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k a My Retirement & New Leadership at AoPS
rrusczyk   1571
N Wednesday at 11:40 PM by SmartGroot
I write today to announce my retirement as CEO from Art of Problem Solving. When I founded AoPS 22 years ago, I never imagined that we would reach so many students and families, or that we would find so many channels through which we discover, inspire, and train the great problem solvers of the next generation. I am very proud of all we have accomplished and I’m thankful for the many supporters who provided inspiration and encouragement along the way. I'm particularly grateful to all of the wonderful members of the AoPS Community!

I’m delighted to introduce our new leaders - Ben Kornell and Andrew Sutherland. Ben has extensive experience in education and edtech prior to joining AoPS as my successor as CEO, including starting like I did as a classroom teacher. He has a deep understanding of the value of our work because he’s an AoPS parent! Meanwhile, Andrew and I have common roots as founders of education companies; he launched Quizlet at age 15! His journey from founder to MIT to technology and product leader as our Chief Product Officer traces a pathway many of our students will follow in the years to come.

Thank you again for your support for Art of Problem Solving and we look forward to working with millions more wonderful problem solvers in the years to come.

And special thanks to all of the amazing AoPS team members who have helped build AoPS. We’ve come a long way from here:IMAGE
1571 replies
rrusczyk
Mar 24, 2025
SmartGroot
Wednesday at 11:40 PM
k a March Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Mar 2, 2025
March is the month for State MATHCOUNTS competitions! Kudos to everyone who participated in their local chapter competitions and best of luck to all going to State! Join us on March 11th for a Math Jam devoted to our favorite Chapter competition problems! Are you interested in training for MATHCOUNTS? Be sure to check out our AMC 8/MATHCOUNTS Basics and Advanced courses.

Are you ready to level up with Olympiad training? Registration is open with early bird pricing available for our WOOT programs: MathWOOT (Levels 1 and 2), CodeWOOT, PhysicsWOOT, and ChemWOOT. What is WOOT? WOOT stands for Worldwide Online Olympiad Training and is a 7-month high school math Olympiad preparation and testing program that brings together many of the best students from around the world to learn Olympiad problem solving skills. Classes begin in September!

Do you have plans this summer? There are so many options to fit your schedule and goals whether attending a summer camp or taking online classes, it can be a great break from the routine of the school year. Check out our summer courses at AoPS Online, or if you want a math or language arts class that doesn’t have homework, but is an enriching summer experience, our AoPS Virtual Campus summer camps may be just the ticket! We are expanding our locations for our AoPS Academies across the country with 15 locations so far and new campuses opening in Saratoga CA, Johns Creek GA, and the Upper West Side NY. Check out this page for summer camp information.

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following events:
[list][*]March 5th (Wednesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, HCSSiM Math Jam 2025. Amber Verser, Assistant Director of the Hampshire College Summer Studies in Mathematics, will host an information session about HCSSiM, a summer program for high school students.
[*]March 6th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar on Math Competitions from elementary through high school. Join us for an enlightening session that demystifies the world of math competitions and helps you make informed decisions about your contest journey.
[*]March 11th (Tuesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, 2025 MATHCOUNTS Chapter Discussion MATH JAM. AoPS instructors will discuss some of their favorite problems from the MATHCOUNTS Chapter Competition. All are welcome!
[*]March 13th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar about Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus. Transform your summer into an unforgettable learning adventure! From elementary through high school, we offer dynamic summer camps featuring topics in mathematics, language arts, and competition preparation - all designed to fit your schedule and ignite your passion for learning.[/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
Mar 2, 2025
0 replies
k i Adding contests to the Contest Collections
dcouchman   1
N Apr 5, 2023 by v_Enhance
Want to help AoPS remain a valuable Olympiad resource? Help us add contests to AoPS's Contest Collections.

Find instructions and a list of contests to add here: https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c40244h1064480_contests_to_add
1 reply
dcouchman
Sep 9, 2019
v_Enhance
Apr 5, 2023
k i Zero tolerance
ZetaX   49
N May 4, 2019 by NoDealsHere
Source: Use your common sense! (enough is enough)
Some users don't want to learn, some other simply ignore advises.
But please follow the following guideline:


To make it short: ALWAYS USE YOUR COMMON SENSE IF POSTING!
If you don't have common sense, don't post.


More specifically:

For new threads:


a) Good, meaningful title:
The title has to say what the problem is about in best way possible.
If that title occured already, it's definitely bad. And contest names aren't good either.
That's in fact a requirement for being able to search old problems.

Examples:
Bad titles:
- "Hard"/"Medium"/"Easy" (if you find it so cool how hard/easy it is, tell it in the post and use a title that tells us the problem)
- "Number Theory" (hey guy, guess why this forum's named that way¿ and is it the only such problem on earth¿)
- "Fibonacci" (there are millions of Fibonacci problems out there, all posted and named the same...)
- "Chinese TST 2003" (does this say anything about the problem¿)
Good titles:
- "On divisors of a³+2b³+4c³-6abc"
- "Number of solutions to x²+y²=6z²"
- "Fibonacci numbers are never squares"


b) Use search function:
Before posting a "new" problem spend at least two, better five, minutes to look if this problem was posted before. If it was, don't repost it. If you have anything important to say on topic, post it in one of the older threads.
If the thread is locked cause of this, use search function.

Update (by Amir Hossein). The best way to search for two keywords in AoPS is to input
[code]+"first keyword" +"second keyword"[/code]
so that any post containing both strings "first word" and "second form".


c) Good problem statement:
Some recent really bad post was:
[quote]$lim_{n\to 1}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{n}-lnn$[/quote]
It contains no question and no answer.
If you do this, too, you are on the best way to get your thread deleted. Write everything clearly, define where your variables come from (and define the "natural" numbers if used). Additionally read your post at least twice before submitting. After you sent it, read it again and use the Edit-Button if necessary to correct errors.


For answers to already existing threads:


d) Of any interest and with content:
Don't post things that are more trivial than completely obvious. For example, if the question is to solve $x^{3}+y^{3}=z^{3}$, do not answer with "$x=y=z=0$ is a solution" only. Either you post any kind of proof or at least something unexpected (like "$x=1337, y=481, z=42$ is the smallest solution). Someone that does not see that $x=y=z=0$ is a solution of the above without your post is completely wrong here, this is an IMO-level forum.
Similar, posting "I have solved this problem" but not posting anything else is not welcome; it even looks that you just want to show off what a genius you are.

e) Well written and checked answers:
Like c) for new threads, check your solutions at least twice for mistakes. And after sending, read it again and use the Edit-Button if necessary to correct errors.



To repeat it: ALWAYS USE YOUR COMMON SENSE IF POSTING!


Everything definitely out of range of common sense will be locked or deleted (exept for new users having less than about 42 posts, they are newbies and need/get some time to learn).

The above rules will be applied from next monday (5. march of 2007).
Feel free to discuss on this here.
49 replies
ZetaX
Feb 27, 2007
NoDealsHere
May 4, 2019
tangent circles
george_54   6
N 15 minutes ago by whwlqkd
$ABC$ is a triangle with circumcenter $(\Omega)$ and $(\omega)$ is a circle tangent to $BC$ and internally to $(\Omega).$ The tangent
from $A$ to $(\omega)$ intersects $(\Omega)$ again at $D.$ If $T, P$ are the contact points of $(\omega)$ with $BC, AD$ respectively, prove that $CT\cdot AD=AC\cdot PD+DC\cdot PA.$
6 replies
1 viewing
george_54
Mar 26, 2025
whwlqkd
15 minutes ago
inequalities
Jackson0423   7
N 17 minutes ago by maths_enthusiast_0001
if abc=1 what is the maximum value of a/(a^2+2)+b/(b^2+2)+c/(c^2+2)? please help
7 replies
+1 w
Jackson0423
2 hours ago
maths_enthusiast_0001
17 minutes ago
Inspired by KHOMNYO2
sqing   0
18 minutes ago
Source: Own
Let $ a,b,c>0 $ and $ a^2+b^2+c^2=3. $ Prove that $$ \frac{2}{a} + \frac{2}{b} + \frac{2}{c}  +a +  b +c+ abc\geq 10$$
0 replies
+1 w
sqing
18 minutes ago
0 replies
Shortlist 2017/G4
fastlikearabbit   118
N 21 minutes ago by Ilikeminecraft
Source: Shortlist 2017, Romanian TST 2018
In triangle $ABC$, let $\omega$ be the excircle opposite to $A$. Let $D, E$ and $F$ be the points where $\omega$ is tangent to $BC, CA$, and $AB$, respectively. The circle $AEF$ intersects line $BC$ at $P$ and $Q$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $AD$. Prove that the circle $MPQ$ is tangent to $\omega$.
118 replies
fastlikearabbit
Jul 10, 2018
Ilikeminecraft
21 minutes ago
EGMO Genre Predictions
ohiorizzler1434   8
N 25 minutes ago by GreekIdiot
Everybody, with EGMO upcoming, what are you predictions for the problem genres?


Personally I predict: predict
8 replies
ohiorizzler1434
Today at 4:16 AM
GreekIdiot
25 minutes ago
Extremum problem on an acute triangle.
Virgil Nicula   1
N 29 minutes ago by Mathzeus1024
PP. Let $ABC$ be an acute triangle. For a mobile point $M\in [AB]$ denote $\left\{\begin{array}{c}
N\in BC\ ;\ MN\perp BC\\\\
P\in AC\ ;\ MP\parallel BC\\\\
L\in NP\ ;\ ML\perp NP\end{array}\right|$ .

Find the position of the point $M$ on the side $[AB]$ for which the distance $ML$ is maximum.
1 reply
Virgil Nicula
Jun 20, 2012
Mathzeus1024
29 minutes ago
Residue Sums
YaoAOPS   2
N 33 minutes ago by EthanWYX2009
Source: 2025 CTST P3
Let $n, k, l$ be positive integers satisfying $n \ge 3$, $l \le n - 2, l - k \le \frac{n-3}{2}$. Suppose that $a_1, a_2, \dots, a_k$ are integers chosen from $\{1, 2, \dots, n\}$ such that the set of remainders of the subset sums over all subsets of $a_i$ when divided by $n$ is exactly $\{1, 2, \dots, l\}$. Show that \[ a_1 + a_2 + \dots + a_k = l. \]
2 replies
YaoAOPS
Mar 5, 2025
EthanWYX2009
33 minutes ago
f(x)f(y) <= f(xy) + x + y with x,y > 0
truongphatt2668   4
N 35 minutes ago by Mathdreams
Source: own
Find all function $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \to \mathbb{R}^+$ such that:
$$f(x)f(y) \le f(xy) + x+ y, \forall x,y \in \mathbb{R}^+$$
4 replies
truongphatt2668
an hour ago
Mathdreams
35 minutes ago
Inspired by KHOMNYO2
sqing   0
35 minutes ago
Source: Own
Let $ a,b>0 $ and $ a^2+b^2=\frac{5}{2}. $ Prove that $$ 2a + 2b + \frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b}  +\frac{ab}{\sqrt 2}\geq 5\sqrt 2$$$$ a +  b +\frac{2}{a} + \frac{2}{b}  + ab\geq \frac{5}{4} + \frac{13}{\sqrt 5} $$$$ a +  b +\frac{2}{a} + \frac{2}{b}  +  \frac{ab}{\sqrt 2}\geq \frac{5}{4\sqrt 2} + \frac{13}{\sqrt 5} $$
0 replies
1 viewing
sqing
35 minutes ago
0 replies
Is this FE solvable?
Mathdreams   0
41 minutes ago
Source: Own
Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ that satisfies $$f(2x + y) + f(x + f(2y)) = f(x)f(y) - xy$$for all reals $x$ and $y$.
0 replies
Mathdreams
41 minutes ago
0 replies
3 VARIABLE INEQUALITY
SUN8691   1
N an hour ago by sqing
Source: UNKNOWN SOURCE
Let a,b,c ≥ 0 real numbers with ab+bc+ca ≤4. Prove that a+b+c+3 ≥ 2(sqrt(ab) + sqrt(bc) + sqrt(ca ))
1 reply
SUN8691
2 hours ago
sqing
an hour ago
D1018 : Can you do that ?
Dattier   1
N an hour ago by Dattier
Source: les dattes à Dattier
We can find $A,B,C$, such that $\gcd(A,B)=\gcd(C,A)=\gcd(A,2)=1$ and $$\forall n \in \mathbb N^*, (C^n \times B \mod A) \mod 2=0 $$.

For example :

$C=20$
$A=47650065401584409637777147310342834508082136874940478469495402430677786194142956609253842997905945723173497630499054266092849839$

$B=238877301561986449355077953728734922992395532218802882582141073061059783672634737309722816649187007910722185635031285098751698$

Can you find $A,B,C$ such that $A>3$ is prime, $C,B \in (\mathbb Z/A\mathbb Z)^*$ with $o(C)=(A-1)/2$ and $$\forall n \in \mathbb N^*, (C^n \times B \mod A) \mod 2=0 $$?
1 reply
Dattier
Mar 24, 2025
Dattier
an hour ago
weird 3-var cyclic ineq
RainbowNeos   0
an hour ago
Given $a,b,c\geq 0$ with $a+b+c=1$ and at most one of them being zero, show that
\[\frac{1}{\max(a^2,b)}+\frac{1}{\max(b^2,c)}+\frac{1}{\max(c^2,a)}\geq\frac{27}{4}\]
0 replies
RainbowNeos
an hour ago
0 replies
f(xf(y)) + f(x^2+f(xy)) = f(xf(x) + yf(x)) + f(xy)
truongphatt2668   2
N an hour ago by truongphatt2668
Source: own
Determine all function $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \to \mathbb{R}^+$ such that:
$$f(xf(y)) + f(x^2+f(xy)) = f(xf(x) + yf(x)) + f(xy), \forall x,y \in \mathbb{R}^+$$
2 replies
truongphatt2668
Yesterday at 4:06 PM
truongphatt2668
an hour ago
IMO ShortList 2001, number theory problem 4
orl   43
N Mar 21, 2025 by Zany9998
Source: IMO ShortList 2001, number theory problem 4
Let $p \geq 5$ be a prime number. Prove that there exists an integer $a$ with $1 \leq a \leq p-2$ such that neither $a^{p-1}-1$ nor $(a+1)^{p-1}-1$ is divisible by $p^2$.
43 replies
orl
Sep 30, 2004
Zany9998
Mar 21, 2025
IMO ShortList 2001, number theory problem 4
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: IMO ShortList 2001, number theory problem 4
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orl
3647 posts
#1 • 4 Y
Y by doxuanlong15052000, Adventure10, Mango247, ATGY
Let $p \geq 5$ be a prime number. Prove that there exists an integer $a$ with $1 \leq a \leq p-2$ such that neither $a^{p-1}-1$ nor $(a+1)^{p-1}-1$ is divisible by $p^2$.
Attachments:
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by orl, Oct 25, 2004, 12:07 AM
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orl
3647 posts
#2 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Please post your solutions. This is just a solution template to write up your solutions in a nice way and formatted in LaTeX. But maybe your solution is so well written that this is not required finally. For more information and instructions regarding the ISL/ILL problems please look here: introduction for the IMO ShortList/LongList project and regardingsolutions :)
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grobber
7849 posts
#3 • 8 Y
Y by AlastorMoody, Arshia.esl, A-Thought-Of-God, Adventure10, JG666, Mango247, Fatemeh06, bhan2025
It's well-known that $P(x)=x^{p-1}-1$ has $p-1$ roots in $\mathbb Z_{p^2}$. Assume what we're trying to prove doesn't hold. In each pair $(1,2),(3,4),\ldots,(p-2,p-1)$ there's at least a root of $P$, so there are at least $\frac{p-1}2$ roots of $P$ among the first $p$ residues $\pmod{p^2}$. If $x$ is a root of $P$, then so is $-x$ (in $\mathbb Z_{p^2}$, of course), so there are at least $\frac{p-1}2$ other roots of $P$ among the last $p$ residues $\pmod{p^2}$.

This means that the roots of $P$ lie in the intervals $(1,p)$ and $(p^2-p,p^2)$. However, we can clearly find roots which are not in these intervals, for example the product of two roots chosen from the pairs $(\frac{p-3}2,\frac{p-1}2),(\frac{p+1}2,\frac{p+3}2)$. Their product is $\ge \frac{(p-3)(p+1)}4$ and $\le \frac{(p-1)(p+3)}4$. For $p\ge 7$ this product is outside the two intervals mentioned above, and for $p=5$ we can check it manually (take $a=1$).
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TomciO
552 posts
#4 • 8 Y
Y by Sx763_, doxuanlong15052000, Anar24, Adventure10, Jahir, a_n, Mango247, Fatemeh06
My proof is a little bit different.

We will consider 3 cases:
1)$(\frac{p-1}{2})^{p-1} \not \equiv 1 \mod{p^2}$ and $(\frac{p+1}{2})^{p-1} \not \equiv 1\mod{p^2}$
2)$(\frac{p-1}{2})^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod{p^2}$
3)$(\frac{p+1}{2})^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod{p^2}$

In the first case, we obviously take $a=\frac{p-1}{2}$.
Let us consider the second case.
$(\frac{p-1}{2})^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod{p^2}$ is equivalent to $(p-1)^{p-1} \equiv 2^{p-1} \mod{p^2}$ which is, after reducing $\mod{p^2}$,
$p(p-1) + 2^{p-1} - 1 \equiv 0 \mod{p^2}$
From FLT $2^{p-1} - 1$ is divisible by $p$ so, $2^{p-1} - 1 = pk$. So:
$p(p-1) + 2^{p-1} - 1 = p(p-1 + k) \equiv 0 \mod{p^2}$
So, $p-1+k \equiv 0 \mod{p}$ which means that $k \equiv 1 \mod{p}$ and $2^{p-1} - 1 \equiv p \mod{p^2}$

Now, we will show that $a=p-2$ satisfies required condition. Indeed:

$(p-2)^{p-1} - 1 \equiv 2^{p-2}p(p-1) + 2^{p-1} - 1 \equiv p(2^{p-2}(p-1) + 1) \mod {p^2}$
And since $2^{p-2}(p-1) + 1 \equiv -2^{p-2} + 1 \not \equiv 0 \mod{p}$ above congruence is not $0 \mod{p^2}$.

Now we check $p-1$:
$(p-1)^{p-1} - 1 \equiv -p(p-1) + 1 - 1 \equiv -p(p-1) \not \equiv 0 \mod{p^2}$

So, in this case we are done.
We are left with the case 3) but it's almost the same.
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CatalystOfNostalgia
1479 posts
#5 • 4 Y
Y by Anar24, pavel kozlov, Adventure10, Mango247
Let $ S = \{1,2,\ldots,p - 1\}$. Let $ A$ be the set of guys in $ S$ such that $ a^{p - 1}\equiv1\pmod{p^{2}}$, and $ B$ be the others. Go by contradiction.

1. $ p - 1\in B$.
Binomially expand $ (p - 1)^{p - 1}$. We get the sum of a bunch of terms that are divisible by $ p^{2}$, then the last two are $ - p(p - 1) + 1\equiv p + 1\pmod{p^{2}}$, which is not 1.

2. $ |B|\ge|A|$.
We'll construct an injection from $ A$ into $ B$. Say $ a\in A$. Then, $ a^{p - 1}\equiv1\pmod{p^{2}}$. Now, consider $ a\rightarrow (p - 1)a$, which is an injection since $ p$ is prime (this is really just $ a$ to $ - a$). Then, $ ((p - 1)a)^{p - 1} = a^{p - 1}(p - 1)^{p - 1}\equiv p + 1\pmod{p^{2}}$, so $ (p - 1)a\in B$. Thus, $ |B|\ge|A|$.

3. $ |A|\ge|B|$.
That is, at least half of our guys in $ S$ are in $ A$. $ p - 1$ is even, so we can break $ S$ up into the pairs $ \{1,2\},\{3,4\},\ldots,\{p - 2,p - 1\}$. By assumption, each of these pairs has a number that, when raised to the power $ p - 1$, is congruent to 1 modulo $ p^{2}$, so each pair has an element of $ |A|$. The conclusion follows.

1 and 3 give us $ |A| = |B|$. Now, note further that with our pairs from step 3, we in fact need exactly one member of each pair to be in $ A$. 1 is in $ A$, so 2 is not. This makes 3 in $ A$, so 4 is not. We see that we need the odd integers to be in $ A$, but the even integers to be in $ B$. We'll now proceed to get the contradiction.

Case 1: $ p\ge17$. Observe that one of $ p + 2,p + 4$ is not prime (one has to be divisible by 3, as $ p$ is not). Both integers are odd, and thus have odd factors that are furthermore at most $ p - 1$. If $ p + 2$ is composite, write it as the product of odd factors $ f_{1},f_{2}$, and note that $ (p + 2)^{p - 1} = f_{1}^{p - 1}f_{2}^{p - 1}\equiv1\pmod{p^{2}}$. The exact same thing is true of $ p + 4$ if it is composite. Now, we multiply by $ (p - 2)^{p - 1}$ or $ (p - 4)^{p - 1}$, to get that $ (p^{2} - 4)^{p - 1}$ or $ (p^{2} - 16)^{p - 1}$ is also 1 modulo $ p^{2}$. Observe that $ p - 1$ is even, so these are the same as $ 4^{p - 1},16^{p - 1}$, which have even bases, and when $ p\ge17$, this means that they are not 1 modulo $ p^{2}$, contradiction.

Case 2: $ p = 7,13$. $ p + 2$ is not prime here, and so we can do the same thing as before with $ p + 2$, to get $ 4^{p - 1}$ not 1 modulo $ p^{2}$.

Case 3: $ p = 5$. $ 3^{4}\equiv6\pmod{25}$. Oops.

Case 4: $ p = 11$. $ 5^{10}\equiv (125)^{3}\cdot5\equiv 64\cdot5\equiv320\equiv 78\pmod{121}$. Oops.

This exhausts all cases, so we're done.
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timwu
973 posts
#6 • 4 Y
Y by Lopogrant, ValidName, Adventure10, Mango247
Lemma: $(p-x)^{p-1} \not\equiv x^{p-1} \pmod {p^2}$ for $1\leq x\leq p-1$.
Proof: $(p-x)^{p-1} \equiv (-x)^{p-1} + (p-1)p(-x)^{p-2} \equiv x^{p-1} + px^{p-2} \not\equiv x^{p-1} \pmod {p^2}$.

Suppose for contradiction that for $1\leq a \leq p-2$, either $a^{p-1}-1$ or $(a+1)^{p-1}-1$ is $0$ mod $p^2$. By our lemma, since $1^{p-1} -1 \equiv 0 \pmod {p^2}$, $(p-1)^{p-1} -1 \not\equiv 0 \pmod {p^2}$, so $(p-2)^{p-1} -1 \equiv 0 \pmod {p^2}$; repeating this argument, we find $x^{p-1} - 1 \equiv 0 \pmod {p^2}$ for $x = 1, 3, ..., p-2$; since $p-1$ is even, their negatives also satisfy the equation. Since $x^{p-1}-1$ is of degree $p-1$, it can have at most $p-1$ roots mod $p^2$, so these are all the roots. Thus, $x^{p-1}-1 \equiv (x^2-1)(x^2-3^2)...(x^2-(p-2)^2) \pmod {p^2}$. Now the coefficient of the term $x^{p-3}$ is $-\sum_{k=1}^{\frac{p-1}{2}} (2k-1)^2 = - \left(\frac{p-1}{2}\right)^2 \not\equiv 0 \pmod {p^2}$. But $0<p-3<p-1$, the coefficient must be $0$ mod $p^2$. Contradiction.
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shoki
843 posts
#7 • 4 Y
Y by Anar24, Adventure10, Mango247, and 1 other user
we can also do this in this way :
considering the lemma posted by timwu we find as said : for $x=1,3,...,p-2$ we have $x^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$.
now if we find two distinct odd numbers between 1 and p like i and j such that $ij \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$ we r done because then we have
$ i^{p-1} \equiv j^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$ and so $p^2 | (ij)^{p-1}-1$ which is impossible because $p | ij-1 , p \nmid p-1 \implies p^2 | ij-1 < p^2-1$ which means that we must have ij=1 which contradicts the fact that they are distinct odd natural numbers.
now suppose that $2^a || p-1$ then we have that $ (p-2^a)(\frac{p-1}{2^a}) \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$ so we must check the case in which $p = 2^a +1 $ or better say $p=2^{2^n}+1$ for some n . we can check the case p=5 easily. so let's assume that n > 1. we have 5 | 2p+1 and so there exists an odd number distinct from 5 such that $5i = 2p+1 \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$ and it's easy to see that $1 <  5,i < p$
DoNe!
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darkpseudo
40 posts
#8 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, and 1 other user
Can't we just use LTE ?? :
$ v_p(a^{p-1}-1) = v_p(a-1) $ ?
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RaleD
118 posts
#9 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
darkpseudo wrote:
Can't we just use LTE ?? :
$ v_p(a^{p-1}-1) = v_p(a-1) $ ?
So $p$ doesn't divide $a-1$ implies $p$ doesn't divide $a^{p-1}-1$ ?
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darkpseudo
40 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Yes because obviously p doesn't divides a ( a< p ) .
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RaleD
118 posts
#11 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
darkpseudo wrote:
Yes because obviously p doesn't divides a ( a< p ) .
And what about Fermat's little theorem?
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darkpseudo
40 posts
#12 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Sorry I did'nt quite understood you at first , one of the conditions of LTE is that $v_p({a-1})\geq 1 $ so there is no contradiction with Fermat theorem .
Here is what I was thinking :
We know that there are $\frac {p-1}{2}$ quadratic residue mod p if there exist two successif quadratic residue then take the first as ''a'' then we have $ a^{\frac{p-1}{2}} = 1 [p] $ then by LTE we have $ v_p{a^{p-1}-1}= v_p{a^{\frac{p-1}{2}}-1 = 1 }$ and the same think for a+1 since it is also a quadratic residue . But still the other case can't be proven the same way .
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RaleD
118 posts
#13 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
darkpseudo wrote:
$v_p{a^{\frac{p-1}{2}}-1 = 1 }$ .
Why you are sure about this? For example: $a=3$, $p=11$ and $121|3^5-1$. I believe not a lot is known about $v_p m^{p-1}-1 $ when we don't know a lot about m.
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sergei93
94 posts
#14 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I think this problem can be tackled using group theory, just that I haven't quite found the way to do so. Has anyone tried?
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eraydin
22 posts
#15 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
can somebody prove " $ P(x)=x^{p-1}-1 $ has $ p-1 $ roots in $ \mathbb{Z}_{p^{2}} $ "
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theflowerking
92 posts
#16 • 2 Y
Y by viperstrike, Adventure10
I have a different approach!

Assume the statement is false. Let a number $a$ modulo $p^2$ be "good" if $a^p = a (\bmod p^2)$, otherwise let it be bad. Then there are no consecutive bad numbers in $1,2,...,p-1$, so at least half of them are good. If $a$ is good notice

$(p-a)^p = -a^p = -a \neq p-a (\bmod p^2)$

and so $p-a$ is bad. Therefore there are no consecutive good numbers in $1,2,...,p-1$ either, otherwise if we take $a,b$ consecutive good numbers, then $p-a,p-b$ are consecutive bad numbers. Since every number is good or bad and 1 is good, we reach the conclusion that:

1 is good, 2 is bad, 3 is good, 4 is bad, etcetera...

Notice that this implies $p^2-1,p^2-3,...$ are all good, and so we have proven $p-1$ different numbers are good. Also notice that

$(pk+a)^p = a^p (\bmod p^2)$

and so, for each subcongruence of $p$ modulo $p^2$, there is only 1 good number. This implies there are $p-1$ good numbers in total, which MUST be the ones I just described ($1,3,...,p-2$ and $p^2-1,p^2-2,...,p^2-(p-2)$).

Since $p \ge 5$, we get that $(p-2)^2$ is NOT one of these numbers. Therefore, it is bad. But notice that $p-2$ is good, and so

$((p-2)^2)^{p-1} = ((p-2)^{p-1})^2 = (1)^2 = 1 (\bmod p^2)$,

and so $p-2$ is good. Contradiction!

Q.E.D
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by theflowerking, Jun 20, 2015, 4:22 PM
Reason: latecx
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colinhy
751 posts
#17 • 3 Y
Y by viperstrike, Adventure10, Mango247
Hmm how's this?

Let $S = {1, 2, \ldots, p-1}$ and $X = x \in S \mid x^{p-1} \equiv 1 \mod p$ and $Y = y \in S \mid y^{p-1} \not\equiv 1 \mod p$. The case $|Y| = 0$ is clearly impossible as $p-1 \in Y$, which can easily be verified through binomial expansion. Then, for some element $y \in Y$, the elements $X \cdot y \in Y$ and are all distinct, so $|Y| \ge |X|$. If $|Y| > |X|$, we are done as there must be two consecutive $y$ terms, so assume $|Y| = |X|$. If there are no two consecutive $y$ terms, since $1 \in X$ and $p-1 \in Y$, it must be that $1, 3, 5, \ldots \in X$. Furthermore, $Y \cdot y \in X$ since $|Y| = |X|$ and $S \cdot y$ are all distinct, so $2 \cdot 2 \equiv 4 \in X$ for $p \ge 5$, a contradiction.
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mcdonalds106_7
1138 posts
#18 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, TSM_Zeki_MuREN
Solution
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viperstrike
1198 posts
#20 • 3 Y
Y by Quidditch, Adventure10, TSM_Zeki_MuREN
Can someone tell me if there's a mistake here, it seems too easy....


Call $a$ in $S=\{1,2,...,p-1\}$ "good" if $a^{p-1}=1 [p^2]$. If the problem statement is false, then for every $1 \le a \le p-2$, at least one of $a$ and $a+1$ is good. Then at least $(p-1)/2$ numbers in $S$ are good.

It is easy to prove by binomial theorem that $(p-a)^{p-1}=(a^{p-1}+pa^{p-2}) [p^2]$. If $a$ in $S$ and $a^{p-1}=1 [p^2]$ then clearly $(p-a)^{p-1} \neq 1 [p^2]$. Thus at most one of $a,p-a$ are good for every $1 \le a \le (p-1)/2$. Thus there are at most $(p-1)/2$ good numbers in $S$, and hence there are exactly $(p-1)/2$ good numbers in $S$. For the problem statement to remain false, it follows that $1,3,...,p-2$ are good and $2,4,...,p-1$ are not good.

Now note that if $a$ is good and $b$ is not good then $ab$ is not good. In particular, if $p \ge 7$ we get that since $3$ is good and $2$ is not good, $6$ is not good, a contradiction. If $p=5$ we can check that the problem statement is true manually.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by viperstrike, Jun 28, 2016, 11:32 PM
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rafayaashary1
2541 posts
#21 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
It is well known that there exists a primitive root in $\mathbb Z/p^2\mathbb Z$. Hence for every $h\mid p(p-1)$ there exist exactly $\varphi(h)$ values $\alpha$ such that $\text{ord}_{p^2}(\alpha)=d$. Define $X={x\text{ s.t. }p^2\nmid x^{p-1}-1}$, and note that $x\in X\iff p\mid\text{ord}_{p^2}(x)$. Clearly there are $\sum_{d\mid p-1} \varphi(pd)=(p-1)\sum_{d\mid p-1} \varphi(d)=(p-1)^2$ such $x$. But for $p\geq 5$ we have $\tfrac{(p-1)^2}{p^2}>0.5$, and then it must be possible (by PHP) to find $a,a+1\in X$, as desired $\Box$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by rafayaashary1, Nov 7, 2016, 4:02 AM
Reason: slight clarification
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rafayaashary1
2541 posts
#22 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Remark that the problem could've been:
ISL'01NT4 wrote:
Given a positive integer $k$, show that for every sufficiently large prime $p$ there must exist $k$ consecutive integers $x_1,x_2,\cdots, x_k$ such that none of $x_i^{p-1}-1$ is divisible by $p^2$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by rafayaashary1, Nov 7, 2016, 12:27 PM
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Pokemathematiques
11 posts
#23 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
My solution
Lemma :
If $a$ is an integer not divisible by $p$, then $p^2\mid (p-a)^{p-1}-1$ iff $p^2\mid a^p-a+p$
Proof :
$p^2\mid (p-a)^{p-1}-1$ $\Leftrightarrow$ (by binomial expansion) $p^2\mid p(-a)^{p-2}(p-1)+(-a)^{p-1}-1$ $\Leftrightarrow$ (because $p$ is odd) $p^2\mid pa^{p-2}+a^{p-1}-1$
Put $M:=\frac{a^{p-1}-1}p$, then $M\in\mathbb{N}$ by FLT
So $p^2\mid pa^{p-2}+a^{p-1}-1$ $\Leftrightarrow$ $p^2\mid pM+ pa^{p-2}$ $\Leftrightarrow$ $p\mid M+a^{p-2}$ $\Leftrightarrow$ (because $p$ doesn't divide $a$) $p\mid aM+a^{p-1}=aM+pM+1$ $\Leftrightarrow$ $p\mid aM+1$ $\Leftrightarrow$ $p^2\mid paM+p=a^p-a+p$ $\Box$

Suppose that $p^2\mid a^{p-1}-1$ and $p^2\mid (a+1)^{p-1}-1$ for $a\in [\![1,p-2]\!]$ : by our lemma, one can find that neither $(p-a-1)^{p-1}-1$ nor $(p-a)^{p-1}-1$ is divisible by $p^2$, which would finish the proof

So suppose that $p^2\mid a^{p-1}-1$ $\Rightarrow$ $p^2$ divides neither $(a-1)^{p-1}-1$ nor $(a+1)^{p-1}-1$
Suppose the problem is false, and w'll derive a contradiction
$p^2\mid 1^{p-1}-1$ so $p^2$ divides not $2^{p-1}-1$ so $p\mid 3^{p-1}-1$... and so each integer $a$ odd in $[\![1,p-1]\!]$ is such as $p^2\mid a^{p-1}-1$ and contrary for even $a$. By our lemma, for an even a, because $a$ is even $p-a$ is odd, we get that $a^p-a\equiv -p\mod{p^2}$
Because $p\geq5$, we have for $a=2,4$, $2^p-2\equiv_{p^2} -p$ and $4^p-4\equiv_{p^2}-p$, so that $2^p\equiv_{p^2}2-p$ and then $-p\equiv_{p^2}4^p-4=2^{2p}-4\equiv_{p^2}(2-p)^2-4\equiv_{p^2} -4p$ so $3p\equiv 0\pmod{p^2}$, a contradiction $\Box$
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Cindy.tw
54 posts
#24
Y by
eraydin wrote:
can somebody prove " $ P(x)=x^{p-1}-1 $ has $ p-1 $ roots in $ \mathbb{Z}_{p^{2}} $ "

Hensel Lemma can!
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AlastorMoody
2125 posts
#25 • 4 Y
Y by Bumblebee60, Purple_Planet, SenatorPauline, Pluto04
Solution
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mat2772
29 posts
#26 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Cindy.tw wrote:
eraydin wrote:
can somebody prove " $ P(x)=x^{p-1}-1 $ has $ p-1 $ roots in $ \mathbb{Z}_{p^{2}} $ "

Hensel Lemma can!

A simpler way is to notice that
$$x^{p(p-1)}-1=(x^{p-1}-1)(x^{(p-1)^2}+\dots +1)$$But since in $\mathbb{Z} _{p^2}$ $x^{p(p-1)}-1 $ has exactly $p(p-1)$ roots, $P(x)$ has at most $p-1$ roots and $x^{(p-1)^2}+\dots +1$ has at most $(p-1)^2$ roots, $P(x)$ has exactly $p-1$ roots.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by mat2772, Jul 8, 2020, 11:17 PM
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HKIS200543
380 posts
#27 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
From here, we work only in $\mathbb{Z} / p^2\mathbb{Z}$.

It is well known that $x^{p-1} - 1$ has at most $p-1$ roots. Moreover, if $x$ is a root, then $-x$ is also a root. Therefore there at most $\frac{p-1}{2}$ integers between $1$ and $p-1$ that are roots. Thus the only way there are no two consecutive roots is if all the odds or all the evens are roots. Since $1$ is obviously a root, it must be the odds. Thus
\[ x^{p-1}-1 = (x-1)(x+1)(x-3)(x+3) \cdots(x-p+2)(x+p-2) = (x^2 - 1)(x^2 - 9) \cdots (x - (p-2)^2 .\]However, the coefficient of $x^{p-3}$ on the right hand side is
\[ - (1^2 + 3^2 + \cdots + (p-2)^2) = 2^2(1^2 + 2^2 + \cdots (p-1/2)^2) - (1^2 + 2^2 + \cdots (p-1)^2) = \frac{p (p-1)(p+1) - p(p-1)(2p-1)}{6} = \frac{p(p-1)(2-p)}{6} \]which is not divisible by $p^2$, contradiction.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by HKIS200543, Aug 21, 2020, 5:29 AM
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A-Thought-Of-God
454 posts
#28 • 4 Y
Y by Aritra12, Aimingformygoal, Pluto04, gth
Fakesolve
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a_n
162 posts
#34
Y by
I now know the proof given in MONT (the same one given here, but originally when I tried this problem, I had the following approach:
Assume for the contrary that among every $2$ consecutive numbers, at least one is divisible by $p^2$. Also, note that $p|a^p-a$ always due to Fermat.
So, $p^3 | (i^{p-1}-1)((i+1)^{p-1} -1) \ \forall \ i \in [{1,2,...p-2}]$.
Now I attempt to prove that this is not possible by proving a much stronger result, that in fact

$p^3$ can not divide $\sum_{i=1}^{p-2} (i^{p-1}-1)((i+1)^{p-1} -1)$. If this is true, then clearly the problem will be finished. Now first I tried this for $p=5,7$, it works! Then I spent a (very) long time trying to play with that expression modulo $p^3$ but I could not do much at all.

I could reduce it to showing that $p^3 \nmid \sum_{i=1}^{p-2} (i^2+i)^{p-1} + p + p^2 \cdot \binom{p-1}{2} - p(p-1) - 2 \sum_{i=1}^{p-1} i^{p-1}$
but then I could do nothing more.

NOTE: I tried this problem with above mentioned approach for at least about $4-5$ hours spread out over two days. I tried to check this for $p=11$ but my calculator won't work upto that point (it just approximates the product then, which is not good for divisibility). So after working very long on this method, I gave up on this and worked through the official solution,
But still it seems like this approach should work, in fact it does for $5,7$! But as I am not very experienced, I am not able to work through this, but these expressions seem calculatable mod $p^3$ but I just am not able to do it.
So I am posting it here in the hope that someone else may be able to try it using this method (as imo, it seems pretty cool) or even check upto some larger values. If you are able to do it, please please post it here (and also PM me pls).

By the way, the official solution is sooooo coool :D !
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oVlad
1721 posts
#35 • 1 Y
Y by JG666
I knew this was Hensel's as soon as I saw it :-D

Claim: $f=X^{p-1}-1$ has precisely $p-1$ roots in $\mathbb{F}_{p^2}$

Proof: Observe that $f'=(p-1)X^{p-2}$ and thus, $f'$ doesn't have roots in $\mathbb{F}_p^\times.$ Therefore, by Hensel's Lemma, for each $i\in\mathbb{F}_p^\times$ there exists a unique $j\in \mathbb{F}_p$ such that $i+jp$ is a root of $f$ in $\mathbb{F}_{p^2}.$ Consequently, $f$ has precisely $p-1$ roots not divisible by $p$ in $\mathbb{F}_{p^2}.$ It is obvious that $pk$ is never a root of $f,$ and thus, out claim is proven. $\square$

Coming back to the problem, let's assume it is false. It then follows that each of $\{1,2\},\{2,3\},...,\{p-2,p-1\}$ has (at least) a root of $f$ in $\mathbb{F}_{p^2}.$ Hence, $f$ has at least $p-1/2$ roots in $\{1,2,...,p-1\}.$ However, if $x$ is a root then so is $-x.$

Therefore, by our claim, there are precisely $(p-1)/2$ roots in each of the intervals $[1,p-1]$ and $[p^2-p+1, p^2-1],$ and since $1$ is a root, then $3$ and $p-2$ must also be roots.

This is a clear contradiction, since $3(p-2)$ will also be a root, and $p-1<3(p-2)<p^2-p+1.$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by oVlad, Oct 21, 2021, 11:33 AM
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Assassino9931
1199 posts
#36
Y by
Probably some of the arguments can be simplified.

By veryfing $p=5$ and $p=7$ directly (both work with $a=2$), we may assume $p\geq 11$. Observe that $a=1$ is impossible so let us consider only $\{2,3,\ldots,p-2\}$.

If $g$ is a primitive root modulo $p^2$ and $x = g^k$, $1\leq k \leq \varphi(p^2) = p(p-1)$, then $x^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod {p^2}$ if and only if $g^{k(p-1)} \equiv 1 \pmod {p^2}$, which is if and only if $p(p-1) \mid k(p-1)$, i.e. $p$ divides $k$. So the number of solutions to $x^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod {p^2}$ is $\frac{p(p-1)}{p} = p-1$ which implies that the number of solutions in $\left[1,\frac{p^2-1}{2}\right]$ is $\frac{p-1}{2}$ (as if $x$ is a solution, then so is $p^2-x$ since $p-1$ is even). In particular, as $1$ is a solution and $\frac{p^2-1}{2} > p - 1$, the number of solutions in $[2,p-1]$ is at most $\frac{p-3}{2}$.

Now if we suppose, for contradiction, that the desired statement does not hold, then in $\{2,\ldots,p-1\}$, $p\geq 11$, among two consecutive elements at least one has to be a solution to $x^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod {p^2}$. So the number of solutions in this set is at least $\frac{p-3}{2}$, which equals the abovementioned upper bound. Equality is possible if and only if the solutions in $\left[2,\frac{p^2-1}{2}\right]$ are precisely $3$, $5$, $\ldots$, $p-2$. Moreover, it is clear if $x_1$ and $x_2$ are solutions to $x^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod {p^2}$, then so is $x_1x_2$ - hence $(p-2)(p-4) \equiv 8-6p$ and $6p-8$ is also a solution. However, $6p-8 > p - 2$ and $6p - 8 \leq \frac{p^2-1}{2}$ (equivalent to $p(p-12) + 15 \geq 0$ which is true for $p\geq 11$) and this is a contradiction!
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HoRI_DA_GRe8
587 posts
#39
Y by
Solution
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IceWolf10
1577 posts
#40
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Let us define set $A$ to be the set of $a$ such that $a^{p-1}\not\equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$. We would like to show that there are two elements of $A$ that are consecutive. Note that if $a\not\in A$ (i.e. if $a^{p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$), then $$(p-a)^{p-1}\equiv -\tbinom{p-1}{1}pa^{p-1}+a^{p-1}\equiv pa^{p-2}+1 \pmod{p^2}.$$It follows that in order for $(p-a)^{p-1}$ to be congruent to $1 \pmod{p^2}$, we need $pa^{p-2}\equiv 0\pmod{p^2}$, meaning that $p$ has to divide $a^{p-2}$. But $a$ is coprime to $p$, so $(p-a)\in A$ if $a\not\in A$.

We know that $1\not\in A$, so $(p-1)\in A$. Assume for the sake of contradiction that the problem statement is false. Then we must have $(p-2)\not\in A$, $(p-3)\in A$, and $(p-4)\not\in A$. If $(p-2)\not\in A$, then $(p-2)^{p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$. Then, expanding and simplifying using the binomial theorem, we get $2^{p-2}p+2^{p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$.

If $(p-4)\not\in A$, then $(p-4)^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$. Expanding and simplifying using the binomial theorem, we get $2^{p-2}+2^{2p-3}\equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$, which we can factor as $$(2^{p-1}-1)(2^{p-2}+1)\equiv 0\pmod{p^2}.$$Since $(p-2)\not\in A$, we must have $2\in A$, and so $2^{p-1}-1\not\equiv 0\pmod{p^2}$. So the only way that the above congruence could be true is if $p^2\mid 2^{p-2}+1$.

However, by Fermat's Little Theorem, we have $2^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p}$, so $2^{p-2}+1\equiv 2^{-1}+1 \pmod{p}$. Since the inverse of $2$ is $\tfrac{p+1}{2}$, we now have $2^{p-2}+1\equiv \tfrac{p+1}{2}+1 \pmod{p}$. We see that in order for $\tfrac{p+1}{2}+1\equiv 0 \pmod{p}$, we must have $3\equiv 0 \pmod{p}$. Since we are given $p\geq 5$, we have now reached a contradiction, so it is not possible for both $(p-2)\not\in A$ and $(p-4)\not\in A$, and we are done.
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Ru83n05
170 posts
#41 • 1 Y
Y by KevinYang2.71
sergei93 wrote:
I think this problem can be tackled using group theory, just that I haven't quite found the way to do so. Has anyone tried?

Let $P(x)=x^{p-1}-1$, and let $g$ be a generator of $(\mathbb{Z}/{p^2}\mathbb{Z})^{\times}$. The set of roots of $P(x)$ are precisely the $p-1$ elements of the multiplicative subgroup $G=\langle g^p \rangle$.

Given that $a$ is a root iff $-a$ is a root, the roots of the polynomial must also be $G'=\pm \{1, 3, \dots, p-2\}$ for the problem to not be true.

However, it can be verified that for $p\geq 5$, $G'$ doesn't form a group under multiplication mod $p^2$. This yields the desired contradiction. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Ru83n05, May 14, 2022, 2:21 PM
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Mogmog8
1080 posts
#42 • 2 Y
Y by centslordm, Mango247
Let $A=\{x\mid 1\le x\le p-2\land x^{p-1}\not\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}\}.$ We claim $a\not\in A$ implies $p-a\in A.$ Indeed, $$(p-a)^{p-1}\equiv a^{p-1}-\binom{p-1}{1}pa^{p-2}\equiv a^{p-1}+pa^{p-2}\pmod{p^2}.\quad(*)$$Suppose FTSOC that at most one of $a,a+1$ is an element of $A$ for all $a\in[1,p-2].$ Notice $$1\not\in A\implies p-1\in A\implies p-2\not\in A\implies 2\in A\implies 3\not\in A\implies p-3\in A\implies p-4\not\in A.$$Hence by $(*),$ $$1^2\equiv\left((p-2)^{p-1}\right)^2\equiv\left(2^{p-1}+p2^{p-2}\right)^2\equiv 2^{2(p-1)}+2\cdot 2^{p-1}\cdot p2^{p-2}\equiv 4^{p-1}+p4^{p-1}\pmod{p^2}$$and $1\equiv (p-4)^{p-1}\equiv 4^{p-1}+p4^{p-2}\pmod{p^2}.$ Therefore, $4^{p-1}+p4^{p-1}\equiv 4^{p-1}+p4^{p-2}\pmod{p^2}$ or $4^{p-1}\equiv 4^{p-2}\pmod{p}$ or $4\equiv 1\pmod{p}$ since $p>2.$ This is absurd, as it implies $p\mid 3$ and we have $p>3.$ $\square$
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IAmTheHazard
5000 posts
#43
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We consider $a=p-2$ and $a=\tfrac{p-1}{2}$. I claim that at least one of these works.
First suppose that $a=p-2$ doesn't work, i.e. one of $(p-2)^{p-1}-1$ and $(p-1)^{p-1}-1$ is divisible by $p^2$. By the Binomial Theorem,
$$(p-1)^{p-1}-1 \equiv -(p-1)p+1-1 \equiv p \pmod{p^2},$$so we would require $p^2 \mid (p-2)^{p-1}-1$. Again by the Binomial Theorem, we have
$$(p-2)^{p-1}-1 \equiv -(p-1)2^{p-2}p+2^{p-1}-1 \pmod{p^2} \implies 2^{p-1}-1 \equiv -2^{p-2}p \pmod{p^2}.$$Now we look at $a=\tfrac{p-1}{2}$. We have
$$p^2 \mid (\tfrac{p-1}{2})^{p-1}-1 \iff (p-1)^{p-1}-2^{p-1} \equiv 0 \pmod{p^2} \iff -(p-1)p+1-2^{p-1} \equiv 0 \pmod{p^2} \iff 2^{p-1}-1 \equiv p \pmod{p^2},$$but since $-2^{p-2} \not \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$, this is impossible. Likewise, $p^2 \mid (\tfrac{p+1}{2})^{p-1}-1$ is equivalent to $2^{p-1}-1 \equiv -p \pmod{p^2}$, which is also impossible, hence $a=\tfrac{p-1}{2}$ works if $a=p-2$ doesn't, so we're done. $\blacksquare$
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cj13609517288
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#44
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Solved with two hints from MONT.

Let $S$ be the set of positive integers $k$ such that $1\le k\le p-1$ and $p^2\nmid\left(k^{p-1}-1\right).$ We will first prove that at least one of $a$ and $p-a$ is in $S$.
Assume FTSOC that neither of them are in $S$. We have that $$0\equiv (p-a)^{p-1}-1\equiv -(p-1)(p)\left(a^{p-2}\right)+a^{p-1}-1\equiv p\cdot a^{p-2}\pmod{p^2},$$which is impossible because $p\nmid a$, contradiction.

Now, assume FTSOC that the wanted statement is false. Then, for every two consecutive positive integers between $1$ and $p-1$, inclusive, at most one of them is in $S$. Specifically, $\left\{\frac{p-1}{2},\frac{p+1}{2}\right\}$ must have exactly one element in $S$. Assume for now that $\frac{p+1}{2}$ is the one not in $S$(the other case is symmetric). Then, $\frac{p+3}{2}$ must be in $S$, so $\frac{p-3}{2}$ must not be in $S$. Then $\frac{p-5}{2}$ must be in $S$, etc. This makes all odd positive integers within bounds in $S$ and all even positive integers within bounds not in $S$, or vice versa. However, since $1$ is clearly in $S$, we indeed have that all odd positive integers within bounds are in $S$ and all even positive integers within bounds are not in $S$.

Now, this means that $p-2$ and $p-4$ are both in $S$. Plugging in,
$$1\equiv (p-2)^{p-1}\equiv -(p-1)(p)\left(2^{p-2}\right)+2^{p-1}\equiv p\cdot 2^{p-2}+2^{p-1}\pmod{p^2}.$$Multiplying both sides by $2$, we get that $$p+2^p\equiv2\pmod{p^2}.$$Similarly, we also have $$p+4^p\equiv4\pmod{p^2}.$$These combine to $$p+(2-p)^2\equiv p^2-3p+4\equiv4\pmod{p^2},$$which means that $p|3$, contradiction. QED.
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awesomeming327.
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#45
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Call a positive integer $0\le a\le p^2-1$ $p$-powerful if $p^2\equiv a^{p-1}-1$. If $a$ is $p$-powerful and $b$ is $p$-powerful then $ab$ is $p$-powerful. There are also at most $p-1$ $p$-powerful numbers.

Assume the opposite of what we want to prove, then $\{2k-1,2k\}$ has a $p$-powerful number for $1\le k\le \tfrac{p-1}{2}$, and since $-1$ is $p$-powerful, the additive inverse of each of those $p$-powerful is also $p$-powerful. That gives $p-1$ numbers.

However, one of the following numbers is $p$-powerful:
\[\frac{(p-2)(p-1)}{2}\]\[\frac{(p-1)(p-1)}{2}\]\[\frac{(p-2)(p+1)}{2}\]\[\frac{(p-1)(p+1)}{2}\]but none of them are between $1$ and $p-1$ or $p^2-p+1$ and $p^2-1$ inclusive. Contradiction.
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john0512
4175 posts
#46 • 1 Y
Y by Minkowsi47
Call a nonzero residue mod $p$, $a$, fortunate if $$a^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2},$$and unfortunate otherwise. We wish to show that there exist two consecutive unfortunate residues mod $p$.

Claim: At least one of $a$ and $p-a$ is unfortunate. Suppose note. Then, $$a^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$$and $$(p-a)^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}.$$However, by binomial theorem the latter is $$p(-a)^{p-2}(p-1)+a^{p-1}\pmod {p^2}.$$However, since we know that $a^{p-1}$ is 1 mod $p^2$, this means that $p(-a)^{p-2}(p-1)$ is divisible by $p^2$, which is clearly false.

Now, note that clearly 1 is fortunate. Thus, due to the claim the only possible way for there to be no two consecutive unfortunate numbers is if $a$ is unfortunate if and only if $a$ is even.

Now, this means that $p-2$ and $p-4$ are both fortunate.

Expanding out $$(p-2)^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$$using binomial theorem would give us $$p(-2)^{p-2}(p-1)+2^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$$which rearranges to $$2^{p-2}(p+2)\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}.$$Doing the same with $p-4$, we have $$4^{p-2}(p+4)\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}.$$If we square the first congruence, we get $$4^{p-2}(p^2+4p+4)\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$$$$4^{p-2}(4p+4)\equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$$However, since $4^{p-2}$ is relatively prime to $p^2$, $p+4$ and $4p+4$ are both the inverse of $4^{p-2}$ mod $p^2$. Hence, they are congruent mod $p^2$, which means that $$3p\equiv 0\pmod{p^2},$$clearly a contradiction as $p\geq5.$
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megarnie
5541 posts
#47 • 2 Y
Y by blueberryfaygo_55, KevinYang2.71
Solved with blueberryfaygo_55.

Suppose otherwise. Notice that for any $a$ with $1 \le a \le p - 1$, the terms in the binomial expansion of $(p-a)^{p-1}$ are all divisible by $p^2$ except $-p(p-1) a^{p-2}$ and $a^{p-1}$, so \[ (p-a)^{p-1} \equiv a^{p-1} - p(p-1) a^{p-2} \equiv a^{p-1}  + p a^{p-2} \pmod{p^2} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (1)\]
In particular, if $a^{p-1} \equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$, then $(p-a)^{p-1} \equiv 1 + pa^{p-2} \not \equiv 1\pmod{p^2}$. If $x, x+1$ (for $1 \le x \le p - 2$) satisfied $x^{p-1} - 1 \equiv (x+1)^{p-1} - 1 \equiv 0\pmod{p^2}$, then notice that $a = p - x - 1$ would satisfy $a^{p-1} - 1 $ and $(a+1)^{p-1} - 1$ aren't divisible by $p^2$. Thus, exactly one of $x^{p-1} - 1$ and $(x+1)^{p-1}$ is divisible by $p^2$. Since $p^2 \mid 1^{p-1} - 1$, we have that $p^2 \nmid 2^{p-1} - 1, p^2 \mid 3^{p-1} - 1 \ldots,$ so for each $1 \le x \le p - 2$, $p^2 \mid x^{p-1} - 1$ iff $x$ is odd.

Now if we plug in an even $a$ (where $2 \le a \le p - 1$) into $(1)$, we see that the LHS is $1\pmod{p^2}$, so $a^{p-1} \equiv p a^{p-2} + 1 \pmod{p^2}$ for any even $1 \le a \le p - 2$. Multiplying both sides by $a$ gives that $a^p \equiv p a^{p-1} + a \equiv a + p \pmod{p^2}$. Note that $2$ and $4$ are both at most $p - 1$, so $2^p \equiv 2 + p \pmod{p^2}$ and $4^p \equiv 4 + p \pmod{p^2}$, so $p^2 \mid (p+2)^2 - (p + 4) = p^2 + 3p$, so $p^2 \mid 3p \implies p \mid 3$, absurd.
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KevinYang2.71
409 posts
#48
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Let use work in $\mathbb{Z}/p^2\mathbb{Z}$. Assume FTSOC such $a$ does not exist. Let $G:=\{a\in\mathbb{Z}/p^2\mathbb{Z}\mid a^{p-1}=1\}=\langle g^p\rangle$ be a subgroup of $(\mathbb{Z}/p^2\mathbb{Z})^\times$, where $g$ is a primitive root of $\mathbb{Z}/p^2\mathbb{Z}$. Note that $|G|=p-1$. Since $p-1$ is even, if $a^{p-1}=1$ then $(-a)^{p-1}=1$. Hence
\[
|G\cap\{1,\ldots,p-1\}|=|G\cap\{-1,\ldots,-(p-1)\}|.
\]By the assumption, we must have $2^{p-1}=1$ or $3^{p-1}=1$ (or both). Then $2^{-1}\in G$ or $3^{-1}\in G$. Since $p\geq 5$, we have
\[
2^{-1},3^{-1}\not\in\{1,\ldots,p-1,-1,\ldots,-(p-1)\}
\]so
\[
|G\cap\{1,\ldots,p-1\}|=|G\cap\{-1,\ldots,-(p-1)\}|<\frac{p-1}{2}.
\]Since there are $\frac{p-1}{2}$ pairs $(1,2),(3,4),\ldots,(p-2,p-1)$, it follows that one of these pairs satisfies the given condition, a contradiction. $\square$
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redred123
32 posts
#51
Y by
can anyone tell me the motivation behind the TomiciO's answer
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abeot
123 posts
#52 • 1 Y
Y by centslordm
Assume FTSOC that such an $a$ does not exist. Call an $a$ bad if $p^2 \nmid a^{p-1} - 1$. So out of \[ 1, 2, \dots, p-1 \]no two consecutive numbers may be bad. Hence there are at most $\frac{p-1}{2}$ bad numbers.
Now, henceforth work in $\mathbb{F}_{p^2}$, and consider the polynomial \[ X^{p-1} - 1 = 0 \]
Claim: The roots of $X^{p-1} - 1 = 0$ in $\mathbb{F}_{p^2}$ are precisely
\[ \{ 1, 3, 5, \dots, p-2 \} \cup \{ p^2-p+2, p^2-p+4, \dots, p^2-1 \}. \]Proof. It is well known, due to Frobenius, that $X^{p-1} - 1$ has $p-1$ roots in $\mathbb{F}_{p^2}$.
Since there are at most $\frac{p-1}{2}$ bad numbers, then there are at least $\frac{p-1}{2}$ roots in $\{ 1, 2, \dots, p-1 \}$.
Yet if $a$ is a root so is $p^2 - a$. Thus there are also at least $\frac{p-1}{2}$ roots in $\{ p^2-p+1, \dots, p^2-1 \}$.
So the inequality is strict, thus there are exactly $\frac{p-1}{2}$ bad numbers. Since they cannot be consecutive, and $1$ is not bad, it follows that $2, 4, \dots, p-1$ are the bad numbers. Thus $1, 3, \dots, p-2$ are good. $\square$
But notice that \[ 1 = 3^{p-1} \implies \left( \frac 13 \right)^{p-1} \equiv 1 \]But $\frac 13 = \frac{2p^2+1}{3}$, since $p^2 \equiv 1 \pmod 3$.
Check that \[ \frac{2p^2 + 1}{3} \le p-1 \implies 2p^2 - 3p + 4 \le 0 \implies p \le 2 \]absurd, and \[ \frac{2p^2 + 1}{3} \ge p^2-p+1 \implies 0 \ge p^2-3p+2 \implies p \le 2 \]absurd again. Thus $p-1 < \frac{2p^2+1}{3} < p^2 - p + 1$, so we found another root, contradiction. $\blacksquare$
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cursed_tangent1434
558 posts
#53 • 1 Y
Y by ihategeo_1969
A messy and sloppy albeit elementary solution. This problem was rather fun and had a weird combinatorial nature about it. We say a positive integer $1 \le a \le p-2$ is good if and only $p^2 \mid a^{p-1} -1$ and bad otherwise. The following is the key claim.

Claim : For all $1 \le a \le p-2$, at most one of $a$ and $p-a$ is good.

Proof : Consider $a$ to be good. Then,
\begin{align*}
(p-a)^{p-1}-1 &\equiv p^{p-1} - \binom{p-1}{1}ap^{p-2}+\dots - \binom{p-1}{p-2}a^{p-2}p + a^{p-1} -1 \pmod{p^2}\\
& \equiv -p(p-1)a^{p-2} + a^{p-1}-1 \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \pmod{p^2}\\
& \equiv \frac{p}{a}  \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \pmod{p^2}\\
& \not \equiv 0 \pmod{p^2}
\end{align*}since $\gcd(p,a)=1$, which clearly implies that $(p-a)$ is bad.

Clearly this holds when $p=5$ (consider $a=2$) and $p=7$ (consider again $a=2$). Now, we assume that there exists some prime $p>7$ such that the desired condition is not satisfied. Then, one of 2 or 3 must be good. If 2 is good, $p-2$ is not good, which implies that $p-3$ must be good. This in turn implies that $3$ is not good, and so on. Thus, if $2$ is good, all $2\le a \le p-2$ such that $2\mid a$ must be good, and the rest must be bad. Similarly, if $3$ is good, all $3 \le a \le p-2$ such that $2\nmid a$ must be good, and the rest bad.

Case 1 : If $2$ is good, note that one of $p-3$ and $p-5$ must be a non-power of two ($p>7$). Thus, we can write this integer $a$ in the form $a=2^k l$ for positive integers $k$ and $l>1$. But then,
\[(2^kl)^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}\]and
\[(2^k)^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}\]But this implies,
\[l^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}\]which is a clear contradiction.

Case 2 : $2$ is not good but $3$ is good. Note that then,
\[2^{p-1}-1 \equiv \frac{p}{(p-2)} \pmod{p^2}\]and
\[6^{p-1}-1 \equiv \frac{p}{p-6} \pmod{p^2}\]Thus,
\[1 \equiv 3^{p-1} \equiv \frac{\left(\frac{2p-6}{p-6}\right)}{\left(\frac{2p-2}{p-2}\right)}\]which implies,
\[(p-3)(p-2) \equiv (p-6)(p-1) \pmod{p^2}\]Thus, $p^2 \mid 12p$ which is a contradiction for all primes $p >7$. Thus, this case is impossible too, indicating that our assumption that there exist no two consecutive good integers must have been false, which finishes the proof.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by cursed_tangent1434, Feb 12, 2025, 12:58 AM
Reason: typoes
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Zany9998
7 posts
#54
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Note that if $p=5$, we choose $a=2$ , therefore we can assume $p \geq 7$
Lemma : For all $x$ we have $(x+p)^p \equiv x^p \mod p^2$


Proof :Note that $(x+p)^p \equiv \sum_{i=0}^{i=p} \binom{p}{i} p^i x^{p-i} \equiv x^p + \binom{p}{1} p x^ {p-1} \equiv x^p \mod p^2$

Note that the given condition is equivalent to finding a number $a$ such that neither
$a-a^{p} $ nor $ (a+1) - (a + 1)^{p} $ is
divisible by $p^2$. Let $f(a)=a-a^p$ then note that

$f(a)+f(p-a) = p+ (a^p - (a-p)^p)$


Therefore
$f(a)+f(p-a) \equiv p \mod p^2$

Hence at least one of $f(a)$ or $f(p-a)$ is not divisible by $p^2$.

Let's suppose for the sake of contradiction that there exists a prime $p$ for which there exists no such $a$ s.t. both $f(a)$ and $f(a+1)$ are not divisible by $p^2 $ for all $ 1\leq a \leq p-2$.Now if for some $t,1\leq t \leq p-2 $ both $f(t)$ and $f(t+1)$ are divisible by $p^2$ then this implies both of $f(p-t)$ and $f(p-t-1)$ are not divisible by $p^2$ which is a contradiction, hence only one of $f(t)$ and $f(t+1)$ are divisible by $p^2$. Hence the divisibility by $p^2$ alternates and as we have $f(1)=0$ , this implies $f(a) \equiv 0 \mod p^2$ for all odd $a$ s.t. $1\leq a \leq p-1$. As
$f(a)+f(p-a) \equiv p \mod p^2$, we get $f(a) \equiv p \mod p^2$ for all even $a$ s.t. $1\leq a \leq p-1$. Therefore we have

$f(2) \equiv p \mod p^2$ , hence $2^p \equiv 2-p $ and $f(3) \equiv 0 \mod p^2$ , hence $3^p \equiv 3 \mod p^2$ and $f(6) \equiv p \mod p^2$ , hence $6^p \equiv 6-p $. So we have

$2^p \cdot 3^p \equiv 6-p \mod p^2$ , hence

$3(2-p) \equiv 6-p \mod p^2$ so $2p \equiv 0 \ mod p^2$ which is a contradiction.
Hence our original claim was true. QED
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