Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Hi.
First consider the following trivial problem:
- given any x_1, ... , x_{n+1} from F_2^n (F_2 = integers mod 2), not necessarily distinct, we can find a non-empty subset of them which sums up to 0.
This can be easily solved by either pigeonhole principle or linear algebra over F_2. What about the following?
- given any x_1, ... , x_{2n+1} from F_3^n (F_3 = integers mod 3), not necessarily distinct, we can find a non-empty subset of them which sums up to 0.
Is it true? Thanks - it doesn't look too hard, but I can't seem to solve it.
First consider the following trivial problem:
- given any x_1, ... , x_{n+1} from F_2^n (F_2 = integers mod 2), not necessarily distinct, we can find a non-empty subset of them which sums up to 0.
This can be easily solved by either pigeonhole principle or linear algebra over F_2. What about the following?
- given any x_1, ... , x_{2n+1} from F_3^n (F_3 = integers mod 3), not necessarily distinct, we can find a non-empty subset of them which sums up to 0.
Is it true? Thanks - it doesn't look too hard, but I can't seem to solve it.