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An easy FE
oVlad   2
N 22 minutes ago by BR1F1SZ
Source: Romania EGMO TST 2017 Day 1 P3
Determine all functions $f:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ such that \[f(xy-1)+f(x)f(y)=2xy-1,\]for any real numbers $x{}$ and $y{}.$
2 replies
oVlad
5 hours ago
BR1F1SZ
22 minutes ago
Nationalist Combo
blacksheep2003   15
N an hour ago by cj13609517288
Source: USEMO 2019 Problem 5
Let $\mathcal{P}$ be a regular polygon, and let $\mathcal{V}$ be its set of vertices. Each point in $\mathcal{V}$ is colored red, white, or blue. A subset of $\mathcal{V}$ is patriotic if it contains an equal number of points of each color, and a side of $\mathcal{P}$ is dazzling if its endpoints are of different colors.

Suppose that $\mathcal{V}$ is patriotic and the number of dazzling edges of $\mathcal{P}$ is even. Prove that there exists a line, not passing through any point in $\mathcal{V}$, dividing $\mathcal{V}$ into two nonempty patriotic subsets.

Ankan Bhattacharya
15 replies
1 viewing
blacksheep2003
May 24, 2020
cj13609517288
an hour ago
UIL Number Sense problem
Potato512   2
N an hour ago by buddy2007
I keep seeing a certain type of problem in UIL Number Sense, though I can't figure out how to do it (I aim to do it in my head in about 7-8 seconds).

The problem is x^((p+1)/2) mod p, where p is prime.
For example 11^15 mod 29
I know it technically doesn't work this way, but using fermats little theorem (on √x^(p+1)) always gives either the number itself, x, or the modular inverse, p-x.
By using the theorem i mean √x^28 mod 29 = 1, and then youre left with √x^2 mod 29 or x, but then its + or -.
I was wondering if there is a way to figure out whether its + or -, a slow or fast way if its slow maybe its possible to speed it up.
2 replies
Potato512
Today at 12:17 AM
buddy2007
an hour ago
Concurrency with 10 lines
oVlad   1
N 2 hours ago by kokcio
Source: Romania EGMO TST 2017 Day 1 P1
Consider five points on a circle. For every three of them, we draw the perpendicular from the centroid of the triangle they determine to the line through the remaining two points. Prove that the ten lines thus formed are concurrent.
1 reply
oVlad
5 hours ago
kokcio
2 hours ago
Advanced topics in Inequalities
va2010   21
N 2 hours ago by Novmath
So a while ago, I compiled some tricks on inequalities. You are welcome to post solutions below!
21 replies
va2010
Mar 7, 2015
Novmath
2 hours ago
Test from Côte d'Ivoire Diophantine equation
MENELAUSS   4
N 2 hours ago by Pal702004
determine all triplets $(x;y;z)$ of natural numbers such that
$$y  \quad  \text{is prime }$$
$$y \quad \text{and} \quad 3  \quad \text{does not divide} \quad z$$
$$x^3-y^3=z^2$$
4 replies
MENELAUSS
Apr 19, 2025
Pal702004
2 hours ago
Concurrence, Isogonality
Wictro   40
N 2 hours ago by CatinoBarbaraCombinatoric
Source: BMO 2019, Problem 3
Let $ABC$ be an acute scalene triangle. Let $X$ and $Y$ be two distinct interior points of the segment $BC$ such that $\angle{CAX} = \angle{YAB}$. Suppose that:
$1)$ $K$ and $S$ are the feet of the perpendiculars from from $B$ to the lines $AX$ and $AY$ respectively.
$2)$ $T$ and $L$ are the feet of the perpendiculars from $C$ to the lines $AX$ and $AY$ respectively.
Prove that $KL$ and $ST$ intersect on the line $BC$.
40 replies
Wictro
May 2, 2019
CatinoBarbaraCombinatoric
2 hours ago
Tango course
oVlad   1
N 2 hours ago by kokcio
Source: Romania EGMO TST 2019 Day 1 P4
Six boys and six girls are participating at a tango course. They meet every evening for three weeks (a total of 21 times). Each evening, at least one boy-girl pair is selected to dance in front of the others. At the end of the three weeks, every boy-girl pair has been selected at least once. Prove that there exists a person who has been selected on at least 5 distinct evenings.

Note: a person can be selected twice on the same evening.
1 reply
oVlad
5 hours ago
kokcio
2 hours ago
Easy Number Theory
math_comb01   36
N 2 hours ago by anudeep
Source: INMO 2024/3
Let $p$ be an odd prime and $a,b,c$ be integers so that the integers $$a^{2023}+b^{2023},\quad b^{2024}+c^{2024},\quad a^{2025}+c^{2025}$$are divisible by $p$.
Prove that $p$ divides each of $a,b,c$.
$\quad$
Proposed by Navilarekallu Tejaswi
36 replies
math_comb01
Jan 21, 2024
anudeep
2 hours ago
A cyclic inequality
KhuongTrang   0
2 hours ago
Source: own-CRUX
IMAGE
https://cms.math.ca/.../uploads/2025/04/Wholeissue_51_4.pdf
0 replies
KhuongTrang
2 hours ago
0 replies
Find all real functions withf(x^2 + yf(z)) = xf(x) + zf(y)
Rushil   32
N Apr 15, 2025 by InterLoop
Source: INMO 2005 Problem 6
Find all functions $f : \mathbb{R} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$ such that \[ f(x^2 + yf(z)) = xf(x) + zf(y) , \] for all $x, y, z \in \mathbb{R}$.
32 replies
Rushil
Aug 23, 2005
InterLoop
Apr 15, 2025
Find all real functions withf(x^2 + yf(z)) = xf(x) + zf(y)
G H J
Source: INMO 2005 Problem 6
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Rushil
1592 posts
#1 • 3 Y
Y by mathematicsy, Adventure10, cubres
Find all functions $f : \mathbb{R} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$ such that \[ f(x^2 + yf(z)) = xf(x) + zf(y) , \] for all $x, y, z \in \mathbb{R}$.
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Diarmuid
176 posts
#2 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
It is easy(ish) to see that $f$ is either identically zero or bijective. In either case we must have $f(0)=0$.

In the latter case, suppose $f(z)=1$, $x=0$ and we get $f(y)=zf(y)$ for all $y$, so $f(1)=1$.

Letting $x=0,y=1$, we get $f(f(z))=z$ for all $z$.

Letting $x=0,z=f(w)$, we get $f(yf(f(w)))=f(yw)=f(y)f(w)$ for all $y,w$, so $f$ is multiplicative.

Now for $x\ne0$, $y=z=0$, we get $f(x^2)=\left(f(x)\right)^2=xf(x)$. Now since $f$ is bijective and $f(0)=0$, $f(x)\ne0$, and we get $f(x)=x$.
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Rushil
1592 posts
#3 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I believe my solution is similar(probably there's only one) . Only a few different steps(effectively the same!!!
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Diarmuid
176 posts
#4 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
The INMO problems you've posted are quite nice.
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Saul
99 posts
#5 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I have a different solution:

As Diarmuid said, it can easily be seen that if $f$ is not identically zero, it is surjective (by varying $z$). Bijectivity is non-essential, except at $x=0$, which we will now prove. Suppose $f(z)=0$ for some $z \neq 0$. Then we have $f(x^2)=xf(x)+zf(y)$, a contradiction since $f(y)$ takes every real value.

Substituting $-x$ for $x$ gives that $xf(x)=-xf(-x)$, and therefore that $f(x) = -f(-x)$.

Now fix $x=y \neq 0$ and put $z = -x$. We get that $f(x^2+xf(-x))=0$ and therefore $x^2=xf(x)$ (by bijectivity at 0) and $x=f(x)$.
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Loser
70 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Can you explain how do you get that $f$ is surjective, because I couldn't get it.
Also I didn't understand why $f$ is bijective.
Thanks in advance.
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Loser
70 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Anyway, I understood the solution :blush:
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Rijul saini
904 posts
#8 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
I have another (but strange :rotfl: ) solution to this problem...
Given is that \[ f(x^2 +yf(z)) = xf(x) +zf(y) \ \ \ \cdots (*)\]
Taking $ x=y=z=0$,
$ f(0) = 0$
Now taking $ y=z=0$
$ f(x^2) = xf(x)  \ \ \ \ \cdots \boxed{1}$

Putting $ -x$ instead of $ x$ in $ \boxed{1}$, we have
$ f(x^2) = -xf(-x)$

Therefore, $ xf(x) = -xf(-x) \iff f(-x) = -f(x)  \ iff \ x \not = 0 \ \ \ \cdots \boxed{2}$
For the case $ 0$, $ \boxed{2}$ is also true, so it is true for all real $ x$

Taking $ y=z=k$ in $ (*)$, we have,
$ f(x^2 +kf(k)) = xf(x) + kf(k)$
$ \Rightarrow f(x^2 + f(k^2)) = f(x^2) + f(k^2) \ (From \ \boxed{2})$
Let $ x^2 = a, k^2 = b$ with $ a,b \ge 0$
$ f(a+f(b)) = f(a) + f(b) \ \ \ \cdots \boxed{3}$

Now, taking $ y=1, z \ge 0$ in $ (*)$
$ f(x^2 + f(z)) = xf(x) +zf(1)$
Therefore, by $ \boxed{3}$, we have
$ f(x^2) + f(z) = xf(x) + zf(1)$
$ \Rightarrow xf(x) +f(z) = xf(x) + zf(1)$ By $ \boxed{1}$

Let $ f(1) = c$ for some constant $ c$
$ \Rightarrow f(z) = cz \ \forall z \ge 0$
From $ \boxed{2}$,
$ f(-z) = -f(z) = c \cdot (-z)$ so $ f(z) = cz$ is true for all real $ z$.

Substituting this information in $ (*)$, we get
$ cx^2 + c^2yz = cx^2 +cyz$
$ \Rightarrow c^2 = c$
$ \Rightarrow c = 0,1$

$ \boxed{f(x) =0\ or\  x  \forall  \ x \in \mathbb{R}}$
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sayantanchakraborty
505 posts
#9 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
\[f(x^2+yf(z))=xf(x)+zf(y)                       (1)\]

Taking y=z=0 in (1) we get
\[f(x^2)=xf(x)                 (2)\]
Taking x=0 in (2) we get f(0)=0
Taking x=0 and y=z=x in (1) we get
\[f(xf(x))=xf(x)                 (3)\]
Taking y=z=x in (1) we get,
\[f(x^2+xf(x))=2xf(x)       (4)\]
Now using the fact that \[f(x^2)=xf(x)\] we get
\[f(x^2+xf(x))=f(x^2+f(x^2))=xf(x)+x^2f(1)     (5)\]
Comparing (4) and (5) we get,
\[2xf(x)=xf(x)+cx^2\] where $c=f(1)$
or,\[f(x)=cx\] considering x not equal to 0.
Substituting this back in (3) we get
\[c^2x^2=cx^2\]
or,\[c^2=c\]
From this we get that c=0 or 1 and consequently
\[f(x)=0\]or
\[f(x)=x\] for all real x
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Ashutoshmaths
976 posts
#10 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Somebody, please check my solution:
$f(x^2+yf(z))=xf(x)+zf(y)$
Let $P(x,y,z)$ be the assertion for the functional equation.
$P(0,0,0)\implies f(0)=0$
$P(x,0,0)\implies f(x^2)=xf(x)$
$\implies f(x^2+yf(z))=x^2+zf(y) \cdots \star$
$P(0,y,z)\implies f(yf(z))=zf(y)$
$\implies f(x^2+yf(z))=f(x^2)+f(yf(z))$
Which is the Cauchy's functional equation and has solutions $f(x)=cx,f(x)=0$
from here we can prove $c=1$ as Sayantan(previous poster) did and this gives us solutions $f(x)=x \text{ or }f(x)=0\forall x\in \mathbb{R}$
$%Error. "blackbox" is a bad command.
$
From the equation marked with a star we may also proceed as follows:
We can prove $f(x)$ is injective except the solution $f(x)=0\forall x\in \mathbb{R}$
Now $P(x,y,-\frac{x^2}{f(y)})\implies f(x^2+yf(-\frac{x^2}{f(y)}))=0$
As the function is injective for the non-zero solutions, also $f(0)=0$,
We have,
$x^2+yf(-\frac{x^2}{f(y)})=0\implies f(-\frac{x^2}{f(y)})=-\frac{x^2}{y}$
Hence the solution $f(x)=x\forall x\in \mathbb{R} \text{ or } f(x)=0\forall x\in \mathbb{R}$
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borntobeweild
331 posts
#11 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Yet another solution:

Let $P$ be the given assertion. Then we get:
$P(0, 0, 0)\implies f(0)=0$
$P(x, 0, 0)\implies f(x^2)=xf(x)$
$P(0, x, x)\implies f(xf(x))=xf(x)$
$P(0, 1, x)\implies f(f(x))=xf(1)$

Then from the statements above, we have:
$x^2f(1)=f(f(x^2))=f(xf(x))=xf(x)\implies f(x)=xf(1)$.
$P(1, 1, 1)\implies f(1)+f(1)^2=f(1+f(1))=2f(1)\implies f(1)^2=f(1)$

Therefore, $f(1)=0$ or $1$, so:
$f(x)=0$ or $f(x)=x$.

Seriously? This was InMO #6?
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gobathegreat
741 posts
#12 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, and 1 other user
Ashutoshmaths wrote:
$P(x,0,0)\implies f(x^2)=xf(x)$
$\implies f(x^2+yf(z))=x^2+zf(y) \cdots \star$
I think I found a mistake
It probably should imply $ f(x^2+yf(z))=f(x^2)+zf(y)$
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utkarshgupta
2280 posts
#13 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
I have got a solution apparently different

Please confirm if it is correct !

$f(x^2+yf(z))=xf(x)+zf(y)$
Let $P(x,y,z)$ be the assertion of the functional equation

$P(x,0,0) \implies f(x^2)=xf(x)$

$f(x)=0$ clearly satisfies the equation.
Now let $f(x)$ be an identically non zero function.

$P(0.y.z) \implies f(yf(z))=zf(y)$

Then $f(f(yf(z)))=f(zf(y))=yf(z)$
For each $x$ we can chose $y,z$ appropriately (since it is a non zero function) such that,
$yf(z)=x$

Thus $f(f(x))=x$ that is $f(x)$ is involutive

Also $xf(x)=f(xf(x))$ (Since $ f(yf(z))=zf(y)$ as above)

Combining these results
$xf(x)=f(xf(x))=f(f(x^2))=x^2$

That is $f(x)=x$ for all $x$


Thus the only solutions are
$f(x)=0$ and $f(x)=x$
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Sardor
804 posts
#14 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
It's easy and nice function.Here my solution:
Let $ P(x,y,z) $ be the assertion of the function.
1) $ P(0,0,0) \implies f(0)=0 $.
2) $ P(x,0,0) \implies f(x^2)=xf(x) (*) $ and $ P(0,1,z) \implies f(f(z))=f(1)z $.It's easy to see that $ f $ is zero function or bijective fuction.In least identity we take $ z=1 \implies f(f(1))=f(1) $ so by bijectivite we get $ f(1)=1 $ and so $ f(f(z))=z (**) $.
3) From $ (*)+(**) $ we have :
$ f(f(x)^2)=f(x)f(f(x))=f(x)x=f(x^2) \implies f(x)=x,-x $. But we see that $ f(x)=-x $ isn't solution.
Answers:
1) $ f(x)=0 $
2) $ f(x)=x $
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Wizard_32
1566 posts
#15 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
We claim that $f(x)=0$ $\forall x \in R$ or $f(x)=x$ $\forall x \in R$ are the only two solutions. It is easy to check that these 2 work. We now show that these are the only 2 solutions.
$[1]$ Set $x=y=z=0$ to get $f(0)=0$.
$[2]$ Set $y=0$ to get $f(x^{2})=xf(x)$ $\forall x \in R$. Thus the equation now takes the form $f(x^{2}+yf(z))=f(x^{2})+zf(y)$.
$[3]$ Set $x=0$ to get $f(yf(z))=zf(y)$ $\forall y,z \in R$.
$[4]$ Set $x=-x$ in $[2]$ to get $f(-x)=-f(x)$.
$[5]$ Set $x=\sqrt{y(1-f(z))}$ in $[2]$ to get (according to the sign of $1-f(z)$, we choose the sign of $y$ to ensure that $x \in R$, and hence either $y \in R^{+}$, or $y \in R^{-}$. We do not consider $y=0$.)
$$f(y)=f \left( \left (\sqrt{y(1-f(z))} \right)^{2} +yf(z) \right)=f(y(1-f(z)))+zf(y) \Leftrightarrow (1-z)f(y)=f \left( y(1-f(z)) \right)$$In this equation, set $z=1$ to get $f \left( y(1-f(1)) \right)=0$ $\forall y \in R^{+}$ or $R^{-}$, depending on whether $1 \geq f(1)$ or $1 < f(1)$. Since this is true for all $R^{+}$ (or $R^{-}$), either $1-f(1)=0$ or $f(x)$ is a constant on one of these 2 domains. In the second case, we can use $[4]$ and hence easily get $f(x)=0$ $\forall x \in R$.
So now assume $f(1)=1$. This is our result $[6]$.
$[7]$ Now, substituting $y=1$ in $[3]$ and using $[6]$ we get $f(f(y))=y$ $\forall y \in R$.
Hence $f(f(x^{2}))=x^{2}$ $\forall x \in R$. But setting $y=z$ in $[3]$ (and using $[2]$) gives $f(f(y^{2}))=f(y^{2})$ $\forall y \in R$. Thus, $f(a)=a$ $\forall a \in R^{+}$. Then using $[4]$ gives $f(x)=x$ $\forall x \in R$. (We can check that this is true for the case $x=0$ as well).
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Wizard_32, Dec 27, 2017, 8:03 AM
Reason: errrrrrrrr
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Durga01
256 posts
#16 • 1 Y
Y by amar_04
Amusing one for showing for the positive reals.

Trivial to note $f(0)=0$, then $P(x,y,0)$ gives $f(x^2)=xf(x)$ so that $P(f(x),y,y)$ gibes $f(f(x)^2+f(y)^2)=f(x)^2 + f(y)^2$ and varying $x,y$ we get the result for positive reals
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lahmacun
259 posts
#17 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Allzero works, so assume henceforth that $\exists u$, $f(u)\neq 0$
$P(1,u,z)\implies f(1+uf(z))=f(1)+zf(u)$
$P(0,0,0)\implies f(0)=0 \implies u\neq 0  \implies$ bijective
$P(x,0,0)\implies f(x^2)=xf(x)$ and $P(0,x,x)\implies f(xf(x))=xf(x)$
Hence, $f(x^2)=f(xf(x))$ and since bijective, $x^2=xf(x) \implies f(x)=x, \forall x\neq0$
So, $f(x)=x, \forall x\in\mathbb{R}$.
Hence two solutions:
$$f(x)=0, \forall x\in\mathbb{R}$$and $$f(x)=x \forall x\in\mathbb{R}$$
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by lahmacun, Oct 19, 2020, 2:32 PM
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Muaaz.SY
90 posts
#18
Y by
clearly, if $f$ is constant then it's zero so suppose that it's not constant
let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion of the equation.
$P(0,y,z)\implies f(yf(z))=zf(y)$ so $f(xf(x))=xf(x)$
subbose that $f(a)=f(b)$ for some $a,b$ and compare$P(x,y,a)$ with $P(x,y,b)$
$\implies f$ is bejective
now , $P(x,0,0)\implies f(x^2)=xf(x)=f(xf(x))$
so $\boxed{f(x)=x \quad \text{or}\quad 0 \quad \forall x\in\mathbb{R}}$
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MrOreoJuice
594 posts
#19
Y by
Answer: $f(x) = x \quad \text{or} \quad f(x) = 0$

Proof:
Let $P(x,y,z)$ denote the given assertion.
$P(0,0,0) \to f(0) = 0$
$P(x,0,0) \to \color{red}{f(x^2) = xf(x)}$
$P(x,x,x) \to f(x^2 + xf(x)) = xf(x) + xf(x)$
$\implies \color{red}{f(x^2 + f(x^2)) = 2xf(x)}$
$P(x,1,x^2) \to f(x^2 + f(x^2)) = xf(x) + x^2f(1)$
$\implies 2xf(x) = xf(x) + x^2f(1)$
$\implies xf(x) = x^2f(1)$
$\implies f(x) = xf(1)$ (Holds even when $x=0$)
If $f(1)=c \implies f(x) = cx$
Plugging this back into our original equation.
$c(x^2 + cyz) = cx^2 + cyz$
$\implies c^2 = c$
$\implies c=0,1$
After checking we see that both values of $c$ work.
Hence $f(x) = x \quad \text{or} \quad f(x) = 0$.
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jasperE3
11229 posts
#20
Y by
$P(x,0,0)\Rightarrow f(x^2)=xf(x)\Rightarrow f$ is odd.
$P(x,y,1)\Rightarrow f(x^2+y)=f(x^2)+f(y)$ so since $f$ is odd, it is additive.
This is now USAMO 2002 P4.

Alternatively:
$P(0,x,y)\Rightarrow Q(x,y):f(xf(y))=yf(x)$
$Q(1,x)\Rightarrow f(f(x))=xf(1)$
If $f(1)=0$ then $Q(x,f(x))\Rightarrow f(x)^2=0$, so $\boxed{f(x)=0}$, which works.
Otherwise, $f$ is bijective.
$Q(1,1)\Rightarrow f(f(1))=f(1)\Rightarrow f(1)=1$
$Q(1,x)\Rightarrow f(f(x))=x$
$Q(x,f(y))\Rightarrow f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$ and since $f$ is additive and multiplicative, $f(x)=cx,c\in\{-1,1\}$. Checking, we see that $\boxed{f(x)=x}$.
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jelena_ivanchic
151 posts
#21 • 3 Y
Y by Pranav1056, Jupiter_is_BIG, SatisfiedMagma
Oh, I really overcomplicated it :O But yeyy, I solved an INMO fe!

Let $P(x,y)$ denote the assertion.
Then $$P(x,0,0)\implies f(x^2)=xf(x)\implies f(x)=-f(-x)$$
And $$f(x^2+y^2)=f(x^2)+f(y^2)\implies f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b), a,b \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$$
Also $f(0)=0.$ Now we show that $f$ is injective at $0.$ So let $f(t)=0, t\ne 1.$ So $$P(0,1,t)\implies 0=f(f(t))=tf(1)\implies f(1)=0\text{ or } f=0$$Assuming $f$ is non constant, we get $f(1)=0.$ Then $$P(0,a,1)\implies 0=f(a)\forall a.$$
Not possible, hence $f$ is injective at $0.$
Moreover, $$P(0,1,x)\implies f(f(x))=xf(1)$$
Note that $$f(f(x))=xf(1)\implies f \text { is bijective }$$
Actually, we don't need the following claim, but I found it too good to not add.

Claim: $f(1)=1$
Proof: $$P(0,y,1)\implies f(yf(1))=f(y)\implies yf(1)=y\implies f(1)=1$$
Alternate proof: Using subjectivity, $$\exists k, f(k)=1\implies P(0,k,k)\implies 1=f(kf(k))=k\implies k=1$$
Now, fix $x.$ We carry $y$ and choose $z$ such that $$f(x^2+yf(z)=xf(x)+zf(y)=0$$Then $$x^2+yf(z)=0, xf(x)+zf(y)=0$$
Take $y=x\implies z=-x$ in $xf(x)+zf(y)=0.$ So, we get $$x^2+xf(-x)=0\implies f(-x)=-x\implies f(x)=x$$
Hence the solutions are $\boxed{ f=0,f(x)=x}$
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ZETA_in_olympiad
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#22
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Denote the assertion by $P(x,y,z).$ Clearly $f(0)=0.$ Then $P(0,1,x)$ gives $f(f(x))=cx$ so $f$ is bijective otherwise if $c=0$ then $P(0,x,f(x))$ gives $f(x)\equiv 0$ this works. Now comparing $P(x,x,x)$ and $P(x,0,x)$ we get $f(x)\equiv x,$ which works.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by ZETA_in_olympiad, Jun 29, 2022, 11:35 AM
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megarnie
5585 posts
#23
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Let $P(x,y,z)$ denote the given assertion.

$P(0,x,y): f(xf(y))=yf(x)$.

$P(0,1,x): f(f(x))=xf(1)$.

If $f(1)=0$, then $f(f(x))=0$, $P(0,x,f(y))$ gives $f(0)=f(x)f(y)$. Setting $y=1$ gives $f(0)=f(x)f(1)=0$. So $f(x)f(y)=0\implies f(x)^2=0\implies \boxed{f\equiv 0}$.

Henceforth assume $f(1)\ne 0$. Then $f$ is bijective.

Note that $f(f(1))=f(1)$, so $f(f(f(1)))=f(f(1))=f(1)$.

$P(0,1,f(1)): f(1) = f(1)^2\implies f(1)=1$ since $f(1)\ne 0$.

Thus, $f(f(x))=x$.

$P(0,x,f(y)): f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$, so $f$ is multiplicative.

$P(x,y,0): f(x^2)=xf(x)$, so $f$ is odd.

$P(x,y,1): f(x^2+y)=f(x^2)+f(y)$. Since $f$ is odd, $f$ is additive.

Now, $f$ is additive and multiplicative, so $f(x)=cx$ for some constant $c\ne 0$, checking gives $\boxed{f(x)=x}$ or $\boxed{f(x)=-x}$, which work.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by megarnie, Jun 29, 2022, 11:57 AM
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F10tothepowerof34
195 posts
#25
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Claim:
$\boxed{f(x)=cx, \forall x\in \mathbb{R}}$ where $c=0$ or $c=1$

Proof:
Let $P(x,y,z)$ denote the assertion: $f(x^2+yf(z))=xf(x)+zf(y)$
$P(0,0,0)$ yields $f(0)=0$
$P(x,0,0)$ yields $f(x^2)=xf(x)$
Furthermore $P(x,x,x)\implies f(x^2+f(x^2))=2xf(x)$ (1)
$P(x,1,x^2)$ yields $f(x^2+f(x^2))=xf(x)+x^2$
However notice that from (1) we have:
$2xf(x)=xf(x)+x^2f(1)\Longrightarrow f(x)=xf(1)$
Thus, since $f(1)$ is a constant, we have that $f(x)=cx$
$P(1,1,1)$ yields $f(c+1)=2c\Longrightarrow c^2=c$
Thus $c$ can only be equal to $1$ or $0$.QED
And we are done! :)
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by F10tothepowerof34, Apr 23, 2023, 8:02 PM
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egxa
207 posts
#26 • 2 Y
Y by AlperenINAN, bin_sherlo
Let $P(x,y,z)$ be the assertion $f(x^2+yf(z))=xf(x)+zf(y)$
$P(0,0,0)$ gives $f(0)=0$
$P(x,y,0)$ gives $f(x^2)=xf(x)$
$P(x,y,c_1)$ and $P(x,y,c_2)$ gives $f$ is injective or $f(x)=0$
$P(0,x,x)$ gives $f(xf(x))=xf(x)$ so $f(f(x^2))=f(xf(x))=xf(x)=f(x^2)  f(x^2)=x^2$ and from $f : \mathbb{R} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$ solutions are $f(x)=x$ and $f(x)=0$
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SatisfiedMagma
458 posts
#27
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Very similar to IMO 1992/2. We use pretty much the same idea here too!

Solution. The answers are $f \equiv 0$ and $f \equiv \mathrm{id}$. All of them work. Denote the assertion to the functional equation by $P(x,y,z)$. We will now proceed towards to the other direction.

Its clear that $f \equiv 0$ is the only constant. $P(0,0,0)$ reveals $f(0) = 0$. If $f$ attains $0$ at any non-zero constant $\alpha$, then $P(0,y,\alpha)$ would yield $f \equiv 0$. Henceforth, assume that $f$ is non-zero everywhere except $0$.

$P(x,0,0)$ gives $f(x^2) = xf(x)$. $P(0,y,1)$ gives us $f(yf(1)) = f(y) \implies f(1) = 1$ and finally $P(0,1,z)$ gives us that $f$ is bijective and an involution. Here's the nice part, $P(x,y,1)$ gives
\[f(x^2 + y) = xf(x) + f(y) = f(x^2) + f(y) \implies f(a+b) = f(a) + f(b)\]for all real $a$ and $b \ge 0$. This condition is well-known over $\mathbb{R}$ and can be extended to full a Cauchy. $P(0,y,f(y))$ would give $f(y^2) = f(y)^2$. So, $f > 0$ for positive values of domain which due to Cauchy means that $f$ is strictly increasing. Since $f$ is strictly increasing and $f$ is additive, $f(x) = ax$ for some real constant $a$. Just checking it once, we're done. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by SatisfiedMagma, Apr 28, 2023, 9:21 AM
Reason: error
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Jeeaspirant25
11 posts
#28
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Claim 1: $f(0)=0$
Proof: trivial
Claim 2: $f(x^2)=xf(x)$
Proof: Putting $y=z=0 \implies f(x^2)=xf(x)$
Claim 3: $f$ is an involution
Proof: Putting $x=0 \implies f(yf(z))=zf(y) \implies f(f(yf(z))=f(zf(y))=yf(z)$
But $yf(z)$ is surjective in $\mathbb{R}$
Therefore $f(f(x))=x \forall x \in \mathbb{R}$
Claim 3: $f$ is odd
Proof: Putting $x=f(z), y=-f(z)$ in original equation
We get $f(f(z)^2-f(z)^2)=f(0)=0=f(z)f(f(z))+zf(-f(z))=f(z)z+zf(-f(z)) \implies f(-f(z))=-f(z)$ now since $f$ is surjective therefore $f$ is also odd.
Claim 4: f(x)=x
Proof: taking $y=z$
We get $f(x^2+y^2)=x^2+y^2 \implies f(x)=x$ for all positive real x. But since $f$ is odd therfore we can extend this to the negative numbers as well and hence we are done.
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SouradipClash_03
166 posts
#29
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How was this INMO P$6$ wth. Just tried out random stuffs and got my solution.
$P(0,0,0) \implies f(0) = 0$.
$P(x,0,0) \implies f(x^2) = xf(x)$.
Comparing $P(x,0,0)$ with $P(-x,0,0)$ gives us $f(x) = -f(-x)$, so $f$ is odd.
Now, consider $a,b \in \mathbb{R}$ where $f(a) = f(b)$.
Then, $xf(x) + af(y) = xf(x) + bf(y)$
Clearly $f(x) = 0$ is a solution, then assume $f(x) \neq 0$.
This gives out $a = b$, and thus $f$ is injective.
$P(0,y,1) \implies f(yf(1)) = f(y)$.
$\implies yf(1) = y$.
$\implies f(1) = 1$.
Now, $P(0,1,z) \implies f(f(z)) = z$.
So, $f$ is involutive.
$P(0,x,x) \implies f(xf(x)) = f(x^2) = xf(x)$ [From $xf(x) = f(x^2)$]
Or, $f(x) = x$.
Overall, we get $2$ solutions, $f(x) = 0$ and $f(x) = x$, both seem to work.
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by SouradipClash_03, Jan 5, 2024, 5:40 PM
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AshAuktober
993 posts
#30 • 1 Y
Y by ATGY
Really interesting problem.

We claim the only solutions are $f(x) \equiv 0 \forall x$ and $f(x) = x \forall x$. Clearly, they satisfy the given equation. We now prove these are the only solutions.
Since $f(x) \equiv 0 \forall x$ satisfies, the equation, assume $f$ is not identically zero, and let $P(x, y, z)$ denote the assertion $f(x^2 + yf(z)) = xf(x) + zf(y)$.
$P(0, 0, 0): f(0) = 0$
$P(0, y, z): f(yf(z)) = zf(y) \implies f(f(yf(z))) = yf(z)$.
Note that we can choose z such that $f(z) \ne 0$, and therefore $yf(z)$ can represent any real, say $a$.
Therefore we have $f(f(a)) = a$, i.e. $f$ is an involution and therefore bijective.
Now $P(0, y, 1): f(yf(1)) = f(y) \implies yf(1) = y \implies f(1) = 1$.
Now, $P(x, y, 1): f(x^2 + y) = xf(x) + f(y)$ (Denote this by (1))
Now note that $f$ is odd, as $P(x, 0, 0): f(x^2) = xf(x) = (-x)f(-x)$.
Therefore (1) simplifies as $f(x^2 + y) = f(x^2) + f(y)$.
Now since this holds for all real $x$ and $y$, it holds for all positive reals $x, y$, so we assume $x, y>0$, and let $b = x^2$.
Then we have $f(b+y) = f(b) + f(y)$, and since we are assuming f to be bounded (in the positive reals) , this satisfies Cauchy's Functional Equation, i.e. we get $f(x) = cx \forall$ positive real x.
Also, $f(-x) = -f(x) = -cx = c(-x)$ for positive $x$, so $f(x) = cx$ for all nonzero x, and as $f(0) = 0$, we get $f(x) = cx \forall x$.
Substituting into the original equation, we get $cx^2 + c^2 yz = cx^2 + cyz \implies c^2 = c,$ and as $c \ne 0 $we have $c = 1$, i.e. $f(x) = x$.
Therefore, $f(x) \equiv 0$ and $f(x) = x$ are the only solutions.
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BVKRB-
322 posts
#31
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Bruh

First notice that $f(x)=0$ obviously works, now assume that $f(x)$ is nonzero for atleast one input value, say $c \neq 0$
$P(0,0,0) \implies f(0) = 0$.
Now $P(0,c,z) \implies f(cf(z))=zf(c)$ which implies that $f$ is bijective. Finally $$P(x,1-x,x) \implies f(x^2+xf(1-x))=f(x) \implies x^2+xf(1-x)=x \implies f(1-x)=1-x \implies f(x)=x \ \ \forall \ x \in R-0 $$and since we know that $f(0)=0$ we can conclude that $f(x)=0$ and $f(x)=x$ are the only solutions $\blacksquare$

Also, INMO doesn't order its problems difficulty-wise, so this being p6 (in 2005) is not a big deal :)
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SomeonesPenguin
125 posts
#34 • 1 Y
Y by zzSpartan
A little boring. :|

Solution
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by SomeonesPenguin, Aug 13, 2024, 2:16 PM
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Jakjjdm
2 posts
#35
Y by
The answers are $f(x) \equiv 0$ and $f(x) = x$. Let $f(x;y;z) = f(x² + yf(z)) = xf(x) + zf(y)$. So $f(0;0;0) \implies f(0) = 0$, $f(0;y;z) \implies f(x²) = xf(x)$ and $f(0;y;z) \implies f(yf(z)) = zf(y)$, so $f(0;x;x) \implies f(xf(x)) = xf(x) = f(f(x²)) = f(x²)$, $f(0;1;x) \implies f(f(x)) = xf(1)$, so $f(f(xf(x))) = f(xf(x)) = xf(x) = xf(x)f(1) \implies xf(x)(1 - f(1)) = 0 \implies$ for $x \neq 0, f(1) = 1$ or $f(x) = 0 \ \ \forall x$. If $f(x) \equiv 0$, we're done with this case. If $f(1) = 1 \implies f(f(x)) = x \implies f(f(x²)) = f(x²) = x²$, so for all $x \geq 0$, $f(x) = x$. Let x be a negative real number, so $f(x²) = xf(x) = x² \implies f(x) = x$ for x negative, so we conclude that $f(x) = x$ is the other case and we're done. :D
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by Jakjjdm, Apr 15, 2025, 7:08 PM
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InterLoop
274 posts
#36
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solution
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