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k a My Retirement & New Leadership at AoPS
rrusczyk   1571
N Mar 26, 2025 by SmartGroot
I write today to announce my retirement as CEO from Art of Problem Solving. When I founded AoPS 22 years ago, I never imagined that we would reach so many students and families, or that we would find so many channels through which we discover, inspire, and train the great problem solvers of the next generation. I am very proud of all we have accomplished and I’m thankful for the many supporters who provided inspiration and encouragement along the way. I'm particularly grateful to all of the wonderful members of the AoPS Community!

I’m delighted to introduce our new leaders - Ben Kornell and Andrew Sutherland. Ben has extensive experience in education and edtech prior to joining AoPS as my successor as CEO, including starting like I did as a classroom teacher. He has a deep understanding of the value of our work because he’s an AoPS parent! Meanwhile, Andrew and I have common roots as founders of education companies; he launched Quizlet at age 15! His journey from founder to MIT to technology and product leader as our Chief Product Officer traces a pathway many of our students will follow in the years to come.

Thank you again for your support for Art of Problem Solving and we look forward to working with millions more wonderful problem solvers in the years to come.

And special thanks to all of the amazing AoPS team members who have helped build AoPS. We’ve come a long way from here:IMAGE
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rrusczyk
Mar 24, 2025
SmartGroot
Mar 26, 2025
k a March Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Mar 2, 2025
March is the month for State MATHCOUNTS competitions! Kudos to everyone who participated in their local chapter competitions and best of luck to all going to State! Join us on March 11th for a Math Jam devoted to our favorite Chapter competition problems! Are you interested in training for MATHCOUNTS? Be sure to check out our AMC 8/MATHCOUNTS Basics and Advanced courses.

Are you ready to level up with Olympiad training? Registration is open with early bird pricing available for our WOOT programs: MathWOOT (Levels 1 and 2), CodeWOOT, PhysicsWOOT, and ChemWOOT. What is WOOT? WOOT stands for Worldwide Online Olympiad Training and is a 7-month high school math Olympiad preparation and testing program that brings together many of the best students from around the world to learn Olympiad problem solving skills. Classes begin in September!

Do you have plans this summer? There are so many options to fit your schedule and goals whether attending a summer camp or taking online classes, it can be a great break from the routine of the school year. Check out our summer courses at AoPS Online, or if you want a math or language arts class that doesn’t have homework, but is an enriching summer experience, our AoPS Virtual Campus summer camps may be just the ticket! We are expanding our locations for our AoPS Academies across the country with 15 locations so far and new campuses opening in Saratoga CA, Johns Creek GA, and the Upper West Side NY. Check out this page for summer camp information.

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following events:
[list][*]March 5th (Wednesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, HCSSiM Math Jam 2025. Amber Verser, Assistant Director of the Hampshire College Summer Studies in Mathematics, will host an information session about HCSSiM, a summer program for high school students.
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0 replies
jlacosta
Mar 2, 2025
0 replies
Polynomials
Pao_de_sal   2
N 13 minutes ago by ektorasmiliotis
find all natural numbers n such that the polynomial x²ⁿ + xⁿ + 1 is divisible by x² + x + 1
2 replies
Pao_de_sal
30 minutes ago
ektorasmiliotis
13 minutes ago
April Fools Geometry
awesomeming327.   2
N 37 minutes ago by avinashp
Let $ABC$ be an acute triangle with $AB<AC$, and let $D$ be the projection from $A$ onto $BC$. Let $E$ be a point on the extension of $AD$ past $D$ such that $\angle BAC+\angle BEC=90^\circ$. Let $L$ be on the perpendicular bisector of $AE$ such that $L$ and $C$ are on the same side of $AE$ and
\[\frac12\angle ALE=1.4\angle ABE+3.4\angle ACE-558^\circ\]Let the reflection of $D$ across $AB$ and $AC$ be $W$ and $Y$, respectively. Let $X\in AW$ and $Z\in AY$ such that $\angle XBE=\angle ZCE=90^\circ$. Let $EX$ and $EZ$ intersect the circumcircles of $EBD$ and $ECD$ at $J$ and $K$, respectively. Let $LB$ and $LC$ intersect $WJ$ and $YK$ at $P$ and $Q$. Let $PQ$ intersect $BC$ at $F$. Prove that $FB/FC=DB/DC$.
2 replies
awesomeming327.
Today at 2:52 PM
avinashp
37 minutes ago
inequalities
Cobedangiu   2
N 44 minutes ago by ehuseyinyigit
Source: own
$a,b>0$ and $a+b=1$. Find min P:
$P=\sqrt{\frac{1-a}{1+7a}}+\sqrt{\frac{1-b}{1+7b}}$
2 replies
Cobedangiu
3 hours ago
ehuseyinyigit
44 minutes ago
very cute geo
rafaello   3
N an hour ago by bin_sherlo
Source: MODSMO 2021 July Contest P7
Consider a triangle $ABC$ with incircle $\omega$. Let $S$ be the point on $\omega$ such that the circumcircle of $BSC$ is tangent to $\omega$ and let the $A$-excircle be tangent to $BC$ at $A_1$. Prove that the tangent from $S$ to $\omega$ and the tangent from $A_1$ to $\omega$ (distinct from $BC$) meet on the line parallel to $BC$ and passing through $A$.
3 replies
rafaello
Oct 26, 2021
bin_sherlo
an hour ago
No more topics!
APMO 2016: Functional equation
shinichiman   43
N Oct 22, 2024 by Matricy
Source: APMO 2016, problem 5
Find all functions $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \to \mathbb{R}^+$ such that
$$(z + 1)f(x + y) = f(xf(z) + y) + f(yf(z) + x),$$for all positive real numbers $x, y, z$.

Fajar Yuliawan, Indonesia
43 replies
shinichiman
May 16, 2016
Matricy
Oct 22, 2024
APMO 2016: Functional equation
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: APMO 2016, problem 5
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shinichiman
3212 posts
#1 • 8 Y
Y by acegikmoqsuwy2000, Davi-8191, tenplusten, UzbekMathematician, megarnie, A-Thought-Of-God, Adventure10, Mango247
Find all functions $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \to \mathbb{R}^+$ such that
$$(z + 1)f(x + y) = f(xf(z) + y) + f(yf(z) + x),$$for all positive real numbers $x, y, z$.

Fajar Yuliawan, Indonesia
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by MellowMelon, May 18, 2017, 3:31 AM
Reason: add proposer
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Gurtonn
33 posts
#2 • 6 Y
Y by seanlee0907, UK2019Project, megarnie, Wizard0001, Vladimir_Djurica, Adventure10
if $x=y$ we get $2f(xf(z)+x)=(z+1)f(2x) \Rightarrow f(xf(z)+x)=\frac{z+1}{2} \cdot f(2x)$ therefore if $a > \frac{1}{2}$ and $b\in Im(f)$ then $ab \in Im(f)$, Proving that $f$ is surjective.
let $a$ be a number s.t $f(a) = 1$, then $(a+1)f(x+y) = f(xf(a)+y)+f(yf(a)+x)= 2f(x+y) \Rightarrow a=1$, so $f(1) = 1$
then $z+1 = (z+1)f(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2})=2f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2}) \Rightarrow f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2}) = \frac{z+1}{2}$
substituting $z=\frac{z+1}{2}$ we get $f(\frac{z+3}{4})=\frac{z+3}{4}$, so for $x>\frac{3}{4}, f(x)=x$.
let $z$ be any number, and $x,y$ sufficiently big numbers so $x+y,xf(z)+y,yf(z)+x > \frac{3}{4}$, then:
$(z+1)(x+y)=(z+1)f(x+y)=f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)=xf(z)+y+yf(z)+x =(f(z)+1)(x+y) \Rightarrow f(z) = z$
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62861
3564 posts
#3 • 6 Y
Y by TheDarkPrince, megarnie, Aryan-23, A-Thought-Of-God, quirtt, Adventure10
Basically what I submitted on the actual APMO.

Solution
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trungnghia215
346 posts
#4 • 4 Y
Y by vietanhpbc, Krdsss, Adventure10, Mango247
Here is my solution i found. Quite similar as above :P
This post has been edited 7 times. Last edited by trungnghia215, May 17, 2016, 12:33 PM
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math90
1474 posts
#5 • 3 Y
Y by Eray, Adventure10, Mango247
Solution
This post has been edited 6 times. Last edited by math90, Jun 13, 2016, 8:47 AM
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Ferid.---.
1008 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
$\boxed{Solution}$
$(z+1)f(a+b)=f(a\cdot f(z)+b)+f(b\cdot f(z)+a)$
$i)x\cdot f(z)+y=M$
$i)a\cdot f(z)+b=K$
$ii)y\cdot f(z)+x=N$
$ii)b\cdot f(z)+a=L$
We know, $M+N=K+L$ $x+y=a+b$
Then.... $x\cdot f(z)=M-y$ and
$a\cdot f(z)=K-b$
Then: $f(z)(x-a)=M+b-K-y$
$\boxed{Case1:}$
$a=b$ and $x=y$
Then. $x\cdot (f(z)+1)=M$
$a\cdot (f(z)+1)=K$ Then $M+K=(f(z)+1)(a+x)$
$\boxed{Case2:}$
$b=a$ and $y=x$ then
$y\cdot (f(z)+1)=N$
$b\cdot (f(z)+1)=L$
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navi_09220114
475 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Lengthy solution incoming... too bad i didnt found it during the contest :( I will edit the latex later.. (Edit: latex editted)

$x=y$, $[(z+1)/2]*f(2x)=f(xf(z)+x)$.
say $f(u)=f(v), z=u, z=v$, then $(u+1)f(x+y)=(v+1)f(x+y)$=> $u=v$ since $f(x+y)>0$.
So f injective..........(1)
$x=y, (z+1)f(2x)=2f(xf(z)+x)$ => $[(z+1)/2]f(2x)=f(x(f(z)+1))$..........(2)
$x=1, [(z+1)/2]f(2)=f(f(z)+1)$ => f is surjective on $(1/2*f(2), +\infty)$.
For any fixed $z<1$, take any $t \in (1/2*f(2), +\infty)$, take $a$ s.t $f(2a)=t$.
Then $[(z+1)/2]t=[(z+1)/2]f(2a)=f(xf(a)+x)$ => $[(z+1)/2]t$ is also in $Im(f)$.
So $t \in Im(f)$ => $[(z+1)/2]t \in Im(f)$ => ... => $[[(z+1)/2]^k]t \in Im(f)$.
But $z<1$ then $[[(z+1)/2]^k]t$ can be arbitarily small, but it is in $Im(f)$.
So f is surjective on postive reals, ie f is bijective..........(3)
Suppose there is an $b\in R+$ so that $f(b)=1$.
Take $z=b, x=y$, then $(b+1)f(2x)=2f(xf(a)+x)=2f(x)$ => $b=1$, since $f(2x)>0$.
But such $a$ must also exist by bijectivity.
So $f(a)=1 \iff a=1$, in particular $f(1)=1$..........(4)
Look at (2), take $x=\frac{1}{2}$ and $x=\frac{1}{(f(z)+1)}$ at (2).
We have $f(\frac{2}{[f(z)+1]})=\frac{2}{(z+1)}$ and $f(\frac{[f(z)+1]}{2})=\frac{(z+1)}{2}$.
$f(z)+\frac{1}{2}$ can take any value from $(\frac{1}{2},+\infty)$.
So for any $w \in (\frac{1}{2},+\infty)$, exist $z$ s.t $\frac{[f(z)+1]}{2}=w$
So this gives $f(1/w)=2/(z+1)=1/[(z+1)/2]=1/f(w)$ for all $w \in (\frac{1}{2},+\infty)$
If now $x<\frac{1}{2}$, then we can take $w=1/x$, then $f(1/x)f(x)=1$, same equation.
So this means $f(x)f(1/x)=1$ for all $x\in R+$..........(5)

In (2) again, $x=f(t), z=1/t$, then $(t+1)f(2f(t))=2tf(f(t)f(1/t)+f(t))$
By (5), $(t+1)f(2f(t))=2tf(f(t)+1)=t*(t+1)f(t)$ => $f(2f(t))=tf(2)$.........(6)
For any $p \in (\frac{1}{2}, +\infty)$ we can choose $z$ s.t $p=[f(z)+1]/2$.
Then $f(2p)=f(f(z)+1)=[(z+1)/2]f(2)=f(2)[(z+1)/2]=f(2)f([f(z)+1]/2)=f(2)f(p)$.
So $f(2p)=f(2)f(p)$ for all $p \in (\frac{1}{2}, +\infty)$.
So in fact $f(2p)=f(2)f(p)$ for all $p \in R+$..........(7) (By using similar idea like (5).)
So $xf(2)=f(2f(x))=f(f(x))f(2)$ => $f(f(x))=x$ for all $x \in R+$..........(8)
Now we replace (*) by taking $x=a, y=b, z=f(c)$, we ignore $x,y,z$ from now.
We get $[f(c)+1]f(a+b)=f(ac+b)+f(bc+a)$ for all $a, b, c \in R+$..........(**)
Take $a=b=1, [f(c)+1]f(2)=2f(c+1)$..........(9)
Let $f(2)=k$, then by (7), $f(4)=f(2)^2=k^2$.
But we use (9) on $c=2$, then $a(a+1)=2f(3)$ => $f(3)=a(a+1)/2$.
And (9) on $c=3$, then $a^2=f(4)=a[a(a+1)/2+1]/2$ => $2a=[a(a+1)/2]+1$.
Solve, then we get $4a-2=a(a+1)$ => $a^2-3a+2=0$ => $a=1$ or $a=2$.
But if $a=1$, then $f(2)=1=f(1)$, contradiction with (3).
So $a=2$, so $f(2)=2$............(10)
So (9) becomes $f(z)+1=f(z+1)$ for all $z \in R+$.
So $f(z)+n=f(z+n)$ for all $n \in N$, $z \in R+$............(11)
Collary of (11) is $f(n)=n$ for all $n \in N$.
In (**), take $a=b \in N$ and use (11), then $[f(c)+1][2a]=2[f(ac)+a]$.
So $af(c)=f(ac)$ for all $a \in N, c \in R+$............(12)
Collary of (12) is $f(q)=q$ for all $q \in Q+$, by taking $c=p/q, a=q$.
In (**) again, choose $a=b$, by (11) we have $2f(a)=f(2)f(a)=f(2a)$.
So $2f(ac+a)=[f(c)+1]f(2a)=2[f(c)+1]f(a)$ => $f(ac+a)=f(a)f(c)+f(a)$.
Now for any $d>0$, take $e=d/x$, then $f(x+d)=f(x+xe)=f(x)f(e)+f(x)>f(x)$.
So $f(x+d)>f(x)$ for all $d>0$ => f is strictly increasing.........(13)
Now suppose $r \in R+$ and $f(r)<r$, we can take some $q\in Q+$ with $f(r)<q<r$.
So $f(r)<q=f(q)$ while $q<r$, false by (13).
For $f(r)>r$, this is handled similarly.
So it must be $f(r)=r$ for all $r\in R+$
Check: $(z+1)(x+y)=(xz+y)+(yz+x)$, good.
Only Solution: $f(x)=x$ for all $x\in R+$
This post has been edited 14 times. Last edited by navi_09220114, Jun 13, 2016, 9:05 AM
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Tintarn
9029 posts
#8 • 7 Y
Y by GoJensenOrGoHome, Kirilbangachev, UzbekMathematician, Mobashereh, oneteen11, Adventure10, Mango247
Just for completeness: Here is the solution I posted in a similar thread a month ago...before it was deleted :-D
Solution
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elVerde
25 posts
#9 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, DeathIsAwe
Lengthy solution, core idea is: prove that $f$ is increasing and has infinitely many fixed points.
Solution
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flyingpurplepeopleeater
333 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
ugh nonnegatives to nonnegatives is so ez i cant read
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Aditya_43
7 posts
#11 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
navi_09220114. Why do you know that the function f is surjective on ([Z+1]/2×f(2), infinity)?
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navi_09220114
475 posts
#12 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Opps sorry, that was a typo, i meant $(\frac{1}{2}f(2),+\infty)$. :)

Its because for any $x$ in that interval, we can find some $z>0$ with $f(f(z)+1)=\frac{(z+1)}{2} \cdot f(2)=x$, so $x \in Im(f)$ for these $x$.
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joshy0604
12 posts
#14 • 4 Y
Y by CANBANKAN, BALAMATDA, Adventure10, Mango247
Gurtonn wrote:
if $x=y$ we get $2f(xf(z)+x)=(z+1)f(2x) \Rightarrow f(xf(z)+x)=\frac{z+1}{2} \cdot f(2x)$ therefore if $a > \frac{1}{2}$ and $b\in Im(f)$ then $ab \in Im(f)$, Proving that $f$ is surjective.
let $a$ be a number s.t $f(a) = 1$, then $(a+1)f(x+y) = f(xf(a)+y)+f(yf(a)+x)= 2f(x+y) \Rightarrow a=1$, so $f(1) = 1$
then $z+1 = (z+1)f(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2})=2f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2}) \Rightarrow f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2}) = \frac{z+1}{2}$
substituting $z=\frac{z+1}{2}$ we get $f(\frac{z+3}{4})=\frac{z+3}{4}$, so for $x>\frac{3}{4}, f(x)=x$.
let $z$ be any number, and $x,y$ sufficiently big numbers so $x+y,xf(z)+y,yf(z)+x > \frac{3}{4}$, then:
$(z+1)(x+y)=(z+1)f(x+y)=f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)=xf(z)+y+yf(z)+x =(f(z)+1)(x+y) \Rightarrow f(z) = z$

I'm afraid the fifth line is wrong. How can you get $f(\frac{z+3}{4})=\frac{z+3}{4}$ ?
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by joshy0604, Feb 22, 2017, 12:17 PM
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YaWNeeT
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#15 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Hope I'm correct

If there is a sequence $a_n>0$ satisfies:
1.$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}a_n=0$
2.$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}f(a_n)=\infty$
We can WLOG assume all $a_n<1$ by forgetting first few terms, plug in $y=1-x,z=a_n$ in the original equation we can get:
\[f(xf(a_n)+(1-x))<(a_n+1)f(1)<2f(1)\]Which tells us $f((1,f(a_n)))$ bounded by $2f(1)$, take $n$ goes to infinite and get $f((1,\infty))$ is bounded by $2f(1)$, but if we take $x>1,y>1$ and $z$ very large in the original equation, RHS is smaller than $4f(1)$, but LHS can be arbitrary large, hence we get a contradiction!

Which tells us such sequence $a_n$ don't exist, hence $\limsup_{x\rightarrow 0^+}f(x)$ exist.

Assume $\limsup_{x\rightarrow 0^+}f(x)=k$, then we can find a sequence $x_n>0$ such that:
1.$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}x_n=0$
2.$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}f(x_n)=k$
Plug in $x=y=\frac{x_n}{2}$ and take $n\rightarrow\infty$, we'll get
\[(z+1)k=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(z+1)f(x_n)=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}2f(x_nf(z)+x_n)\leq 2k\]So $k=0$, and hence $\lim_{z\rightarrow 0^+}f(z)=0$.

$f(x+y)\geq \frac{f(xf(z)+y)}{1+z} $
If exist $a>b, f(a)<f(b)$
solve $x+y=a,xf(z)+y=b$
$x=\frac{a-b}{1-f(z)}$
$y=\frac{b-af(z)}{1-f(z)}$
and by $\lim_{z\rightarrow 0}f(z)=0$
we can choose $z$ very small and $f(z)$ very small and get a contradiction!
so $f$ is an increasing function.
take $z\rightarrow 0$ and let $g(x)=\lim_{h\rightarrow 0^+}f(x+h)$ we have
$f(x+y)=g(x)+g(y)$
take $y$ as $y+\varepsilon$ and $\varepsilon\rightarrow 0^+$
$g(x+y)=g(x)+g(y), g\geq 0$ so $g(x)=cx$ and then $f(x)=cx$ and get $c=1$
This post has been edited 7 times. Last edited by YaWNeeT, Oct 29, 2017, 2:42 AM
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randomusername
1059 posts
#16 • 5 Y
Y by anantmudgal09, Ankoganit, Superguy, sa2001, Adventure10
shinichiman wrote:
Find all functions $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \to \mathbb{R}^+$ such that
$$(z + 1)f(x + y) = f(xf(z) + y) + f(yf(z) + x),$$for all positive real numbers $x, y, z$.

Plug in $x=y$ to find that
\[
(z+1)f(2x)=2f\big(xf(z)+x\big).\qquad (1).
\]Clearly, $f$ is injective, and running $z$ over $\mathbb{R}^+$ in $(1)$, we see that $f$ attains every value $>\frac{f(2x)}{2}$, $\forall x$, from which it can easily be deduced that $\inf f=0$, so $f$ is surjective. If $f(z)=1$, then $(1)$ gives $z=1$; since $f$ is bijective, $f(1)=1$ follows.


Putting $x=\frac12$ in $(1)$ yields $f\left(\frac{f(z)+1}{2}\right)=\frac{z+1}{2}$. Plugging $z=\frac{f(4x-3)+1}{2}$ into this and rearranging gives $f(4x-3)=4f(x)-3$ whenever $x>\frac34$. Hence,
\[
\boxed{f(x)>\frac34\text{ if }x>\frac34.}
\]
Moreover, $(1)$ shows that $\frac{f(cX)}{f(X)}$ is constant whenever $c=\frac{f(z)+1}{2}$. Due to surjectivity, $\frac{f(cX)}{f(X)}$ is actually constant for all $c>1$ (and thus for all $c<1$, too). Therefore, using $f(1)=1$, we get $\boxed{f(a)f(b)=f(ab)}$.

The two boxed statements imply that $h(x)=\ln f(e^x)$ must be linear by Cauchy's equation, and so $f(x)=x^\alpha$ for some $\alpha\in\mathbb{R}$. Finally, from $(1)$ for $x=1$, we get the identity $(X+1)2^\alpha=2(X^\alpha+1)^\alpha$. The finishing touches: injectivity and $f(x)>\frac34$ if $x>\frac34$ imply $0<\alpha\le 1$; then taking the limit of both sides as $X\to 0$ shows $\alpha=1$. Therefore, $f(x)=x$ for all $x$, done. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by randomusername, Apr 1, 2018, 10:10 AM
Reason: simplified finish of proof
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Tommy2000
715 posts
#17 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Suppose $f(z_1) = f(z_2)$. Then throw in $z_1$ and $z_2$. The RHS remains invariant, and the LHS changes, so this is a contradiction. Thus $f$ is injective.

Take $z = 1, x = y$ to obtain $f(2x) = f(xf(z)+x)$. If $f(z) \neq 1$, then $f$ is not injective, so $f(1) = 1$.

Now if we fix $x = y$ and vary $z$, we see that if $f(2x) = k$, then we can attain any value in $(k/2, \inf)$ by varying $z$, so $f$ is surjective.

Now let $a = xf(z) + y, b = yf(z) + x$. Then the original equation rearranges to $f(a) + f(b) = (z + 1) f( (a + b) / (1 + f(z)))$. In particular, for $z = 1$ we get Jensen's FE. Take $g(x) = f(x + 1) - 1$ with domain and range $(-1, \inf)$. Then we know $g(a) + g(b) = g(a + b)$. Observe that if $g(x_0) < 0$ for some $x_0 > 0$, we would die because $\lim_{k \rightarrow \inf} g(kx_0) \rightarrow -\inf$ by additive, which contradicts the fact that the range is $(-c, \inf)$. Hence, $g(x) \ge 0$ for $x > 0$. Now if we take any $b > 0$, we get $g(a) + g(b) = g(a + b)$, but $g(b) > 0$ by injectivity so $g(a) < g(a + b)$. This implies $g$ is increasing. Since $g$ is increasing and additive, it follows that it is linear by using the density of the rationals in the reals.

So $f$ is also linear. I'm too lazy to find the answer.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Tommy2000, Mar 18, 2017, 3:48 PM
Reason: Typo luv
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ABCDE
1963 posts
#18 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Here is a relatively clean solution. The only function is $f(x)=x$, which clearly is a solution to the equation.

First, note that $f$ is injective. Indeed, setting $z=z_1$ and $z=z_2$ and supposing that $f(z_1)=f(z_2)=c$ gives that $z_1=z_2=\frac{f(cx+y)+f(cy+x)}{f(x+y)}-1$.

Next, setting $x=y=z=1$ gives $2f(2)=2f(f(1)+1)$, so by injectivity $f(1)=1$.

Now, setting $x=y$ gives $(z+1)f(2x)=2f(x(f(z)+1))$, so for any $u$ in the range of $f$, $\frac{u(z+1)}2$ is also in the range of $f$ for any $z$. Surjectivity easily follows.

Suppose that $a$ and $b$ are distinct positive reals. Setting $x=\frac{af(z)-b}{f(z)^2-1}$ and $y=\frac{bf(z)-a}{f(z)^2-1}$ with $1\ne f(z)\in\left(\frac ab,\frac ba\right)$ gives that $(z+1)f\left(\frac{a+b}{f(z)+1}\right)=f(a)+f(b)$. Taking $z$ with $|f(z)-1|<\epsilon$ for a sufficiently small $\epsilon$ gives that $f(a)+f(b)=f(c)+f(d)$ for any $a\ne b,c\ne d$ with $a+b=c+d$.

In particular, we have for $x$ and $y$ distinct that $f(4x)+f(x+3y)=f(3x+y)+f(2x+2y)$ and $f(3x+y)+f(4y)=f(2x+2y)+f(x+3y)$. Adding gives $f(4x)+f(4y)=2f(2x+2y)$, so $f(x)+f(y)=2f\left(\frac{x+y}2\right)$ for all $x,y\in\mathbb R^+$. Thus, $f(a)+f(b)=f(c)+f(d)$ for any $a+b=c+d$, so for any rationals $q$ and $r$ with $qx+ry>0$ and $q+r=1$ we have that $qf(x)+rf(y)=f(qx+ry)$. In other words, given two distinct numbers $a,b,c$, $(c,f(c))$ will lie on the line through $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b))$ provided that $c$ is a rationally weighted average of $a$ and $b$. If such a line has a positive root, there is some interval in which it is negative, so we can rationally weight $a$ and $b$ into that interval resulting as $\mathbb Q$ is dense in $\mathbb R$ resulting in a negative output of the function, a contradiction. Hence, all such lines must have nonpositive roots. In particular, this means that $f$ is increasing and that $x>1\implies f(x)\le x$ and $x<1\implies f(x)\ge x$.

Finally, take $x+y=1$ and $z>1\implies 1<f(z)\le z$. Then, $z+1=(z+1)f(x+y)=f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)\le xf(z)+y+yf(z)+x=f(z)+1$ as $xf(z)+y,yf(z)+x>1$, so $f(z)\ge z$. This means that $f(z)=z$ for $z>1$. Setting $z>1$ in $(z+1)f(2x)=2f(x(f(z)+1))$ gives that $(z+1)f(2x)=2f(x(z+1))$, so $f(x)=x\implies f\left(\frac{2x}{z+1}\right)=\frac{2x}{z+1}$ for all $z>1,x$, implying that $f(x)=x$ for all $x\in\mathbb R$.

@below thanks for pointing out the error :)
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by ABCDE, Feb 25, 2018, 12:17 AM
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WizardMath
2487 posts
#19 • 3 Y
Y by sabkx, Adventure10, Mango247
ABCDE wrote:
$f\left(\frac2{f(z)+1}\right)=\frac2{z+1}$. This means that $f$ is surjective.
I can't understand how this covers all reals, as $z>0$ gives only reals in $(0,2)$. :(
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ThE-dArK-lOrD
4071 posts
#21 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
As usual, let $P(x,y,z)$ denote $(z+1)f(x + y) = f(xf(z) + y) + f(yf(z) + x)$ for all $x,y,z\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
First, it's not hard to see that $f$ is surjective on $\mathbb{R}^+$.
For all $t,x,y,z\in \mathbb{R}^+$, $P(t+x,y,z)$ and $P(x,t+y,z)$ gives us
$$Q(t,x,y,z): f(tf(z)+xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)=(z+1)f(t+x+y)=f(xf(z)+y)+f(tf(z)+yf(z)+x).$$Now, for any $A,B,C\in \mathbb{R}^+$, since $f$ is surjective, there exists $r\in \mathbb{R}^+$ that $f(r)>\max \{ \frac{A}{B},1,\frac{B}{A}\}$.
Let $p=\frac{Af(r)-B}{f(r)^2-1}$ and $q=\frac{Bf(r)-A}{f(r)^2-1}$, both are positive real numbers. There also exists $s\in \mathbb{R}^+$ that $s=\frac{C}{f(r)}$.
It's not hard to verify that $A=pf(r)+q,B=qf(r)+p,$ and $C=sf(r)$.
Then, $Q(s,p,q,r)$ gives us $f(C+A)-f(A)=f(C+B)-f(B)$.

This means that, for all $c\in \mathbb{R}^+$, there exists $g(c) \in \mathbb{R}$ that $f(c+x)-f(x)=g(c)$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
Since, for all $c,d\in \mathbb{R}^+$, $g(c+d)=f(c+d+1)-f(1)=\left( f(c+d+1)-f(d+1)\right) +\left( f(d+1)-f(1)\right)$.
We get $g(c+d)=g(c)+g(d)$ for all $c,d\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
$P(x,y+c,z)$ gives us $$(z+1)g(c)+(z+1)f(x+y)=g(c)+f(xf(z)+y)+f(cf(z)+yf(z)+x)$$for all $x,y,z,c\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
So, combining with $P(x,y,z)$, we get $$zg(c)+f(yf(z)+x)=f(cf(z)+yf(z)+x)\implies g(cf(z))=zg(c)$$for all $x,y,z,c\in \mathbb{R}^+$.

Hence, $f(xf(z)+y)=f(y)+g(xf(z))=f(y)+zg(x)$ and $f(yf(z)+x)=f(x)+g(yg(z))=f(x)+zg(y)$ for all $x,y,z\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
So, $P(x,y,z)$ becomes
$$zf(x+y)+f(x+y)=z\left( g(x)+g(y)\right) +\left( f(x)+f(y)\right)$$for all $x,y,z\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
This easily gives $f(x+y)=g(x)+g(y)=g(x+y)$ and $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ for all $x,y\in \mathbb{R}^+$.

Back to $g(cg(z))=g(cf(z))=zg(c)$ for all $z,c\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
Note that we also have verified that $g(z)=f(z)\in \mathbb{R}^+$ for all $z\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
We get $g(g(c)g(z))=zg(g(c))$, and similarly, $g(g(c)g(z))=cg(g(z))$ for all $z,c\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
Hence, there exists $\ell \in \mathbb{R}^+$ that $g(g(x))=x\ell$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
Hence, $g(\ell cz)=g(cg(g(z)))=g(z)g(c)$ for all $z,c\in \mathbb{R}^+$. In other words, $g(ab/\ell ) =g(a/\ell )g(b/\ell )$ for all $a,b\in \mathbb{R}^+$.

Let $h:\mathbb{R}^+\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^+$ be a function defined by $h(x)=g(x/\ell )$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
Easy to verify that $h$ is both multiplicative and additive, so $h$ must be identity function. So, $f(x)=g(x)=x\ell$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^+$.
Plugging in the initial problem gives $f(x)=x$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^+$, which, hence, is the only solution.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by ThE-dArK-lOrD, Mar 6, 2019, 1:46 PM
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math_pi_rate
1218 posts
#22 • 7 Y
Y by MABR, govind7701, Mobashereh, AlastorMoody, A-Thought-Of-God, Adventure10, Mango247
Nice problem!!

My solution:

Let $P(x,y,z)$ denote the given assertion.

LEMMA-1: $f$ is injective.

PROOF

LEMMA-2: $f(1) = 1$

PROOF

LEMMA-3: $f$ is surjective.

PROOF

LEMMA-4: $f\left(\frac{1}{x} \right) = \frac{1}{f(x)}$

PROOF

LEMMA-5: $f$ is multiplicative.

PROOF

LEMMA-6: $f$ is involutive, i.e. $f(f(x)) = x \text{ } \forall x \in \mathbb{R^+}$

PROOF

LEMMA-7: $f(2) = 2$

PROOF

LEMMA-8: $f$ is additive.

PROOF

LEMMA-9: $f(x) = x$

PROOF

Hence, done :trampoline: :trampoline: :trampoline:
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by math_pi_rate, Jun 25, 2018, 5:16 PM
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Pathological
578 posts
#23 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
We claim that the only solution is $f(x) \equiv x$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}^{+}.$ It is trivial to verify that this solution indeed satisfies the equation.

We'll now show a series of lemmas.

$\mathbf{Lemma}$ $\mathbf{1.}$ $f(z)$ can take on arbitrarily small values.

$\mathbf{Proof.}$ By plugging in $z = \frac13,$ we know that:

$$f(xf(\frac13)+y) + f(yf(\frac13)+x) = \frac43 f(x+y).$$Therefore, for any $z \in \mathbb{R}^{+},$ by letting $x + y = z$, we can obtain another value $z' \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$ such that $f(z') \leq \frac23 f(z).$ From this, it is clear that we can get $f(z)$ to tend arbitrarily close to $0$, as desired.

$\blacksquare$

$\mathbf{Lemma}$ $\mathbf{2.}$ $f(x) + f(y) = f(t) +f(z)$ when $x+y = t+z$.

$\mathbf{Proof.}$ Consider fixing some $z$ for which $f(z)$ is arbitrarily small. Then, observe that when we fix $s$, we have that $f(a) + f(b)$ is fixed whenever $sf(z) \leq a, b\leq s$ and $a+b = sf(z) + s$. Since $f(z)$ is tiny, we can make $s$ such that $sf(z) + s  = x+y = t+z$ and $sf(z) \leq x, y, t, z \leq s$. Therefore, we are done.

$\blacksquare$

As a direct corollary of the above, observe that Jensen's Functional Equation $f(\frac{x+y}{2}) = \frac{f(x) + f(y)}{2}$ now holds. Therefore, this furthermore implies that $f$ is nondecreasing by Jensen's Functional Equation. Since $f$ is $\mathbb{R}^{+} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{+},$ it's easy to see that $f$ is linear. To see this, observe that for any two values $a$ and $b$, then line through $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ has a dense subset which are points on $f.$ Therefore, for any point $(x, f(x))$ which isn't on the line, we can clearly use the Jensen condition to get a negative value of $f$ (take a point $(y, f(y))$ on the line for which $y$ is arbitrarily close to $y$ on whichever side, depending on whether $(x, f(x))$ is over/under the line).Therefore, we obtain that $f(x) \equiv ax + b$. Plugging this into the equation, it's easy to see that only $f(x) \equiv x$ satisfies the desired conditions.

$\square$
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Mathotsav
1508 posts
#24 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Partial solution:
I will prove that $f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$ and $f(x)+f(y)=2f(\frac{x+y}{2})$. Here $P(x,y,z)$ is the assertion that $(z+1)f(x+y)=f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)$
Proof:
Claim 1: $f(1)=1$.
Suppose $f(1)=k \neq 1$. Then $P(\frac{x}{2},\frac{x}{2},1)$ gives $f(x)=f(x(\frac{k+1}{2})$. Now put $P(\frac{x}{2},\frac{x}{2},\frac{k+1}{2})$ to get a contradiction( basically getting that two unequal numbers are equal). Hence, $f(1)=1$.
Claim 2:$\frac{z+1}{2}=f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2})$.
Proof:$P(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},z)$ with Claim 1 gives the result.
Claim 3:$f(x)$ is multiplicative and surjective.
Proof: Because of claim 2,$f(x)$ can attain any value more than $0.5$. Now, put $P(\frac{x}{2},\frac{x}{2},z)$ to get $\frac{z+1}{2}f(x)=f(x\frac{f(z)+1}{2})$ or $f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2})f(x)=f(x\frac{f(z)+1}{2})$. As $f(x)$ can obtain any value more than $0.5$, we can see that $f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$ if one of them is higher than $0.75$. Now consider this:
Let $x,y \leq 0.75$. Then, obviously $f(y)f(\frac{1}{y})=1$ as $f(\frac{1}{y})$ is higher than $0.75$. Now, $f(xy)f(\frac{1}{y})=f(x)$ which from previous result is same as $f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$ even in the case when both are less than $0.75$. Hence, $f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$ for all reals. Now use this fact combined with that if $k>0.5$, then there exists real $x$ with $f(x)=k$ to prove that $f(x)$ is surjective.
Claim 4:$f(x)+f(y)=2f(\frac{x+y}{2})$
Proof: $P(x,y,z)$ with Claim 3 gives that $f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)=2f((f(z)+1)\frac{x+y}{2})$. Now use $f(x)$ being surjective to prove that for any given pair of positive reals $b,c$ one can find positive reals $x,y,z$ with $xf(z)+y=b,yf(z)+x=c$ which gives $f(b)+f(c)=2f(\frac{b+c}{2})$.
I am pretty sure that after proving Jensen's FE condition and multiplicity with boundedness($f(x)$ is always a positive real), proving that $f(x)=x$ should be trivial but I can't put it all together so this was all the progress I made.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by Mathotsav, May 19, 2019, 7:49 AM
Reason: Minor errors
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Mathotsav
1508 posts
#25 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Continuing my proof:
From Jensen's FE, I claim that $f(x)$ is monotonically increasing. Suppose this is not true. One can find $a<b$ such that $f(a)>f(b)$. One can see that $f(nb-(n-1)a)=nf(b)-(n-1)f(a)$. The LHS is always positive but the RHS eventually becomes negative, contradiction. Hence $f(x)$ is monotonically increasing. From Jensen's FE and multiplicity one can obtain that $f(\frac{k}{2^n})=\frac{k}{2^n}$ where $k,n \in N$. Using that $f(x)$ monotonically increasing, one can bound the value of $f(x)$ for any real. One can show that $|f(x)-x|$ is smaller than any given real for any $x$ hence $f(x)=x$ for all $x$.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Mathotsav, May 20, 2019, 2:56 AM
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508669
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#27 • 1 Y
Y by A-Thought-Of-God
shinichiman wrote:
Find all functions $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \to \mathbb{R}^+$ such that
$$(z + 1)f(x + y) = f(xf(z) + y) + f(yf(z) + x),$$for all positive real numbers $x, y, z$.

Fajar Yuliawan, Indonesia

UwU nice problem.

We claim that all solutions to the given functional equation are of the form $\boxed{f(x) = x}$ for all positive reals $x$.

Let $P(x, y)$ denote the statement of the problem.

Step 1 : $f(1) = 1$ and $f$ is injective.

Of course observe that if $f(a) = f(b)$ for some positive reals $a$ and $b$, then comparing $P(k, k, a)$ and $P(k, k, b)$ yields that $a + 1 = b +1$ or $a = b$ proving that $f$ is injective. Now see that $P(1, 1, 1)$ implies that $f(1) = 1$.

Step 2 : $f$ is bijective, additive and multiplicative which essentially implies our desired result

We see that using $P(z, z, 1)$, $f$ is bijective as we've already proved that it is injective. Now, see that if $f(y) = t-1$ for some real $t > 1$, then $f(tx) = \frac{f(2)f(x)f(y+1)}{2}$ and we see that $f(2x) = f(2)f(x)$ holds true (using basic assertions) which means that in fact $f(tx) = f(x)f(t)$ for $t > 1$ which isn't difficult to see that it is true for $t > 0$ too and so $f$ is multiplicative.

Now, observe that using multiplicativity and results of $P(x, x, z)$ and $P(x, x, z^{-1})$, we yield that $f(f(x)) = x$. Now, $P(1, 1, z) \implies f(f(z) + 1) = \frac{(z+1)f(2)}{2}$ and now see that $f(2)f(z) + f(2) = 2f(z+1)$. If $f(2) = 2a$, then see that $f(4) = 4a^2 = 2a^3 + a^2 + a$ using basic assertions and if $a = \frac{1}{2}$, it would contradict bijectivity and $f(2) > 0$ so $a = 1$ and $f(2) = 2$ which immediately proves $f(z) + 1 = f(z +1)$. Not hard to see that $f(x+y) = f(x)f(1 + y/x) = f(x) + f(y)$ using all above assertions which means that $f$ is additive.

But $f = multiplicative$, $f = additive$ $\Longrightarrow f(x) = x$ for all positive reals $x$ which clearly satisfies the conditions of the given problem and we're done.
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mathaddiction
308 posts
#28
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The solution is $f(x)=x$ which obviously works. We now show that it is the only one. Label the equation
$$(z+1)f(x+y)=f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)\hspace{20pt}(1)$$
Lemma. If $a>b,c>1$ are positive reals then there exists positive reals $x,y$ such that
$$\begin{cases}xc+y&=a\\ yc+x&=b\end{cases}$$if and only if $c>\frac{a}{b}$.
Proof.
Solve the equation to obtain
$$x=\frac{ac-b}{c^2-1}, y=\frac{bc-a}{c^2-1}$$then $x,y>0$ if and only if $c>\frac{a}{b}$

Claim 1. $f$ is unbounded and injective.
Proof.
Suppose on the contrary that $f$ is bounded, then fixing $x,y$ and let $z$ tends to infinity, then $L.H.S.$ is unbounded while $R.H.S.$ is bounded, contradiction. Now, suppose $f(a)=f(b)$, substituting $z=a$ and $z=b$ into $(1)$ we have
$$(a+1)f(x+y)=(b+1)f(x+y)$$hence $a=b$. $\blacksquare$

Claim 2. If $a+b=c+d$ and $a>b,c>d$ then
$$f(a)+f(b)=f(c)+f(d)$$Proof.
Indeed, pick some $z$ such that $f(z)>\max\{\frac{a}{b},\frac{c}{d}\}$, by the lemma we can select $x_1,y_1,x_2,y_2$ such that $x_1f(z)+y_1=a$, $y_1f(z)+x_1=b$, $x_2f(z)+y_2=c$, $y_2f(z)+x_2=d$, then by $(1)$ we have
$$f(a)+f(b)=(z+1)f(x_1+y_1)=(z+1)f(\frac{a+b}{f(z)+1})=(z+1)f(\frac{c+d}{f(z)+1})=(z+1)f(x_2+y_2)=f(c)+f(d)$$as desired. $\blacksquare$

As a corollary,
$$(z+1)f(x+y)=f((x+y)f(z))+f(x+y)$$and so $$zf(a)=f(af(z))\hspace{20pt}(2)$$In particular, substituting $z=1$ in $(2)$ we have $f(1)=1$ by injectivity. Substituting $x=y$ in $(1)$ and using $(2)$,
$$2xf(z+1)=f(2)x(f(z)+1) \hspace{20pt}(3)$$Hence substituting $z=2$ in $(3)$ we have $f(2)^2+f(2)=2f(3)=f(2)+f(4)$, hence $f(4)=f(2)^2$, solving
\begin{align*}
1+f(3)&=2f(2)\\
f(2)+f(2)^2=2f(3)
\end{align*}We have $f(2)=1$ or $2$, hence $f(2)=2$ by injectivity, from $(3)$ we have $f(z+1)=f(z)+1$, so $f(x)=x$ for all positive integer $x$, moreover from $(2)$ we have
$$f(x)+f(y)=2f(\frac{x+y}{2})=f(x+y)$$Hence by Cauchy equation we can conclude that $f(x)=x$.
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MathLuis
1471 posts
#30
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Solved with Rama1728 (we spend 1 hour on this, and it was worth it!)
Let $P(x,y)$ the assertion of the given F.E.
Claim 1: $f$ is bijective
Proof: Let $a,b$ such that $f(a)=f(b)$, thus by $P(1,1,a)-P(1,1,b)$
$$f(2)(b+1)=f(2)(a+1) \implies a=b \implies f \; \text{injective}$$$P \left(\frac{1}{f(x)+1},\frac{1}{f(x)+1},x \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{2}{f(x)+1} \right)=\frac{2}{x+1} \implies f \; \text{surjective on} \; [0,2]$$$P \left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},x \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{f(x)+1}{2} \right)=\frac{x+1}{2} \implies f \; \text{surjective on} \; \left[\frac{1}{2}, \infty \right]$$Thus $f$ is bijective as desired.
Claim 2: $f$ is multiplicative.
Proof: Let $c=\frac{f(y)+1}{2}$, by $P \left(\frac{x}{2},\frac{x}{2},y \right)$
$$f(c)f(x)=f(cx) \implies f \; \text{multiplative with} \; c>\frac{1}{2}$$Now note that $f \left(\frac{1}{c} \right)=\frac{1}{f(c)}$ thus by $P \left(\frac{x}{f(y)+1},\frac{x}{f(y)+1},y \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{x}{c} \right)=f(x)f \left(\frac{1}{c} \right) \implies f \; \text{multiplicative with} \; \frac{1}{c}<2$$Meaning that $f$ is multiplicative for all positive reals.
Claim 3: $f$ is continuos
Proof: By Claim 1 it suffices to show that $\lim_{d \to d_0} f \left( \frac{f(d)+1}{2} \right)=f \left( \frac{f(d_0)+1}{2} \right)$ but we have:
$$\lim_{d \to d_0} f \left(\frac{f(d)+1}{2} \right)=\lim_{d \to d_0} \frac{d+1}{2}=\frac{d_0+1}{2}=f \left(\frac{f(d_0)+1}{2} \right)$$Thus $f$ is continuos as desired.
Main solution: By Claim 2 and Claim 3 we have that $f(x)=x^k$ and now let $f(2)=2s$, we have:
$$f(x+1)=s(f(x)+1) \implies f(x+2)=s(f(x+1)+1)=s^2f(x)+s^2+s \overset{x=2}{\implies} 4s^2=f(4)=s(2s^2+s+1) \implies s=1$$The last step bc $s=\frac{1}{2}$ is also a solution to that but by Claim 1 we would have $f(2)=f(1)$ so $2=1$ which makes nonsense.
Since $f(2)=2$ we have that $2^k=f(2)=2$ thus $k=1$. Meaning that the unique sol is $f(x)=x$ and we are done :first:
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by MathLuis, Oct 15, 2021, 5:59 PM
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rama1728
800 posts
#32
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MathLuis wrote:
Solved with Rama1728 (we spend 1 hour on this, and it was worth it!)
Let $P(x,y)$ the assertion of the given F.E.
Claim 1: $f$ is bijective
Proof: Let $a,b$ such that $f(a)=f(b)$, thus by $P(1,1,a)-P(1,1,b)$
$$f(2)(b+1)=f(2)(a+1) \implies a=b \implies f \; \text{injective}$$$P \left(\frac{1}{f(x)+1},\frac{1}{f(x)+1},x \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{2}{f(x)+1} \right)=\frac{2}{f(x)+1} \implies f \; \text{surjective on} \; [0,2]$$$P \left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},x \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{f(x)+1}{2} \right)=\frac{x+1}{2} \implies f \; \text{surjective on} \; \left[\frac{1}{2}, \infty \right]$$Thus $f$ is bijective as desired.
Claim 2: $f$ is multiplicative.
Proof: Let $c=\frac{f(y)+1}{2}$, by $P \left(\frac{x}{2},\frac{x}{2},y \right)$
$$f(c)f(x)=f(cx) \implies f \; \text{multiplative with} \; c>\frac{1}{2}$$Now note that $f \left(\frac{1}{c} \right)=\frac{1}{f(c)}$ thus by $P \left(\frac{x}{f(y)+1},\frac{x}{f(y)+1},y \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{x}{c} \right)=f(x)f \left(\frac{1}{c} \right) \implies f \; \text{multiplicative with} \; \frac{1}{c}<2$$Meaning that $f$ is multiplicative for all positive reals.
Claim 3: $f$ is continuos
Proof: By Claim 1 it suffices to show that $\lim_{d \to d_0} f \left( \frac{f(d)+1}{2} \right)=f \left( \frac{f(d_0)+1}{2} \right)$ but we have:
$$\lim_{d \to d_0} f \left(\frac{f(d)+1}{2} \right)=\lim_{d \to d_0} \frac{d+1}{2}=\frac{d_0+1}{2}=f \left(\frac{f(d_0)+1}{2} \right)$$Thus $f$ is continuos as desired.
Main solution: By Claim 2 and Claim 3 we have that $f(x)=x^k$ and now let $f(2)=2s$, we have:
$$f(x+1)=s(f(x)+1) \implies f(x+2)=s(f(x+1)+1)=s^2f(x)+s^2+s \overset{x=2}{\implies} 4s^2=f(4)=s(2s^2+s+1) \implies s=1$$The last step bc $s=\frac{1}{2}$ is also a solution to that but by Claim 1 we would have $f(2)=f(1)$ so $2=1$ which makes nonsense.
Since $f(2)=2$ we have that $2^k=f(2)=2$ thus $k=1$. Meaning that the unique sol is $f(x)=x$ and we are done :first:

A small change to be made, the surjectivity part is incorrect, instead we can do \(P(x,x,y)\) to get that \(x\in\text{Im}(f)\) implies \(y\in\text{Im})(f)\) for all \(2y>x\) so we get surjectivity. And instead of continuity, we prove monotonicity, because something does not seem rigorous in the continuity part. How we prove monotonicity is by doing \(P(x/2,x/2,y)\) which gives us \[f(\frac{x(f(y)+1)}{2})=\frac{(y+1)f(x)}{2}\]and we compare the domains on both sides. We get that \[f\left((\frac{x}{2},\infty\right)=(f(\frac{x}{2},\infty)\]which proves our desired claim. From this we easily get \(f(x)=x^c\) because \(f\) is multiplicative...
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Mahdi.sh
73 posts
#34 • 1 Y
Y by rama1728
MathLuis wrote:
Solved with Rama1728 (we spend 1 hour on this, and it was worth it!)
Let $P(x,y)$ the assertion of the given F.E.
Claim 1: $f$ is bijective
Proof: Let $a,b$ such that $f(a)=f(b)$, thus by $P(1,1,a)-P(1,1,b)$
$$f(2)(b+1)=f(2)(a+1) \implies a=b \implies f \; \text{injective}$$$P \left(\frac{1}{f(x)+1},\frac{1}{f(x)+1},x \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{2}{f(x)+1} \right)=\frac{2}{x+1} \implies f \; \text{surjective on} \; [0,2]$$$P \left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},x \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{f(x)+1}{2} \right)=\frac{x+1}{2} \implies f \; \text{surjective on} \; \left[\frac{1}{2}, \infty \right]$$Thus $f$ is bijective as desired.
Claim 2: $f$ is multiplicative.
Proof: Let $c=\frac{f(y)+1}{2}$, by $P \left(\frac{x}{2},\frac{x}{2},y \right)$
$$f(c)f(x)=f(cx) \implies f \; \text{multiplative with} \; c>\frac{1}{2}$$Now note that $f \left(\frac{1}{c} \right)=\frac{1}{f(c)}$ thus by $P \left(\frac{x}{f(y)+1},\frac{x}{f(y)+1},y \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{x}{c} \right)=f(x)f \left(\frac{1}{c} \right) \implies f \; \text{multiplicative with} \; \frac{1}{c}<2$$Meaning that $f$ is multiplicative for all positive reals.
Claim 3: $f$ is continuos
Proof: By Claim 1 it suffices to show that $\lim_{d \to d_0} f \left( \frac{f(d)+1}{2} \right)=f \left( \frac{f(d_0)+1}{2} \right)$ but we have:
$$\lim_{d \to d_0} f \left(\frac{f(d)+1}{2} \right)=\lim_{d \to d_0} \frac{d+1}{2}=\frac{d_0+1}{2}=f \left(\frac{f(d_0)+1}{2} \right)$$Thus $f$ is continuos as desired.
Main solution: By Claim 2 and Claim 3 we have that $f(x)=x^k$ and now let $f(2)=2s$, we have:
$$f(x+1)=s(f(x)+1) \implies f(x+2)=s(f(x+1)+1)=s^2f(x)+s^2+s \overset{x=2}{\implies} 4s^2=f(4)=s(2s^2+s+1) \implies s=1$$The last step bc $s=\frac{1}{2}$ is also a solution to that but by Claim 1 we would have $f(2)=f(1)$ so $2=1$ which makes nonsense.
Since $f(2)=2$ we have that $2^k=f(2)=2$ thus $k=1$. Meaning that the unique sol is $f(x)=x$ and we are done :first:
Wrong solution .You can say $f(\frac{f(x)+1}{2})$ is continous not $f(x)$.
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ashraful7525
26 posts
#35
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$f(x)=x$ is the only solution to the FE which clearly works. Now we show this is the only solution.

Let $P(x,y,z)$ denote the given FE.

Claim 1
Claim 2

Now back to our main solution. Observe that compairing $P(xf(z),yf(z),1/z)$ and $P(x,y,z)$ gives us $$f(xf(z)+yf(z))=zf(x+y).........(5)$$
Now fix $x+y=1$ and we get $f(f(z))=z$ for all real number $z$. So actually $f$ is surjective function.

Exchanging $x,y$ with $x/2,x/2$ and $z$ with $f(z)$ gives us $f(z)f(x)=f(xz)$. So $f$ has multiplicative property.

Using the multiplicative property from $P(x,x,z)$ we get that $z+1=f(f(z)+1)$.
For any positive real number $a,b$ we can fix $f(z)$ and choose $x,y$ such that $xf(z)+y=a$ and $yf(z)+x=b$.
Observe,
$$f(a+b)=(z+1)f(x+y)=f(f(z)+1)f(x+y)=f(xf(z)+y+yf(z)+x)=f(a)+f(b)$$
That means $f$ has additive property too. Since $f$ is additive and multiplicative, $f(x)=x$ is the only solution.
Proof
So we're done.
This post has been edited 12 times. Last edited by ashraful7525, May 4, 2022, 4:55 AM
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ZETA_in_olympiad
2211 posts
#36
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Denote the assertion by $P(x,y,z).$

Claim: $u+v=s+t \implies f(u)+f(v)=f(s)+f(t).$
Proof. We have surjectivity from induction on $P(x,x,z).$ So it is trivial that we may find the numbers \begin{align*} u=af(x)+b \qquad v=bf(x)+a \\ s=cf(x)+d \qquad t=df(x)+c\end{align*}Now $P(a,b,x)$ and $P(c,d,x)$ yield the claim. $\blacksquare$

In particular $f$ satisfies Jensen's Functional Equation, which we can solve (as we are in $\mathbb{R}^+$) to get $f(x)=ax+b.$ Checking gives $b=0, a=1.$ We see that the identity satisfies.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by ZETA_in_olympiad, Jun 11, 2022, 1:57 PM
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Mahdi_Mashayekhi
689 posts
#37 • 1 Y
Y by strong_boy
Claim $1 : f$ is injective.
Proof $:$ if $f(z) = f(z')$ then $P(x,y,z) - P(x,y,z')$ implies that $(z-z')f(x+y) = 0$ and $f(x+y) \neq 0$ so $z = z'$
Claim $2 : f(1) = 1$.
Proof $:$ Assume $f(1) = c$ then $P(1,1,1) : 2f(2) = 2f(c+1) \implies f(2) = f(c+1) \implies c = 1$
Claim $3 : f$ is bijective for all $x > \frac{1}{2}$.
Proof $:$ $P(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},z) : \frac{z+1}{2}f(1) = f(f(z)+1) \implies f(f(z)+1) = \frac{z+1}{2} > \frac{1}{2}$
Now inductively we can prove $f$ is bijective for all $x$ just let $x,y$ be such that $f(x+y) - \frac{1}{2}$ is near $0$ so our bound is being divided by $2$ each time and goes from $\frac{1}{2}$ to $0$.
Claim $:4 : f(kx) = f(k)f(x)$
Proof $:$ there exists $k'$ such that $f(k') = 2k-1$. $P(\frac{x}{2},\frac{x}{2},k') : \frac{k'+1}{2}f(x) = f(kx)$. $P(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},k') : k'+1 = 2f(\frac{f(k')+1}{2}) = 2f(k)$ so $\frac{k'+1}{2}f(x) = f(k)f(x)$
Claim $5 : f(\frac{1}{x}) = \frac{1}{f(x)}$
Proof $:$ Note that $f(1) = f(z)f(\frac{1}{z})$ so $f(\frac{1}{z}) = \frac{f(1)}{f(z)} = \frac{1}{f(z)}$
Claim $6 : f(f(z)) = z$.
Proof $:$ from claim $3$ we have $f(f(z)+1) = \frac{z+1}{2}$ so $\frac{z+1}{2} = f(f(z)).f(1+\frac{1}{f(z)}) = f(f(z)).f(1+f(\frac{1}{z}))$ and Note that $f(1+f(\frac{1}{z})) = \frac{\frac{1}{z}+1}{2}$ so $\frac{z+1}{2} = f(f(z)) . \frac{\frac{1}{z}+1}{2} \implies f(f(z)) = z$.
Claim $7 : f(2) = 2$.
Proof $:$ Let $f(2) = c$. $f(f(2)) = f(c) = 2$. $P(1,1,z) : f(f(z)+1) = \frac{f(2)}{2}.(z+1)$ so $f(z) + 1 = f(\frac{c}{2}.(z+1)) = f(z+1).f(\frac{c}{2})$. Note that $f(c) = f(2).f(\frac{c}{2}) \implies f(\frac{c}{2}) = \frac{2}{c}$ so $f(z) + 1 = f(z+1).\frac{2}{c}$. put $z = 2$ and we have $c+1 = f(3).\frac{2}{c} \implies f(3) = (c+1)\frac{c}{2}$ so $f(4) = \frac{c}{2}((c+1)\frac{c}{2} + 1)$ and also $f(4) = f(2)^2 = c^2$ so $c^2 = \frac{c^3+c^2+2c}{4} \implies 4c = c^2 + c + 2 \implies c^2-3c+2 = 0 \implies c = 1$ or $c = 2$ and since $f(1) = 1$ then $f(2)$ can't be $1$ so is $2$. Also now we know that $f(z)+1 = f(z+1)$
Claim $8 : f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$.
Proof $:$ $f(x+y) = f(x).f(1+\frac{y}{x}) = f(x).(1+f(\frac{y}{x})) = f(x) + f(y)$
Now $f$ is both additive and multiplicative so $f(x) = x$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Mahdi_Mashayekhi, Oct 5, 2022, 9:09 AM
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oo_ctav
24 posts
#38 • 1 Y
Y by Triangle_Center
$f$ is clearly injective
$P(1,1,1) \Rightarrow f(2)=f(f(1)+1) \Rightarrow f(1)=1$
$P(x,x,z) \Rightarrow f(xf(z)+x)=\frac{1}{2}f(2x)(z+1)$ if we pin $x$ and slide $z$ along $\mathbb{R}^+$ we get that $(f(2x)/2, \infty) \subset Im(f)$ $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}^+$ $ (1)$
Let $f(\frac{1}{2})=c$ and $k\in \mathbb{R}^+$
$P(x,k-x,\frac{1}{2}) \Rightarrow \frac{3}{2}f(k)=f(xc+y)+f(yc+x) \Rightarrow min(f(xc+y),f(yc+x)) \leqslant \frac{3}{4} f(k)$
$\Rightarrow inf_{x\in \mathbb{R}^+}f(x) = 0$ $(2)$
$(1)+(2) \Rightarrow f $ is surjective $\Rightarrow f$ is bijective
$P(\frac{1}{f(x)+1},\frac{1}{f(x)+1},x) * P(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},x) \Rightarrow f(\frac{2}{f(x)+1})f(\frac{f(x)+1}{2})=1$ and since $f$ is bijective $\Rightarrow f(x)f(\frac{1}{x})=1$ $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}^+$ $(*)$
Let $t\in \mathbb{R}^+$ such that $f(t)=3$
$P(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},t) \Rightarrow f(\frac{f(t)+1}{2})=\frac{t+1}{2}$ $(3)$
$P(\frac{x}{2},\frac{x}{2},t) \Rightarrow f(x)\frac{t+1}{2}=f(2x) \xRightarrow{(3)} f(2x)=f(x)f(2)$ $\forall x\in \mathbb{R}^+$ $(4)$
$f$ bijective $\Rightarrow \exists $ $a$ such that $f(a)=k$
$P(x,x,a) \xRightarrow{(3)} f(2x)f(\frac{k+1}{2})=f(x(k+1)) \xRightarrow{(4)} f(x)f(k+1)=f(x(k+1)) \Rightarrow f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$ $\forall x>0 $, $ y>1 \xRightarrow{(*)} f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$ $\forall x,y \in \mathbb{R}^+$
So $f$ is multiplicative
$P(1,1,\frac{1}{x}) \Rightarrow f(f(\frac{1}{x})+1)=\frac{x+1}{2x}f(2)$
$P(1,1,x) \Rightarrow \frac{x+1}{2}f(2) = f(f(x)+1) = f(f(x))f(1+\frac{1}{f(x)}) = f(f(x))f(1+f(\frac{1}{x})) = f(f(x))\frac{x+1}{2x}f(2) \Rightarrow f(f(x))=f(x)$
So $f$ is an involution $(5)$
$f(f(x)+1)=\frac{(x+1)f(2)}{2} \xRightarrow{(5)} f(x)+1=f(\frac{(x+1)f(2)}{2})=f(x+1)f(f(2))\frac{1}{f(2)}=f(x+1)\frac{2}{f(2)}$
$\Rightarrow f(x+1)=(f(x)+1)\frac{f(2)}{2}$
$\frac{f(2)}{2}(f(3)+1)=f(4)=f(2)^2$ gives $f(2) = 2$ or $f(2) = 1$ but $f$ is injective $\Rightarrow f(2) = 2 \Rightarrow f(x+1)=f(x)+1$
$f(x+y)=f(y)(\frac{x}{y}+1)=f(y)(1+f(\frac{x}{y}))=f(y)+f(x)$
So $f$ is additive and multiplicative $\Rightarrow f = \text{Id}_{\mathbb{R}^+}$ (since $f(x)\equiv 0 $ is impossible)
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ThisNameIsNotAvailable
442 posts
#39
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shinichiman wrote:
Find all functions $f: \mathbb{R}^+ \to \mathbb{R}^+$ such that
$$(z + 1)f(x + y) = f(xf(z) + y) + f(yf(z) + x),$$for all positive real numbers $x, y, z$.

Fajar Yuliawan, Indonesia

Let $P(x,y,z)$ be the assertion of the given functional equation.

$P(x,x,z)\implies 2f(xf(z)+x)=(z+1)f(2x) \implies f\left(\frac{x}{2}f(z)+\frac{x}{2}\right)=\frac{(z+1)f(x)}{2},\quad\forall x,z>0.$
Hence $r\in \text{Im}(f)\implies \frac{3r}{4}\in \text{Im}(f)$, implying $f$ is surjective on $\mathbb R^+$ since $\lim \left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^n=0$.
$P(1,1,z)\implies f(f(z)+1)=c(z+1)\implies f(cz+c+1)=c(f(z)+2),\quad\forall z>0,\text{ where }c=\frac{f(2)}{2},(*)$
$P(c+1,c+1,z)\implies f(cf(z)+f(z)+c+1)=b(z+1),\quad\forall z>0,\text{ where }b=\frac{f(2(c+1))}{2},$
so $$f(cf(z)+f(z)+c+1)=\frac{b}{c}f(f(z)+1)\implies f(cz+z+c+1)=\frac{b}{c}f(z+1),\quad\forall z>0$$by the surjectivity. Substitute $z$ by $z-1$ into the above FE, we get $$f((c+1)z)=\frac{b}{c}f(z),\quad\forall z>0.$$Substitute $z$ by $(c+1)z$ into $(*)$, we get $$\frac{b}{c}f(cz+1)=c\left(\frac{b}{c}f(z)+2\right)\implies f(cz+1)=cf(z)+\frac{2c^2}{b},\quad\forall z>0.$$Subtracting from the two sides of $(*)$ and the above FE, we get $$f(cz+c+1)-f(cz+1)=2c-\frac{2c^2}{b},\quad\forall z>0,$$so $$f(z+c)=f(z)+d,\quad\forall z>1,\text{ where } d=2c-\frac{2c^2}{b}.$$Comparing $P(x,y,z)$ and $P(x,y+c,z)$ with $y>1$, we get $$zd+f(yf(z)+x)=f(yf(z)+cf(z)+x),\quad\forall x,z>0,y>1.$$Let $x=1$ and $y\longrightarrow \frac{y-1}{f(z)}$, then the above FE becomes $$zd+f(y)=f(y+cf(z)),\quad\forall z>0,y>1,$$so $$f(y+cf(z+x))=zd+xd+f(y)=zd+f(y+cf(x))=f(y+cf(x)+cf(z)),\quad\forall x,z>0,y>1,$$but $f$ is easily injective, thus $f(x+z)=f(x)+f(z),\quad\forall x,z>0\implies f(x)=x,\quad\forall x>0.$
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DS68
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#40
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$\textit{Solution 1}$
Let $P(x, y, z)$ be the assertion above.
$\textbf{Claim:}$ $f$ is bijective.
$\textit{Proof}$ Notice $P(x, y, a)$ and $P(x, y, b)$ for $f(a) = f(b), a \neq b$, easily gives us a contradiction, giving $f$ is injective.
For $f$ is surjective, notice $P(x, x, z)$ gives us
\[(z+1)f(2x) = 2f(xf(z)+x)\]If $M = \inf\{f(x): x \in \mathbb{R^+}\}$, we get that $xf(z)+x$ has $2$ dimensions and can vary over all $\mathbb{R^+}$, giving a contradiction by setting $z$ arbitrarily large. Hence this gives us $f$ is surjective as desired. $\square$

If we consider $c$ such that $f(c) = 1$, taking $P(x, y, c)$ gives us that $c=1$ or $f(1) = 1$.
$\textbf{Claim:}$ $f$ is multiplicative.
$\textit{Proof}$ Now taking $P(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, z)$, we get
\[f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2}) = \frac{z+1}{2}\]Now considering $P(\frac{x}{2}, \frac{x}{2}, z)$
\[f(\frac{xf(z)+x}{2}) = \frac{z+1}{2}f(x) = f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2})f(x)\]Pairing with the fact that $f$ is bijective, this gives us that $f$ is multiplicative where $f(ab) = f(a)f(b)$ and $b > \frac{1}{2}$. But notice if we consider $a < \frac{1}{2}, b > \frac{1}{2}$ and $ab > \frac{1}{2}$, we can take a $c < \frac{1}{2}$ to have
\[f(abc) = f(ab)f(c) = f(a)f(b)f(c) = f(ac)f(b)\]Hence we get $f$ is multiplicative over all pairs of numbers. $\square$

$\textbf{Claim:}$ $f(3) = 3, f(2) = 2$.
$\textit{Proof}$ Notice taking $P(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, z)$ again and $z \mapsto \frac{f(z)+1}{2}$, we get that
\[f(\frac{z+3}{4}) = \frac{f(z)+3}{4}\]with $z \mapsto 4z+1$ again, to have
\[4f(z+1) = f(4z+1) + 3\]for all $z \in \mathbb{R^+}$. Now taking $z=2$, we get $4f(3) = f(9) + 3 = f(3)^2 + 3$. This implies $f(3)^2 - 4f(3) + 3 = 0$, which immediately gives us that $f(3) = 3$ as $f$ is bijective. Now taking $P(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, 3)$ gives $f(2) = 2$. $\square$

To finish the problem, note $f(2^i) = 2^i$ for all $i \ge 1$ as $f$ is multiplicative. Also since $f\left(\frac{f(z)+1}{2}\right) = \frac{z+1}{2} \iff f(f(z)+1) = z+1$, we also have $f(2^{i}+1) = 2^i+1$ for all $i \ge 1$. Taking $P(x, y, 2^i)$ we get
\[(2^i+1)f(x+y) = f(2^ix+y) + f(2^iy+x)\]where $(2^i+1)f(x+y) = f(2^i+1)f(x+y) = f((2^i+1)(x+y))$. If we choose the pair
\[(x, y) = \left(\frac{2^ia-b}{2^{2i}-1}, \frac{2^ib-a}{2^{2i}-1}\right)\]where $a < b < 2^ia$, we have $f(a+b) = f(a)+f(b)$. But note since this applies for all $i \ge 1$, we have $f$ is additive over all pairs of values. This clearly gives $f(x) = x$.

$\textit{Solution 2}$
We will assume the $f$ is bijective proof from Solution $1$. Now notice first taking $P(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, z)$, we have that Imf$(\mathbb{R^+}_{\geq \frac{1}{2}}) = \mathbb{R^+}_{\geq \frac{1}{2}}$. Since $f$ is bijective, we have that then $f$ must be bounded over the interval $(0, \frac{1}{2})$. Hence we know for any sequence $(x_n)$ such that $x_n \rightarrow 0$, we have that $\limsup_{n \rightarrow \infty} f(x_n)$ does indeed exist. Let this value be called $M$.
Notice taking $x, y \rightarrow 0$ such that $x+y$ is equal to the limsup subsequence, we get that
\[(z+1)M = f(xf(z)+y) + f(yf(z)+x)\]The RHS is bounded, but taking $z$ to be an arbitrarily large value gives us a contradiction. Hence $M = 0$. Thus we have $f \rightarrow 0$ as $x \rightarrow 0$.
Now going back to $P(x, x, z)$, if we take $z \rightarrow 0$, we can see that $f$ actually must be continuous on all values $x$ as left-hand side changes value only by linear $\epsilon f(2x)$ and right-hand side has a change in input of $f(x+\delta) - f(x)$.
Hence taking $z \rightarrow 0$ in original gives us Cauchy's Functional equation, concluding similarly to Solution $1$ that $f \equiv x$.
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by DS68, Jan 2, 2024, 10:54 AM
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MathLuis
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#41
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Very FUNctional equation, this is a different way from what i've done before (in the gsolve, which my friend fixed it later).
Let $P(x,y,z)$ the assertion of the given functional equation.
Claim 1: $f$ is bijective.
Proof: Suppose $f(a)=f(b)$ then by $P(x,y,a)-P(x,y,b)$ we get that $a=b$ trivialy, now by $P(1,1,1)$ and injectivity we get that $f(1)=1$, so now by $P \left(\frac{1}{f(x)+1}, \frac{1}{f(x)+1}, x \right)$
$$f \left(\frac{2}{f(x)+1} \right)=\frac{2}{x+1} \implies f \; \text{surjective in} \; (0,2)$$And from $P(x,x,z)$ we get that
$$f(x(f(z)+1))=\frac{z+1}{2} \cdot f(2x) \implies \; \text{if} \; m \in \; \text{Im}(f) \; \text{and} \; n>\frac{1}{2} \; \text{then} \; mn \in \; \text{Im}(f)$$And just to overkill this claim, by $P \left( \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, x \right)$ we get that
$$f \left(\frac{f(x)+1}{2} \right)=\frac{x+1}{2} \implies f \; \text{surjective in} \; \left(\frac{1}{2}, \infty \right)$$Hence $f$ is surjective and injective so its bijective as desired.
Claim 2: $f$ is multiplicative.
Proof: Let $t=\frac{f(z)+1}{2}$ then using Claim 1 we have $t$ takes all positive reals from $\frac{1}{2}$, so now by $P \left(\frac{x}{2}, \frac{x}{2}, z \right)$ we get that
$$f(t)f(x)=f(xt) \; \forall x \in \mathbb R^+ \; \text{and} \; t>\frac{1}{2}$$Note it holds that $f \left( \frac{1}{t} \right)=\frac{1}{f(t)}$ due to how we defined $t$ and by $P \left(\frac{x}{f(z)+1}, \frac{x}{f(z)+1}, z \right)$ we get that
$$f(x)f \left(\frac{1}{t} \right) =f \left(\frac{x}{t} \right) \; \forall t>\frac{1}{2} \; \implies f \; \text{multiplicative everywhere}$$Claim 3: $f(x)=x^n$ for some real $n$.
Proof: By $P\left( f(x), f(x), \frac{1}{x} \right)$ and Claim 3 we get that
$$f(f(x)+1)=\frac{x+1}{2x} \cdot f(2f(x)) \implies f(2f(x))=xf(2) \implies f(f(x))=x \implies f \; \text{involution}$$Now this gives us $f\left(\frac{x+1}{2} \right)=\frac{f(x)+1}{2}$ so if $a>\frac{1}{2}$ then $f(a)>\frac{1}{2}$, so if u let $g(x)=\ln(f(e^x))$ then $g$ is additive and also if $a>\frac{1}{2}$ then $g(a)=\ln(f(e^a))>-\ln(2)$ so $g$ is bounded hence its linear so $f(x)=x^n$
Finale: By $f(f(x))=x$ we get that $n=1$ or $n=-1$ for each $x$ but if for some $x$ it held that $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$ then it holds that $f \left(\frac{x+1}{2x} \right)=\frac{x+1}{2}$ so either $x=1$ or $(x+1)^2=4x$, the last one also implying $x=1$ so $f(x)=x$ holds for every positive real $x$, thus we are done :D.
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IAmTheHazard
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#43 • 1 Y
Y by tadpoleloop
The answer is $f(x)=x$ only, which clearly works. Let $P(x,y,z)$ denote the assertion.

Claim: $\inf f=0$.
Proof: Let $M=\inf f$ and suppose $M>0$. Pick some $x+y$ with $f(x+y) \leq 1.1M$ and let $z=0.1$. Then $f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x) \leq 1.21M$, which means we can't have both $f(xf(z)+y)$ and $f(yf(z)+x)$ be at least $M$: contradiction. $\blacksquare$

Claim: $f$ satisfies Jensen's.
Proof: By comparing $P(x,y,z)$ and $P(\tfrac{x+y}{2},\tfrac{x+y}{2},z)$ we obtain
$$f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)=2f\left(\frac{x+y}{2}(f(z)+1)\right).$$Now for any positive reals $a,b$, pick $f(z)<1$ to be sufficiently small such that $\tfrac{a+b}{f(z)+1}>\max(a,b)$. Then by putting $x=\tfrac{\tfrac{a+b}{f(z)+1}-a}{1-f(z)},y=\tfrac{\tfrac{a+b}{f(z)+1}-b}{1-f(z)}$, we find that $f(a)+f(b)=2f(\tfrac{a+b}{2})$. $\blacksquare$

Hence $f$ is linear, and it is straightforward to check that only $f(x)=x$ works. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by IAmTheHazard, Oct 2, 2023, 10:19 PM
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tadpoleloop
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#44
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IAmTheHazard wrote:
By fixing $x=y$ and varying $z$ we find that $f$ is surjective.

This is not enough to prove surjectivity. The domain is positive reals.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by tadpoleloop, Oct 2, 2023, 7:48 PM
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Marco22
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let P(x,y,z) be the statement above; computing p(0,0,z) we get that f(0)=0, then by computing p(x,y,0) we get that f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) which is subdisfacted by all the functions in the form f(x)=cx, then assuming f(x)=k we get, (z+1)k=2k and so k=0 so either f(x)=cx or f(x)=0.
Is it correct? Or did i gave something for granted and skipped a part of the proof?
EDIT:
by plugging in the value f(x)=cx i got that c must be equal to 1 so f(x) = x or f(x) = 0.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Marco22, Oct 2, 2023, 8:07 PM
Reason: forgot to check the reuslts lol
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tadpoleloop
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#46
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Marco22 wrote:
let P(x,y,z) be the statement above; computing p(0,0,z) we get that f(0)=0, then by computing p(x,y,0) we get that f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) which is subdisfacted by all the functions in the form f(x)=cx, then assuming f(x)=k we get, (z+1)k=2k and so k=0 so either f(x)=cx or f(x)=0.
Is it correct? Or did i gave something for granted and skipped a part of the proof?
EDIT:
by plugging in the value f(x)=cx i got that c must be equal to 1 so f(x) = x or f(x) = 0.

0 is not in the domain
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IAmTheHazard
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#47 • 1 Y
Y by tadpoleloop
tadpoleloop wrote:
IAmTheHazard wrote:
By fixing $x=y$ and varying $z$ we find that $f$ is surjective.

This is not enough to prove surjectivity. The domain is positive reals.

Oops

Edit: should be fixed?
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by IAmTheHazard, Oct 2, 2023, 10:17 PM
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Inconsistent
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#48 • 1 Y
Y by ihatemath123
Let $x = y$, then $\frac{z+1}{2} f(2x) = f(x(f(z)+1))$.

Thus the range of $f$ includes all intervals $\bigcup \left(\frac{f(2x)}{2^k}, \infty \right)$, so $f$ is surjective.

Let $c$ be any value such that $f(c) = 1$. Then $(c+1)f(x+y) = 2f(x+y)$ using $z = c$, so $c = 1$.

Now choose any $a, b > 2$. Then it follows, choose $z$ so that $f(z) = a + b - 1 \geq 3$. Then $1 + f(z) = a + b = 2 + (f(z) - 1)$.

Now since $2, f(z) - 1, a, b \in (1, f(z))$ it follows that there exist $x_1, y_1, x_2, y_2$ so that $x_1 + y_1 = x_2 + y_2 = 1$ and plugging $x_1, y_1$ or $x_2, y_2$:

$z+1 = f(2) + f(a+b-2) = f(a) + f(b)$.

Thus since $a + b - 2 = 2 + (a-2) + (b-2) > 2$, it follows that a shifted version of $f$ satisfies Cauchy's functional equation on $(0, \infty)$ and maps positive reals to reals bounded below by $-f(2)$. In particular, it follows that $f$ is never negative, so $f$ is monotonic increasing, so $f$ is linear (the proof proceeds identically to the proof that Cauchy + bounded implies linear).

Now it follows that $f = ax + b$ for $x > 2$. It follows from plugging large $z, x, y$ that $f = x$ for $x > 2$. Now reconsider $(z+1)f(2x) = 2f(x(f(z)+1))$ for any $x$. Sending $z$ to infinity, it follows that $f(2x) = 2x$, so we have $f(x) = x$ for all $x$.
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amogususususus
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#49
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Denote $P(x,y,z)$ as the assertion of the equation in the problem.

Claim 1

Claim 2

Claim 3

Claim 4

Claim 5

Since $f$ is additive over real positive, then $f(x)=ax$ for some constant $a\in \mathbb{R^+}$. From claim 4, we get $a=1$. Hence, $f(x)=x \ \forall \ x \in \mathbb{R^+}.$
This post has been edited 9 times. Last edited by amogususususus, Mar 4, 2024, 3:08 AM
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bin_sherlo
672 posts
#51
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\[(z+1)f(x+y)=f(xf(z)+y)+f(yf(z)+x)\]Only function holds the conditions is $f(x)=x$. Let $P(x,y,z)$ be the assertion.
Claim: $f$ is injective.
Proof: Comparing $P(f(x),1,z)$ with $P(f(z),1,x)$ gives
\[ (z+1)f(f(x)+1)=f(f(x)f(z)+1)+f(f(x)+f(z))=(x+1)f(f(z)+1)\]Choose $z=1$ to verify $2f(f(x)+1)=(x+1)f(f(1)+1)$. Let $f(f(1)+1)=2c$. We observe that $f(f(x)+1)=(x+1)c$ which proves the injectivity.$\square$
Claim: $f(1)=1$.
Proof: $P(1,1,z)$ gives $f(2)(z+1)=2f(f(z)+1)=2c(z+1)$. Thus, $f(2)=2c=f(f(1)+1)$. Since $f$ is injective, we conclude that $f(1)=1$.$\square$
Claim: $f(\frac{f(x)+1}{2})=\frac{x+1}{2}$.
Proof: $P(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},z)$ yields $z+1=2f(\frac{f(z)+1}{2})$.$\square$
Claim: $c=1$.
Proof:
\[P(x,x,f(2z+1)+2): \ \ (f(2z+1)+3)f(2x)=4f(x(z+2))\]Take $x=z=1$ to get $(f(3)+3)c=2f(3)\iff f(3)=\frac{3c}{2-c}$. Note that this means $c<2$. Now by using $f(f(x)+1)=(x+1)c$,
\[f(f(\frac{c+1}{2-c})+1)=c(\frac{c+1}{2-c}+1)=\frac{3c}{2-c}=f(3)\implies f(\frac{c+1}{2-c})=2\]\[P(\frac{c+1}{2(2-c)},\frac{c+1}{2(2-c)},z): \ \ f(\frac{f(2z+1)+1}{2})=z+1=f((f(z)+1)(\frac{c+1}{2(2-c)}))\]Hence $f(2z+1)+1=(f(z)+1)(\frac{c+1}{2-c})$. Plugging $z=2$ gives $f(5)=\frac{(2c+1)(c+1)}{2-c}-1$.
\[P(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},\frac{f(5)+1}{2}): \ \ 2c=f(2)=\frac{f(5)+3}{4}\]\[\frac{(2c+1)(c+1)}{2-c}-1=f(5)=8c-3\implies 2c^2+3c+1-2+c=16c-6-8c^2+3c\iff (c-1)^2=0\iff c=1\]Which completes the proof.$\square$
Claim: $f$ is additive.
Proof: We have $f(f(x)+1)=x+1$.
\[P(x,y,f(z)+1): \ \ (f(z)+2)f(x+y)=f(xz+x+y)+f(yz+x+y)\]Plugging $x=y=1$ yields $f(z)+2=f(z+2)$.
Note that by induction, $f(k)=k$ for all positive integers. $P(3,1,f(z)+1)$ implies $4(f(z)+2)=f(3z+4)+f(z+4)=f(3z)+f(z)+8$ hence $3f(z)=f(3z)$.
\[P(x,x,2): \ \ 3f(2x)=2f(3x)=6f(x)\implies f(2x)=2f(x)\]$P(x,x,f(z)+1)$ gives $2f(z+2)f(x)=(f(z)+2)f(2x)=2f(xz+2x)$ thus, $f(x)f(z+2)=f(x(z+2))$. So
\[f(xz+yz+2x+2y)=f(z+2)f(x+y)=f(xz+x+y)+f(yz+x+y)\]We claim that for all $a,b\in R^+$, we can find $x,y,z$ such that $xz+x+y=a$ and $yz+x+y=b$. For $a=b,$ we proved that $f(2a)=2f(a)$. We can assume that $a>b$.
\[b-x-yz=y=a-x-xz\implies z=\frac{a-b}{x-y}\]$\frac{y(a-b)}{x-y}+x+y=b\iff ya-by+x^2-y^2=bx-by\iff x^2-bx+(ya-y^2)=0$. We choose $y<\min\{a,b/2\}$.
\[x=\frac{b-\sqrt{4y^2-4ya+b^2}}{2}>\frac{b-\sqrt{(b-2y)^2}}{2}=y\]So $z>0$. Since there exists $x,y,z$ for all $a,b$ we observe that $f(a)+f(b)=f(a+b)$ hence $f$ is additive.$\square$
\[(z+1)f(x)+(z+1)f(y)=f(xf(z))+f(yf(z))+f(x)+f(y)\iff zf(x)+zf(y)=f(xf(z))+f(yf(z))\]Plug $P(x+2,y,f(z)+1)$ to get (by using $f(x)f(y+2)=f(xy+2x))$
\[(f(z)+1)f(x+2)+(f(z)+1)f(y)=f(xz+x+2z+2)+f(yz+y)\]\[2f(z)+f(x)+f(y)f(z)+f(y)=f(x)+2f(z)+f(yz)+f(y)\iff f(y)f(z)=f(yz)\]Thus, $f$ is multiplicative. Since $f$ is both additive and multiplicative, we get that $f(x)=x$ as desired.$\blacksquare$
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Matricy
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#52
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Why the minnn
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