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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
Spring is in full swing and summer is right around the corner, what are your plans? At AoPS Online our schedule has new classes starting now through July, so be sure to keep your skills sharp and be prepared for the Fall school year! Check out the schedule of upcoming classes below.

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[list][*]April 3rd (Webinar), 4pm PT/7:00pm ET, Learning with AoPS: Perspectives from a Parent, Math Camp Instructor, and University Professor
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[*]April 22nd (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Competitive Programming at AoPS (USACO).[/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
one cyclic formed by two cyclic
CrazyInMath   8
N a minute ago by MathLuis
Source: EGMO 2025/3
Let $ABC$ be an acute triangle. Points $B, D, E$, and $C$ lie on a line in this order and satisfy $BD = DE = EC$. Let $M$ and $N$ be the midpoints of $AD$ and $AE$, respectively. Suppose triangle $ADE$ is acute, and let $H$ be its orthocentre. Points $P$ and $Q$ lie on lines $BM$ and $CN$, respectively, such that $D, H, M,$ and $P$ are concyclic and pairwise different, and $E, H, N,$ and $Q$ are concyclic and pairwise different. Prove that $P, Q, N,$ and $M$ are concyclic.
8 replies
+5 w
CrazyInMath
3 hours ago
MathLuis
a minute ago
GCD of sums of consecutive divisors
Lukaluce   3
N 2 minutes ago by MuradSafarli
Source: EGMO 2025 P1
For a positive integer $N$, let $c_1 < c_2 < ... < c_m$ be all the positive integers smaller than $N$ that are coprime to $N$. Find all $N \ge 3$ such that
\[gcd(N, c_i + c_{i + 1}) \neq 1\]for all $1 \le i \le m - 1$.
3 replies
Lukaluce
2 hours ago
MuradSafarli
2 minutes ago
sequence infinitely similar to central sequence
InterLoop   4
N 3 minutes ago by Marius_Avion_De_Vanatoare
Source: EGMO 2025/2
An infinite increasing sequence $a_1 < a_2 < a_3 < \dots$ of positive integers is called central if for every positive integer $n$, the arithmetic mean of the first $a_n$ terms of the sequence is equal to $a_n$.

Show that there exists an infinite sequence $b_1$, $b_2$, $b_3$, $\dots$ of positive integers such that for every central sequence $a_1$, $a_2$, $a_3$, $\dots$, there are infinitely many positive integers $n$ with $a_n = b_n$.
4 replies
+2 w
InterLoop
3 hours ago
Marius_Avion_De_Vanatoare
3 minutes ago
Hard number theory
truongngochieu   7
N 7 minutes ago by truongngochieu
Find all integers $a,b$ such that $a^2+a+1=7^b$
7 replies
+1 w
truongngochieu
2 hours ago
truongngochieu
7 minutes ago
No more topics!
series and factorials?
jenishmalla   9
N Apr 4, 2025 by mpcnotnpc
Source: 2025 Nepal ptst p4 of 4
Find all pairs of positive integers \( n \) and \( x \) such that
\[
1^n + 2^n + 3^n + \cdots + n^n = x!
\]
(Petko Lazarov, Bulgaria)
9 replies
jenishmalla
Mar 15, 2025
mpcnotnpc
Apr 4, 2025
series and factorials?
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G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: 2025 Nepal ptst p4 of 4
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jenishmalla
5 posts
#1 • 1 Y
Y by paintingredflagsgreen3761
Find all pairs of positive integers \( n \) and \( x \) such that
\[
1^n + 2^n + 3^n + \cdots + n^n = x!
\]
(Petko Lazarov, Bulgaria)
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by jenishmalla, Mar 15, 2025, 2:56 PM
Reason: formatting
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AshAuktober
983 posts
#2 • 1 Y
Y by paintingredflagsgreen3761
redacted, please ignore
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by AshAuktober, Mar 15, 2025, 3:01 PM
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LLL2019
834 posts
#3 • 1 Y
Y by Japnoor2411
Good problem, not too hard!

Let $p$ be a prime divisor of $n+2$. Notice that $\sum_{i=1}^p i^k \equiv 0 \pmod p$ for any positive integer $k$ that is not a multiple of $p-1$, we get that either $n$ is a multiple of $p-1$, in which case $x!+(-1)^n \equiv -1 \pmod p$, or $x!+(-1)^n \equiv 0 \pmod p$.

In the latter case, this would imply $x<p\leq n+2$, and thus $(n+1)!\geq n^n$. In particular, it would imply $n\leq 2$, giving the solution $(1,1)$.

In the former case, note that it would apply to all the prime divisors of $n+2$. Hence, all $p\lvert n+2$ give $p-1\lvert n$. Either $p=2$ is the only such prime, or $n$ is even. In the latter case, $x!\equiv -2 \pmod p$. So, by a similar logic to above, unless $n\leq 2$, the only possibility is that $n+2$ is a power of two. In this case, if $n\geq 6$, then the left hand side is $3\pmod 4$, which is a contradiction. Hence, again the only possibility is $n\leq 2$.

Thus, the only solution is $(1,1)$
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RedFireTruck
4220 posts
#4 • 1 Y
Y by Japnoor2411
Solved with Alex-131.

When n=1, we get solutions (1,0) and (1,1). We claim these are the only ones. Assume n>=2.

Note that x>n.

Taking mod 2 gives 2 | 1+0+1+... so 4 | n.

When 2^k | n, then mod 2^k gives 2^k | 1+0+1+... so 2^(k+1) | n.

Therefore, no such n>=2 exists.
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Thapakazi
58 posts
#5 • 1 Y
Y by Japnoor2411
The only pair is $(n,x) = (1,1)$. Suppose $n$ is even, and let $\nu_2(n) = k.$ Note that for $n \geq 4$, we have $x > n$. Therefore $2^{k+1} \mid x!$. Now consider the LHS mod $2^{k+1}$. As $\varphi(2^{k+1}) = 2^k$, for all $1 \leq a \leq n$ we have

\[a ^ n \equiv \begin{cases}
                        0 \pmod {2^{k+1}} & \text{if } 2 \mid a \\
                        1 \pmod {2^{k+1}} & \text{otherwise.}
                    \end{cases}\]Therefore,

\[1^n + 2^n + 3^n + \cdots + n^n \equiv \frac{n}{2} \not\equiv 0 \pmod {2^{k+1}},\]
which is a contradiciton. Therefore we get that $n$ is odd. Consider LHS mod $n-1$. We notice that

\[\left(\frac{n-1}{2}\right)^n + 1 \equiv x! \equiv 0 \pmod {n-1}.\]
But as $\frac{n-1}{2} \mid n-1$, we know

\[\frac{n-1}{2} \Biggm| \left(\frac{n-1}{2}\right)^n + 1 \implies \frac{n-1}{2} \mid 1.\]
So, $n - 1 = 2 \implies n = 3$, which does not work. Therefore, we have $n \leq 3$. Checking each case by hand we see that $n = 1$ gives $x = 1$ and hence we are done. :love:
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Tony_stark0094
60 posts
#6 • 1 Y
Y by Japnoor2411
assume$\ n>5$
The condition is equivalent to $n!|1^n+2^n+\cdots+ n^n$
$case:1$ n is even
we can fix $2^k|n \implies 2^{k+1}|n $
which means $only \ even \ n\ is \ n=0$
$ case:2$ n is odd
we can find that $n=3$ is the only odd satisfying given condition
on checking it does not work so the only solution is $x=n=1$
Click to reveal hidden text
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Maximilian113
536 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Japnoor2411, mpcnotnpc
Suppose that $\ell = v_2(n) \geq 1.$ Then mod $2^\ell$ yields, by Euler's Theorem, $$x! \equiv 1+0+1+\cdots+0 \equiv \frac{n}{2} \equiv 2^{\ell-1} \pmod{2^\ell}.$$So $$\ell-1 = v_2(x!) > v_2(n!) = \ell,$$contradiction. Hence $n$ is odd. But if $n \geq 6,$ $x > n+1,$ so by pairing $$0 \equiv x! \equiv 1^n+(n^n+2^n)+((n-1)^n+3^n)+\cdots \equiv 1 \pmod {n+2},$$contradiction. So $n=1, 3, 5$ and testing yields the only solution $\boxed{(n, x) = (1, 1)}.$
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mpcnotnpc
51 posts
#8 • 1 Y
Y by fAaAtDoOoG
How do you guys motivate considering modulo $n+2$ though?
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Maximilian113
536 posts
#9
Y by
mpcnotnpc wrote:
How do you guys motivate considering modulo $n+2$ though?

I don't think anyone above me did mod $n+2,$ but for me it was motivated by sum of powers and pairing to cancel things out, as $n$ is odd.
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mpcnotnpc
51 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Maximilian113, fAaAtDoOoG
Maximilian113 wrote:
mpcnotnpc wrote:
How do you guys motivate considering modulo $n+2$ though?

I don't think anyone above me did mod $n+2,$ but for me it was motivated by sum of powers and pairing to cancel things out, as $n$ is odd.

I see. Thank you!
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