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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
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0 replies
jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
IMO 2014 Problem 5
codyj   72
N 11 minutes ago by math-olympiad-clown
For each positive integer $n$, the Bank of Cape Town issues coins of denomination $\frac1n$. Given a finite collection of such coins (of not necessarily different denominations) with total value at most most $99+\frac12$, prove that it is possible to split this collection into $100$ or fewer groups, such that each group has total value at most $1$.
72 replies
codyj
Jul 9, 2014
math-olympiad-clown
11 minutes ago
Functional Equation with Surjectivity
spherical_charlie   2
N 33 minutes ago by jasperE3
Can someone help me?
Find all surjective functions \( f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) that satisfy the following equation for all real numbers \( x, y \):
\[
f\big(f(x - y)\big) = f(x) - f(y).
\]
2 replies
spherical_charlie
2 hours ago
jasperE3
33 minutes ago
Functional Equation!
EthanWYX2009   2
N an hour ago by SanFangMath
Source: 2025 TST 24
Find all functions $f:\mathbb Z\to\mathbb Z$ such that $f$ is unbounded and
\[2f(m)f(n)-f(n-m)-1\]is a perfect square for all integer $m,n.$
2 replies
EthanWYX2009
Mar 29, 2025
SanFangMath
an hour ago
IMO 2011 Problem 1
Amir Hossein   101
N an hour ago by InterLoop
Given any set $A = \{a_1, a_2, a_3, a_4\}$ of four distinct positive integers, we denote the sum $a_1 +a_2 +a_3 +a_4$ by $s_A$. Let $n_A$ denote the number of pairs $(i, j)$ with $1 \leq  i < j \leq 4$ for which $a_i +a_j$ divides $s_A$. Find all sets $A$ of four distinct positive integers which achieve the largest possible value of $n_A$.

Proposed by Fernando Campos, Mexico
101 replies
Amir Hossein
Jul 18, 2011
InterLoop
an hour ago
No more topics!
parallelogram
Pascual2005   11
N Jun 23, 2014 by jayme
Source: Poland 2001
Let $ABCD$ be a parallelogram and let $K$ and $L$ be points on the segments $BC$ and $CD$, respectively, such that $BK\cdot AD=DL\cdot AB$. Let the lines $DK$ and $BL$ intersect at $P$. Show that $\measuredangle DAP=\measuredangle BAC$.
11 replies
Pascual2005
Nov 9, 2004
jayme
Jun 23, 2014
Source: Poland 2001
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Pascual2005
1160 posts
#1 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Let $ABCD$ be a parallelogram and let $K$ and $L$ be points on the segments $BC$ and $CD$, respectively, such that $BK\cdot AD=DL\cdot AB$. Let the lines $DK$ and $BL$ intersect at $P$. Show that $\measuredangle DAP=\measuredangle BAC$.
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grobber
7849 posts
#2 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Perfect setting for a homography :D.

The one we're interested in is the map $DK\mapsto BL$. Since this takes $DB$ to $BD$, it means that it's a perspectivity, so the locus of $BL\cap DK$ is a line. Now look at some particular situations to find this line (for example, consider the cases when $P$ is on $BC,DC$; notice that we don't need the points $K,L$ to lie on the segments as long as we choose directions on $BC,DC$ in a convenient way).
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darij grinberg
6555 posts
#3 • 4 Y
Y by ILIILIIILIIIIL, Adventure10, Mango247, Kau_specter
I'd say this is also a perfect setting for simple application of Ceva :)

Let the lines BL and DK meet the lines AD and AB at U and V, respectively. Let the line AP meet the line BD at R. Since the lines AR, BU and DV concur at P, the Ceva theorem, applied to triangle ABD, yields $\frac{BR}{RD}\cdot\frac{DU}{UA}\cdot\frac{AV}{VB}=1$, where we use directed segments. Since $\frac{AV}{VB}=-\frac{AV}{BV}$ and $\frac{DU}{UA}=-\frac{DU}{AU}$, we can rewrite this as $\frac{BR}{RD}\cdot\frac{DU}{AU}\cdot\frac{AV}{BV}=1$.

Now, since CD || AB, we have $\frac{DU}{AU}=\frac{DL}{AB}$. Since BC || DA, we have $\frac{AV}{BV}=\frac{AD}{BK}$. Thus, we get $\frac{BR}{RD}\cdot\frac{DL}{AB}\cdot\frac{AD}{BK}=1$. In other words,

$\frac{BR}{RD}=\frac{AB}{DL}\cdot\frac{BK}{AD}=\frac{BK\cdot AB}{DL\cdot AD} = \frac{AB^2}{AD^2}\cdot\frac{BK\cdot AD}{DL\cdot AB}$.

Since $BK\cdot AD = DL\cdot AB$, this becomes

$\frac{BR}{RD}=\frac{AB^2}{AD^2}$.

Thus, the line AR is a symmedian in triangle ABD. On the other hand, since the diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other, the line AC is a median in triangle ABD. Since the symmedian in a triangle is the reflection of the corresponding median in the corresponding angle bisector, we have < DAP = < BAC. Proof complete.

It's very well possible that there is a much simpler solution.

Darij
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sprmnt21
279 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Where Ceva works, usually, Menelaos do it too.

By Menelaos, DL/DC*KC/KB*PB/PL = 1. If Q=AP^CD, as ABP~QLP, PB/PL = AB/QL. From hypothesis DL/BK = AD/AB. Combining all these relations we get QL/DL = KC/BK from which follows that QD/DL = BC/BK or QD/DA = DL/BK = AD/DB=CB/BA which implies that QDA~CBA and from this the thesis.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by sprmnt21, Nov 12, 2004, 8:56 AM
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sprmnt21
279 posts
#5 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
grobber wrote:
Perfect setting for a homography :D.

The one we're interested in is the map $DK\mapsto BL$. Since this takes $DB$ to $BD$, it means that it's a perspectivity, so the locus of $BL\cap DK$ is a line. Now look at some particular situations to find this line (for example, consider the cases when $P$ is on $BC,DC$; notice that we don't need the points $K,L$ to lie on the segments as long as we choose directions on $BC,DC$ in a convenient way).

Grobber I don't understand the idea underliing this proof. Could you, please, make it explicit and give more details, if you have time to do it, about why, for instance, "since this takes $DB$ to $BD$, it means that it's a perspectivity, so the locus of $BL\cap DK$ is a line".
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grobber
7849 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
There are some theorems in projective geometry which I used but didn't prove. For example:

Assume you have a homography between two lines (a bijection preserving cross-ratios taking the points of a line $\ell_1$ to the points of the line $\ell_2$, including infinity points). If the intersection point of the two lines is mapped to itself, then there is a theorem stating that the lines formed by the pairs $A,f(A)$ pass through a fixed point.

In the solution I used the dual of the above: instead of a homography between two lines we have a homography between two pencils through two points $D,B$, and the line connecting these two points is mapped to itself. Then the dual of that theorem states that this is a perspectivity, i.e. the intersection points of the pairs $a,f(a)$ ($a$ is a line through $D$ and $f(a)$ is its image, passing through $B$) lies on a line. This intersection point was called $P$.

After we have determined this, all we need to do in order to determine the line is look at two particular positions of this intersection point, and I indicated two such positions in which it's easier to see what the line on which $P$ lies actually is.

I hope it sheds some light on what I wrote up there. :)
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sprmnt21
279 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
grobber wrote:
...

I hope it sheds some light on what I wrote up there. :)

I have to study carefully this post: I'm not an expert so I don't have many theoretical knolodge, I'm only an enthusiast.

Anyway, to help me in undertstanding this case, could explain where and how you use the hypothesis that BK.AD=DL.AB.

Thank you very much.
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grobber
7849 posts
#8 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Beleive me, I'm no expert either :).

I'll try to explain that part whih you asked me about.

Take $D,B$ as origin points on the lines $DC,BC$, and consider the positive directions on these lines to be $D\to C,\ B\to C$ respectively. We want to show that $K\mapsto L$ is a homography between the two lines, so that it will unduce a homography $DK\mapsto BL$ between the pencils of lines through $D,B$. In order to do this, all we need to do is show that the map is of the form $f(x)=\frac{ax+b}{cx+d}$, where $x$ is the coordinate of $L$ on the line $DC$ (remember that we have fixed an origin and a direction, so we can regard points on this line as coordinates), and $f(x)$ is the coordinate of $K$ on $BC$. From the condition given we get $f(x)=\frac{AB}{AD}\cdot x$, which is precisely a homography.
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sayantanchakraborty
505 posts
#9 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
This problem is a nice application of the Menelaus' theorem.

Let $AP \cap DC=Q$.From hypothesis we have $\frac{AB}{BK}=\frac{AD}{DL}$ and $\angle{ABK}=\angle{ADL} \Rightarrow \triangle{ABK} \sim \triangle{ADL} \Rightarrow \angle{BAK}=\angle{DAL}$.

Now applying the Menelaus' theorem wrt $\triangle{BLC}$ taking $DK$ as the transversal we have $\frac{DL}{LC} \times \frac{CK}{BK} \times \frac{BP}{PL}=1$.From the similar triangles $APB$ and $QPL$ we obtain $\frac{BP}{PL}=\frac{AB}{QL}$.Again from hypothesis we have $\frac{DL}{BK}=\frac{AD}{AB}$.Plugging in these relations we obtain $\frac{KC}{QL}=\frac{CD}{AD}=\frac{AB}{AD}=\frac{AK}{AL}$(the last step is from the fact that $\triangle{ADL}\sim \triangle{ABK}$).These together with $\angle{AKC}=\angle{ALQ}$ implies that $\triangle{ALQ} \sim \triangle{AKC}$.Thus $\angle{LAQ}=\angle{KAC}$ and the result follows.
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jayme
9775 posts
#10 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Dear Mathlinkers,
another way is to known how to construct simply K and L wrt the relation, and then perhaps the problem is solved.
Sincerely
Jean-Louis
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jayme
9775 posts
#11 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Dear Mathlinkers,
I confirm that the construction of the K and L, leads to an nice proof of this problem without calculation...I have to write my proof...
Sincerely
Jean-Louis
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jayme
9775 posts
#12 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Dear Mathlinkers,
you can se my proof on
http://perso.orange.fr/jl.ayme vol. 18 Regard 1, p. 3-5
Sincerely
Jean-Louis
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