the additional condition
f(xt) = f(x)f(t) it is well defined for all elements of Q+ and it satisfies
the original functional equation. :P :mad: :mad:
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MathPanda1
1135 posts
#17 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Amir.S wrote:
as Grobber said(he didn't prove it) we have $ f(ab) = f(a)f(b)$ , this implies $ f(\prod_{i = 1}^np_i^{\alpha_i}) = \prod_{i = 1}^nf(p_i)^{\alpha_i}$ , hence we must deifne the function on all primes, let $ p_i$ denote the $ i - th$ prime number we define $ f$ as:
$ f(p_{2k - 1}) = p_{2k}\ ,\ f(p_{2k}) = \frac {1}{p_{2k - 1}}$
this function satisfies the problem , clearly.

What is the motivation for constructing such a function? Thank you very much!
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vsathiam
201 posts
#19 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, fearsum_fyz
MathPanda1 wrote:
Amir.S wrote:
as Grobber said(he didn't prove it) we have $ f(ab) = f(a)f(b)$ , this implies $ f(\prod_{i = 1}^np_i^{\alpha_i}) = \prod_{i = 1}^nf(p_i)^{\alpha_i}$ , hence we must deifne the function on all primes, let $ p_i$ denote the $ i - th$ prime number we define $ f$ as:
$ f(p_{2k - 1}) = p_{2k}\ ,\ f(p_{2k}) = \frac {1}{p_{2k - 1}}$
this function satisfies the problem , clearly.

What is the motivation for constructing such a function? Thank you very much!

First you try out some algebraic methods: none of them are fruitful. Then you note that the problem said construction, which implies a numbertheoretic approach. This immediately applies looking for multiplicity and a way to define f(1), which just happen to be related to each other. (Shows that you are on the right track). Then you obtain the relation:

$f(f(p)) = \frac{1}{p}$ for all primes.

So it is clear that you cannot manipulate the power of prime p to get from an exponent of 1 to -1 in two steps over $\mathbb{Q^{+}}$. So you have to manipulate the primes in some other method, with a group of elements acting as a medium. (In other words, f(f(p)) maps A $\rightarrow$ B $\rightarrow$ C, where you know that {p} = A, B is unknown, and {$\frac{1}{p}$} = C.

This suggests bipartitioning the set of primes, which suggests considering the sets {$p_{2k}$}, {$p_{2k-1}$}, {$\frac{1}{p_{2k}}$} and {$\frac{1}{p_{2k-1}}$}. Playing around with directed arrows that map elements between the sets gives you the function.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by vsathiam, Jul 6, 2017, 3:33 AM
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ubermensch
820 posts
#20 • 4 Y
Y by son7, Adventure10, Mango247, panche
Cute problem, nice fit for a $P1$ :)

First we get the obvious substitutions over with- $P(1,x): f(f(x))=\frac{f(1)}{x}$. It's pretty trivial to see that this function is necessarily bijective, as $f(y)=f(t)=> f(xf(y))=f(xf(t))=>y=t$ and surjectivity is direct from $f(f(x))=\frac{f(1)}{x}$. Again, $P(1,x): f(xf(1))=f(x)=>f(1)=1=>f(f(x))=\frac{1}x$ by injectivity.

Here you could already try to hunt for a solution, but unless your intuition is really strong, it'd be quite hard to already hit upon a direct solution- also do try and remember it's an IMO problem, you can't expect to be already done with it in 2 minutes (let's just ignore this year's $P1$ Note).

Playing around with the problem, let's put an extra $f$ around the problem to get $f(f(xf(y)))=f(\frac{f(x)}{y}) =>\frac{1}{xf(y)}=f(\frac{f(x)}{y})$. Replace $x$ with $f(x)$ to get $\frac{1}{f(x)f(y)}=f(\frac{f(f(x))}{y})=f(\frac{1}{xy})$.

Naturally, we'd now want to put in $y$ as $\frac{1}{x}$ to get $\frac{1}{f(x) f(\frac{1}x)}=1=> f(\frac{1}{x})=\frac{1}{f(x)}$.
Re-substitute to get $f(\frac{1}{x})f(\frac{1}{y})=f(\frac{1}{xy}) =>f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$.

Ok this seems like a pretty concrete result- perhaps now we'll be equipped enough to start our construction. Straight off the bat, we see that this must have something to so with the prime factorizations- firstly the function is multiplicative, secondly there doesn't seem to be any purely algebraic
solution, and, perhaps most importantly, $Q^+$ is our domain aka integer prime factorizations- this problem is calling for a number-theoretic way to attack the problem.

Hmm... so let's just put in $x=p_1^{\alpha_1}p_2^{\alpha_2}...p_l^{\alpha_l}, y=q_1^{\beta_1}q_2^{\beta_2}...q_k^{\beta_k}$ in our original problem- simplifying a little and spamming the multiplicative property, we get $f(f(q_1)^{\beta_1} \cdot f(q_2)^{\beta_2} \cdot ... \cdot f(q_k)^{\beta_k})=\frac{1}{q_1^{\beta_1}q_2^{\beta_2}...q_k^{\beta_k}}$. Hmm... so how do we get the primes to randomly appear in the denominator- oh wait this is trivial, just make a$\pmod{2}$ cycle of sorts- let the $j_{th}$ prime, $p_j$, map to $p_{j+1}$ if, say, the index is odd, and let it map to $\frac{1}{p_{j-1}}$ if even. Now all we have to do is put it back into the equation and check, and this construction indeed seems to work.

Hence we're done.

Note
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megarnie
5551 posts
#21
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Our function will satisfy $f(f(x))=\frac{1}{x}$ and $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)\forall a,b\in \mathbb{Q^{+}}$.

Consider the function that satisfies $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ and $f(p_{2k-1})=p_{2k}$, $f(p_{2k})=\frac{1}{p_{2k-1}}$, and $f\left(\frac{1}{p_{2k-1}}\right)=\frac{1}{p_{2k}}$, where $p_n$ is the $n$th prime for all positive integers $k$. It's easy to see we can extend this to all positive rationals.

Now we will show that this satisfies $f(f(x))=\frac{1}{x}$. Call a number 1-over-prime if it can be written as $\frac{1}{p}$ for some prime $p$. Clearly $f(f(m))=\frac{1}{m}$ for all primes and 1-over-primes $m$. Now we have $f(f(x))$ can be written as $f(f(m_1))\cdot f(f(m_2))\cdots f(f(m_n))=\frac{1}{x}$ where the $m_i$ are some primes or 1-over-primes which multiply up to $x$. $\blacksquare$

Now we have $f(xf(y))=f(x)f(f(y))=\frac{f(x)}{y}$, as desired.
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ZETA_in_olympiad
2211 posts
#22
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orl wrote:
Let $ {\mathbb Q}^ +$ be the set of positive rational numbers. Construct a function $ f : {\mathbb Q}^ + \rightarrow {\mathbb Q}^ +$ such that
\[ f(xf(y)) = \frac {f(x)}{y}
\]for all $ x$, $ y$ in $ {\mathbb Q}^ +$.

Let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion.
If $f(y_1)=f(y_2) \implies y_1=y_2$.
$P(x,1) \implies f(1)=1$.
$P(1,y) \implies f(f(y))= \frac{1}{y}.$ Inputting this to get,
$f(\frac{1}{y}=\frac{1}{f(y)}$.
$P(x,f(\frac{1}{t})) \implies f(xt)=f(x)f(t) \forall t \in \mathbb{Q^+}.$
Now the functions:
(a) $f(xt)=f(x)f(t)$; (b) $f(f(x))=\frac{1}{x}$ solve the equation.
A function $f$ mapping through primes, satisfying (a) as,
$f(p^{n_1}_1p^{n_2}_1 \dots p^{n_k}_k) = [f(p_1)]^{n_1} [f(p_2]^{n_2} \dots [f(p_k)]^{n_k},$ where $p_j$ is the jth prime and $n_j \in \mathbb{Z}$. Such a function wil satisfy (b) for each prime. A possible solution is: $$\begin{cases} P_{j+1} & \text{ if j is odd, } \\ \frac{1}{P_{j-1}}  & \text{ if j is even.} \end{cases}$$Clearly, $f(f(p))=\frac{1}{p}$. Thus $f$ satisfies.
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john0512
4176 posts
#23
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wow quite hard for an imo/1 especially one that was 33 years ago

Note that any muliplicative function that satisfies $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$ and $f(f(y))=1/y$ works, as $$f(xf(y))=f(x)f(f(y))=f(x)/y.$$
Let $p_i$ be the $i$th prime.

We claim that the following function works:

(i) If $i$ is odd, $f(p_i)=p_{i+1}.$

(ii) If $i$ is even, $f(p_i)=\frac{1}{p_{i-1}}.$

(iii) Otherwise, if $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime positive integers, $$f(m/n)=\frac{\prod_{p}f(p)^{v_p(m)}}{\prod_{p}f(p)^{v_p(n)}}$$
Clearly, this is multiplicative from (iii). Additionally, $$f(f(m/n))=f(\frac{\prod_{p}f(p)^{v_p(m)}}{\prod_{p}f(p)^{v_p(n)}})$$$$=\frac{f(\prod_{p}f(p)^{v_p(m)})}{f(\prod_{p}f(p)^{v_p(n)})}=\frac{\prod_p f(f(p))^{v_p(m)}}{\prod_p f(f(p))^{v_p(n)}}=\frac{1/m}{1/n}=n/m.$$
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AshAuktober
958 posts
#24
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Very classical, reminded me of 2004 IMOSL A3.
Consider the unique function $f$ defined such that $f(xy) = f(x)f(y)$ for all $x, y$, where we define

$$f(p_{2i-1}) = p_{2i},$$$$ f(p_{2i}) = \frac 1{p_{2i-1}}, $$and$$ f\left(\frac 1{p_{2i-1}}\right) = \frac 1{p_{2i}},$$$$ f\left(\frac 1{p_{2i}}\right) = p_{2i-1},$$where $2 = p_1 < p_2 < \dots$ are the primes. Note that $f$ is uniquely determined due to prime factorisation, and $f$ is multiplicative and $f(f(x)) = \frac 1x$, therefore we're done. $\square$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by AshAuktober, Jan 13, 2025, 3:53 AM
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Maximilian113
522 posts
#26
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Note that $y=f(x)/x \implies f(x)$ is surjective. Let $y$ be such that $f(y)=1,$ then $f(x)=f(x)/y \implies y=1.$ Thus $x=1 \implies f(f(x))=\frac{1}{x}.$ Then $y=f(r), x=kr \implies f(k)f(r)=f(kr),$ so $f(x)$ is completely multiplicative.

Now, this motivates us to create cycles of length $4.$ One such solution is pairing primes arbitrarily, say you pair $p, q,$ and then $f(x)$ maps $$p^k \rightarrow q^k \rightarrow \frac{1}{p^k} \rightarrow \frac{1}{q^k} \rightarrow p^k$$for fixed $k.$ We can then construct $f(x)$ for other numbers that are not prime powers. This clearly works as $f(x)$ is multiplicative and indeed $f(f(x))=\frac{1}{x}.$
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