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jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
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0 replies
jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
Colouring digits to make a rational Number
Rg230403   3
N 9 minutes ago by quantam13
Source: India EGMO 2022 TST P4
Let $N$ be a positive integer. Suppose given any real $x\in (0,1)$ with decimal representation $0.a_1a_2a_3a_4\cdots$, one can color the digits $a_1,a_2,\cdots$ with $N$ colors so that the following hold:
1. each color is used at least once;
2. for any color, if we delete all the digits in $x$ except those of this color, the resulting decimal number is rational.
Find the least possible value of $N$.

~Sutanay Bhattacharya
3 replies
Rg230403
Nov 28, 2021
quantam13
9 minutes ago
flipping rows on a matrix in F2
danepale   17
N 15 minutes ago by eg4334
Source: Croatia TST 2016
Let $N$ be a positive integer. Consider a $N \times N$ array of square unit cells. Two corner cells that lie on the same longest diagonal are colored black, and the rest of the array is white. A move consists of choosing a row or a column and changing the color of every cell in the chosen row or column.
What is the minimal number of additional cells that one has to color black such that, after a finite number of moves, a completely black board can be reached?
17 replies
danepale
Apr 27, 2016
eg4334
15 minutes ago
4 variables with quadrilateral sides
mihaig   4
N 22 minutes ago by arqady
Source: VL
Let $a,b,c,d\geq0$ satisfying
$$\frac1{a+1}+\frac1{b+1}+\frac1{c+1}+\frac1{d+1}=2.$$Prove
$$4\left(abc+abd+acd+bcd\right)\geq3\left(a+b+c+d\right)+4.$$
4 replies
mihaig
Yesterday at 5:11 AM
arqady
22 minutes ago
standard Q FE
jasperE3   4
N an hour ago by jasperE3
Source: gghx, p19004309
Find all functions $f:\mathbb Q\to\mathbb Q$ such that for any $x,y\in\mathbb Q$:
$$f(xf(x)+f(x+2y))=f(x)^2+f(y)+y.$$
4 replies
jasperE3
Apr 20, 2025
jasperE3
an hour ago
No more topics!
IMO 2014 Problem 5
codyj   72
N Apr 15, 2025 by math-olympiad-clown
For each positive integer $n$, the Bank of Cape Town issues coins of denomination $\frac1n$. Given a finite collection of such coins (of not necessarily different denominations) with total value at most most $99+\frac12$, prove that it is possible to split this collection into $100$ or fewer groups, such that each group has total value at most $1$.
72 replies
codyj
Jul 9, 2014
math-olympiad-clown
Apr 15, 2025
IMO 2014 Problem 5
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codyj
723 posts
#1 • 21 Y
Y by huyaguero1106, Davi-8191, tenplusten, OlympusHero, RedFlame2112, megarnie, Quidditch, OronSH, Adventure10, Mango247, radian_51, and 10 other users
For each positive integer $n$, the Bank of Cape Town issues coins of denomination $\frac1n$. Given a finite collection of such coins (of not necessarily different denominations) with total value at most most $99+\frac12$, prove that it is possible to split this collection into $100$ or fewer groups, such that each group has total value at most $1$.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by codyj, Jul 12, 2014, 12:54 AM
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fattypiggy123
615 posts
#2 • 13 Y
Y by Tawan, opptoinfinity, Amir Hossein, rkm0959, megarnie, Adventure10, Mango247, and 6 other users
http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?p=550634&sid=b86b26ebd9a4da148df0c43cb44622c1#p550634 is similar...
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mavropnevma
15142 posts
#3 • 17 Y
Y by mutasimmimxx, FlakeLCR, Tawan, opptoinfinity, rkm0959, Vietjung, Aparna_J, megarnie, Quidditch, Adventure10, Mango247, and 6 other users
For every positive integer $n$, Cape Town Bank issues coins of $\dfrac{1}{n}$ value. Consider a finite collection of such coins (the coins do not necessarily have different values), having the sum of their values at most $99+\frac{1}{2}$. Prove that we can partition the collection into at most $100$ groups, such that the sum of the coins' values in each group does not exceed $1$.
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prague123
230 posts
#4 • 8 Y
Y by Jasurbek, Adventure10, Mango247, and 5 other users
Let me guess:
The windmill problem in 2011, the tango problem in 2012, and the Cape town bank problem in 2014?
windmill: http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?p=2363537
tango: http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?f=42&t=492441
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IMO2018
62 posts
#5 • 7 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, and 5 other users
prague123 wrote:
Let me guess:
The windmill problem in 2011, the tango problem in 2012, and the Cape town bank problem in 2014?
windmill: http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?p=2363537
tango: http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?f=42&t=492441

Wrong. This problem was submitted by Luxembourg.
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manuel153
324 posts
#6 • 10 Y
Y by megarnie, Adventure10, Mango247, and 7 other users
@fattypiggy123: The problem in your link is superficially similar, but not really close to the IMO problem. Also Iura's solution in the link does not seem to carry over; one can get stuck in the middle with some coins left over.
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mssmath
977 posts
#7 • 8 Y
Y by megarnie, Adventure10, Mango247, and 5 other users
I agree with Manuel. The problem is quite a bit stronger.
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math_explorer
583 posts
#8 • 16 Y
Y by narutomath96, mathcool2009, Tawan, A_Math_Lover, peatlo17, Adventure10, Mango247, Gaunter_O_Dim_of_math, HunQuasimodo, and 7 other users
Prove the more general statement: if there are a collection of finite coins with sum of values less than $k - \frac{1}{2}$ then we can divide the collection into $k$ groups with the sum of coin values in each group not exceeding 1.

Induct on $k$; the base case is trivial. In the general case, if any subset of the finite coins has sum of values exactly $1$, we can put it into one group and induct immediately.

Otherwise, call coins with value $1/m$ big if $m \leq 2k$ and small otherwise.

First, for each big coin with value $1/m$, write $m$ as the product of an odd number and power of two, $m = 2^a \cdot \ell$, and classify the big coins into $k$ groups based on the value of $\ell$ (there are $k$ possible values of $\ell$, the odd numbers between $1$ and $2k - 1$.) Now note that each group has sum less than $1$, because if any group's sum exceeded $1$, due to the way each coin is a power of two multiple of another, we could have found a subset with sum exactly $1$ inside this group by greedily taking the largest coin, and then we'd have invoked the induction hypothesis.

So otherwise, we've put the big coins into groups. Now, we just take the small coins one by one and insert them into any group where they fit. If some coin $1/m$ doesn't fit in any group, then every group sum is greater than $1 - 1/m$, so the total sum of values of coins already in the groups at that point is greater than $k - k/m > k - 1/2$ since $m$ is a small coin, a contradiction. Therefore this produces a valid division.
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SCP
1502 posts
#9 • 11 Y
Y by Tawan, A_Math_Lover, Infinityfun, Adventure10, and 7 other users
General problem

For every positive integer $n$, Cape Town Bank issues some coins that has $\frac{1}{n}$ value. Let a collection of such finite coins (coins does not neccesarily have different values) which sum of their value is less than $r-\frac{1}{2}$. Prove that we can divide the collection into at most $r$ groups such that sum of all coins' value does not exceed $1$.

Proof with induction

For $r=1$ it is trivial.

Now assume it is proven for $r = 1,\cdots, R-1$.
We will prove it now for $r=R$.

If there is a sum of some such reciprocals equal to $1$, we just take these in one group and by induction it will work for the other coins.

So, if it would be impossible, we can look to the coins with value equal to a fraction of

$S_1:$ $1, \frac{1}{2},  \frac{1}{2^2} \cdots$
$S_2:$$\frac 13, \frac{1}{2*3},  \frac{1}{2^2*3} \cdots$
$\cdots $

$S_{R}:$ $\frac{1}{2R-1}, \frac{1}{2(2R-1)},\frac{1}{2^2(2R-1)}\cdots$
$\cdots$ (others)


CLAIM

The sum of coins in $S_i$ for $1 \le i \le R$ is each time smaller than one.
Proof: Else, the sum of som coins would be equal to one.

Now for each coin with an other value, we place it in a $S_i$ with $i \le R$ such that the sum of values in $S_i$ keeps being smaller or equal to one.

This is possible, as $min \{ S_i | i \le R\} \le \frac{R-0.5}{R} = 1 - \frac{1}{2R}$ and each new value is maximum $\frac{1}{2R+1}$.
Hence we can place all others.
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mavropnevma
15142 posts
#10 • 15 Y
Y by narutomath96, InCtrl, Tawan, A_Math_Lover, Vietjung, judgefan99, Adventure10, and 8 other users
Unfortunately, there is a 2006 article by Bar-Noy, Ladner and Tamir, dealing with precisely this problem, which they call off-line UFBP ("unit fractions bin packing"); see http://pdf.aminer.org/000/267/584/dynamic_bin_packing_of_unit_fractions_items.pdf(mainly page 7 and 8).

However, they only offer the bound $H+1$, where $H = \left \lceil 99 + \dfrac {1} {2}\right \rceil = 100$, thus $1$ worse than asked here! likely because they do not limit themselves at values $H - \dfrac {1}{2}$. Is this more general case that much harder? or is it easier?

It is quite strange how this has escaped the attention of the Problem Selection Committee!?!
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by mavropnevma, Jul 9, 2014, 1:06 PM
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fattypiggy123
615 posts
#11 • 10 Y
Y by Tawan, sa2001, Adventure10, and 7 other users
manuel153 wrote:
@fattypiggy123: The problem in your link is superficially similar, but not really close to the IMO problem. Also Iura's solution in the link does not seem to carry over; one can get stuck in the middle with some coins left over.

Indeed, the IMO problem might be harder but one can see from the solutions that they both share similar ideas, namely it is possible to ignore coins with big denomination.
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Fedor Petrov
520 posts
#12 • 14 Y
Y by manuel153, narutomath96, Perillover, Tawan, A_Math_Lover, danepale, Adventure10, and 7 other users
Denote 100 by $n$ and $99\frac12$ by $n-1/2$ and consider the minimal counterexample, at first minimal by $n$, then minimal by number of coins. If the lightest coin has weight $m$, then by minimality we may partition the other coins by $n$ groups, all at most 1 and at least $1-m$ (else we may add the lightest coin). So $n-1/2>n(1-m)+m$, $m>\frac1{2n-2}$. Next, if there are two coins with weights $1/2k$, they may be replaced to $1/k$ and our counterexample is not minimal. Analogously, if there exist $p$ coins of weight $1/p$. Then the total weight is less than
\[
\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \left(\frac 1{2k}+\frac{2k-2}{2k-1}\right)\leq 1/2+(n-2)\cdot 1=n-3/2
\]and our counterexamples works for $n-1$ instead of $n$. A contradiction.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Fedor Petrov, Oct 2, 2020, 7:40 PM
Reason: typo fixed
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manuel153
324 posts
#13 • 7 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, and 5 other users
Is the value $99+\frac12=99.50$ in the problem statement tight? It cannot be raised to $99.99$ (there are simple counter examples), but I see no reason why it cannot be raised to $99.51$.
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v_Enhance
6876 posts
#14 • 33 Y
Y by randomusername, abacadaea, DominicanAOPSer, anantmudgal09, InCtrl, quangminhltv99, biomathematics, tenplusten, Tawan, Aryan-23, rashah76, qubatae, Imayormaynotknowcalculus, TETris5, Ayod19, HamstPan38825, jeteagle, Quidditch, sabkx, Adventure10, Mango247, Assassino9931, bebebe, and 10 other users
The bound is not tight. We'll prove the result for at most $k - \frac{k}{2k+1}$ with $k$ groups.

First, perform the following optimizations.
- If any coin of size $\frac{1}{2m}$ appears twice, then replace it with a single coin of size $\frac{1}{m}$.
- If any coin of size $\frac{1}{2m+1}$ appears $2m+1$ times, group it into a single group and induct downwards.
Apply this operation repeatedly until it cannot be done anymore.

Now construct boxes $B_0$, $B_1$, \dots, $B_{k-1}$. In box $B_0$ put any coins of size $\tfrac 12$ (clearly there is at most one).
In the other boxes $B_m$, put coins of size $\frac{1}{2m+1}$ and $\frac{1}{2m+2}$ (at most $2m$ of the former and at most one of the latter).
Note that the total weight in the box is less than $1$.
Finally, place the remaining ``light'' coins of size at most $\frac{1}{2k+1}$ in a pile.

Then just toss coins from the pile into the boxes arbitrarily, other than the proviso that no box should have its weight exceed $1$.
We claim this uses up all coins in the pile. Assume not, and that some coin remains in the pile when all the boxes are saturated.
Then all the boxes must have at least $1 -\frac{1}{2k+1}$, meaning the total amount in the boxes is strictly greater than
\[ k \left( 1 - \frac{1}{2k+1} \right) \]
which is a contradiction. (The inequality is strict since the pile has a coin leftover.)

And dear IMO jury: THIS IS NOT A NUMBER THEORY PROBLEM.
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manuel153
324 posts
#15 • 7 Y
Y by Aryan-23, Adventure10, and 5 other users
v_Enhance's argument raises the bound from $90.50000$ to $90.50248\ldots=99+\frac12+\frac{1}{402}$. How much farther can we go?
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