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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
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jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
NEPAL TST DAY 2 PROBLEM 2
Tony_stark0094   1
N a few seconds ago by sansgankrsngupta
Kritesh manages traffic on a $45 \times 45$ grid consisting of 2025 unit squares. Within each unit square is a car, facing either up, down, left, or right. If the square in front of a car in the direction it is facing is empty, it can choose to move forward. Each car wishes to exit the $45 \times 45$ grid.

Kritesh realizes that it may not always be possible for all the cars to leave the grid. Therefore, before the process begins, he will remove $k$ cars from the $45 \times 45$ grid in such a way that it becomes possible for all the remaining cars to eventually exit the grid.

What is the minimum value of $k$ that guarantees that Kritesh's job is possible?
1 reply
Tony_stark0094
13 minutes ago
sansgankrsngupta
a few seconds ago
NEPAL TST 2025 DAY 2
Tony_stark0094   0
10 minutes ago
Consider an acute triangle $\Delta ABC$. Let $D$ and $E$ be the feet of the altitudes from $A$ to $BC$ and from $B$ to $AC$ respectively.

Define $D_1$ and $D_2$ as the reflections of $D$ across lines $AB$ and $AC$, respectively. Let $\Gamma$ be the circumcircle of $\Delta AD_1D_2$. Denote by $P$ the second intersection of line $D_1B$ with $\Gamma$, and by $Q$ the intersection of ray $EB$ with $\Gamma$.

If $O$ is the circumcenter of $\Delta ABC$, prove that $O$, $D$, and $Q$ are collinear if and only if quadrilateral $BCQP$ can be inscribed within a circle.
0 replies
Tony_stark0094
10 minutes ago
0 replies
D1010 : How it is possible ?
Dattier   16
N 10 minutes ago by Dattier
Source: les dattes à Dattier
Is it true that$$\forall n \in \mathbb N^*, (24^n \times B \mod A) \mod 2 = 0 $$?

A=1728400904217815186787639216753921417860004366580219212750904
024377969478249664644267971025952530803647043121025959018172048
336953969062151534282052863307398281681465366665810775710867856
720572225880311472925624694183944650261079955759251769111321319
421445397848518597584590900951222557860592579005088853698315463
815905425095325508106272375728975

B=2275643401548081847207782760491442295266487354750527085289354
965376765188468052271190172787064418854789322484305145310707614
546573398182642923893780527037224143380886260467760991228567577
953725945090125797351518670892779468968705801340068681556238850
340398780828104506916965606659768601942798676554332768254089685
307970609932846902
16 replies
Dattier
Mar 10, 2025
Dattier
10 minutes ago
NEPAL TST DAY-2 PROBLEM 1
Tony_stark0094   0
15 minutes ago


Let the sequence $\{a_n\}_{n \geq 1}$ be defined by
\[
a_1 = 1, \quad a_{n+1} = a_n + \frac{1}{\sqrt[2024]{a_n}} \quad \text{for } n \geq 1, \, n \in \mathbb{N}
\]Prove that
\[
a_n^{2025} >n^{2024}
\]for all positive integers $n \geq 2$.
0 replies
Tony_stark0094
15 minutes ago
0 replies
No more topics!
Hard functional equation
Hopeooooo   33
N Apr 4, 2025 by jasperE3
Source: IMO shortlist A8 2020
Let $R^+$ be the set of positive real numbers. Determine all functions $f:R^+$ $\rightarrow$ $R^+$ such that for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y:$
\[f(x+f(xy))+y=f(x)f(y)+1\]
Ukraine
33 replies
Hopeooooo
Jul 20, 2021
jasperE3
Apr 4, 2025
Hard functional equation
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: IMO shortlist A8 2020
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Hopeooooo
819 posts
#1 • 11 Y
Y by centslordm, HWenslawski, megarnie, jhu08, rama1728, eisenberg.k, son7, ImSh95, tiendung2006, ehuseyinyigit, Sedro
Let $R^+$ be the set of positive real numbers. Determine all functions $f:R^+$ $\rightarrow$ $R^+$ such that for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y:$
\[f(x+f(xy))+y=f(x)f(y)+1\]
Ukraine
This post has been edited 16 times. Last edited by nsato, Feb 26, 2025, 4:44 AM
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spartacle
538 posts
#2 • 16 Y
Y by centslordm, Mathmick51, TLP.39, HWenslawski, mijail, jhu08, megarnie, samrocksnature, IAmTheHazard, son7, ImSh95, NTSQWER, WTFrrrrrrrf, Zhaom, aidan0626, yaybanana
Does this actually work? Uh....

Solution
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nukelauncher
354 posts
#3 • 8 Y
Y by samrocksnature, centslordm, jhu08, megarnie, math31415926535, son7, ImSh95, ehuseyinyigit
This was an extremely difficult but very nice FE. Solved with Ankit Bisain and Luke Robitaille.
Solution
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mathaddiction
308 posts
#4 • 4 Y
Y by centslordm, jhu08, son7, ImSh95
The solution is $f(x)=x+1$ which obviously works. We now show that it is the only solution.
Claim. $f$ is injective
Proof. Label
$$f(x+f(xy))+y=f(x)f(y)+1\hspace{20pt}(1)$$Suppose $f(a)=f(b)$ and put $(x,y)=(1,a)$ and $(1,b)$ in $(1)$ we have
\begin{align*}
    f(1+f(a))+a&=f(1)f(a)+1\\
    f(1+f(b))+b&=f(1)f(b)+1
\end{align*}Hence $a=b$ as desired. $\blacksquare$
Claim. $f$ is increasing.
Proof.
Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$ and $a>b$. Let $x_2=\frac{ka}{a-b}$ and $x_1=\frac{kb}{a-b}$, where $k=f(b)-f(a)$, let $y=\frac{a-b}{k}$, then
$$x_1+f(x_1y)=x_2+f(x_2y)$$Hence
$$f(x_1)=f(x_2)$$and so $x_1=x_2$ from injectivity, which implies $a=b$, contradiction. $\blacksquare$
Now swap $x,y$ in $(1)$ we have
$$f(x+f(xy))-f(y+f(xy))=x-y\hspace{20pt}(2)$$Claim. $f(x)>1$ for all $x\in\mathbb R^+$
Proof.
If $f(x)=1$, put $y=1$ in $(1)$,
$$f(x+1)=f(1)$$so $x=0$, contradiction.
Now from $(1)$, $$f(x)f(y)+1>y\hspace{20pt}(3)$$so
$$f(y)>\frac{y-1}{f(1)}$$hence
$$\lim_{y\to\infty}f(y)=\infty$$Meanwhile, $f(x)>\frac{1}{f(2)}$ by putting $y=2$ in $(3)$. If $f(y)<1$ for some $y$, define a sequence $\{x_n\}$ by
$$x_{n+1}=x_n+f(x_ny)$$then $x_{n+1}\to\infty$, however, it is not hard to see $f(x_n)$ is bounded since
$$f(x_{n+1})=f(x_n+f(x_ny))=f(x_n)f(y)+1-y$$hence by recursion
$$f(x_{n+1})\leq f(y)^{n+1}+\frac{1-y}{1-f(y)}$$contradiction. $\blacksquare$
Claim. $$\lim_{x\to 0}f(x)=1$$Proof.
We show that there exists a sequence $x_n\to 0$ such that $f(x_n)\to 1$, then the assertion clearly follows from the increasing property of the function.
Let $x=y+f(1)$ in $(2)$, then
$$f(y+f(1)+f(xy))-f(y+f(xy))=x-y=f(1)$$Hence there exists sufficiently large $z$ such that $f(z+f(1))-f(z)=f(1)$. Suppose on the contrary that for every positive real $n$, $f(n)\geq 1+C$ for some $C>0$, then sub. $(x,y)=(z,\frac{1}{z})$ in $(1)$,
$$f(z+f(1))-f(z)=f(z)\left(f\left(\frac{1}{z}\right)-1\right)+1-\frac{1}{z}>cf\left(\frac{1}{z}\right)+1-\frac{1}{z}\hspace{20pt}(4)$$contradiction. $\blacksquare$
Now put $x=y$ in $(1)$ and let $x,y\to 0$, then
$$\lim_{x\to 1}f(x)=2$$Therefore, letting $x\to 0$ in $(1)$ we have
$$2+y=f(y)+1$$hence $f(y)=y+1$ as desired.
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menpo
209 posts
#6 • 5 Y
Y by centslordm, jhu08, son7, ImSh95, hieuasroma123
After injectivity and increasing of function $f$ it can be done as follows

Lemma: From monotonous of function $f$ it follows that, for any $t\ge 0$ there exists $\lim_{x\to t^{+}}f(x) \ge 0.$

Let $A = \lim_{x\to 0^{+}}f(x)$ and $B=\lim_{x\to A^{+}}f(x).$ Fix some $c\in\mathbb{R^{+}}.$
$$B+c = \lim_{x\to 0^{+}}(f(x+f(xc))+c=\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}(f(x)f(c)+1) = Af(c)+1$$
Therefore $f$ is linear. Further part of solution is quite easy.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by menpo, Jul 21, 2021, 4:49 AM
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samrocksnature
8791 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by jhu08, ImSh95
nukelauncher wrote:
Solved with Ankit Bisain and Luke Robitaille.
:o
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kmdngdng
3 posts
#8 • 6 Y
Y by Hoto_Mukai, centslordm, jhu08, ImSh95, tadpoleloop, ehuseyinyigit
Easy for A8

Click to reveal hidden text
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megarnie
5560 posts
#9 • 2 Y
Y by jhu08, ImSh95
I have shown Click to reveal hidden text. Can someone give me a hint on what to do next?
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megarnie
5560 posts
#10 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
/bump Anyone has a hint?
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VicKmath7
1388 posts
#11 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
Show it's strictly increasing, and then consider the lim $p$ of $f(x)$ when $x$ approaches $0$, and the lim $q$ of $f(x)$, when $x$ approaches $p$. Use this to prove linearity (consider what happens when you let $x$ approach $0$ in the FE)
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by VicKmath7, Aug 26, 2021, 3:13 PM
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megarnie
5560 posts
#12 • 2 Y
Y by ImSh95, Mango247
VicKmath7 wrote:
Show it's strictly increasing, and then consider the lim $p$ of $f(x)$ when $x$ approaches $0$, and the lim $q$ of $f(x)$, when $x$ approaches $p$. Use this to prove linearity (consider what happens when you let $x$ approach $0$ in the FE)

Thanks, I will try to do this.
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MathLuis
1475 posts
#13 • 5 Y
Y by samrocksnature, rama1728, ImSh95, Mango247, Mango247
Hardest F.E. i solved on my life.
Denote $P(x,y)$ the assertion of the given F.E.
Claim 1: $f$ is injective
Proof: Let $a,b$ be positive reals such that $f(a)=f(b)$. Then by $P(1,a)-P(1,b)$
$$f(1+f(a))-f(1+f(b))+a-b=f(1)f(a)-f(1)f(b)+1-1 \implies a=b \implies f \; \text{injective}$$Claim 2: $f$ is strictly increasing
Proof: Assume that there exists $m,n$ such that $m>n$ and $f(n)>f(m)$ then:
$P \left(\frac{nf(n)-nf(m)}{m-n}, \frac{m-n}{f(n)-f(m)} \right)-P \left(\frac{mf(n)-mf(m)}{m-n}, \frac{m-n}{f(n)-f(m)} \right)$
$$f \left( \frac{nf(n)-nf(m)}{m-n} \right)=f \left( \frac{mf(n)-mf(m)}{m-n} \right) \implies m=n \implies \text{contradiction!!}$$We used Claim 1 to show that $f$ is strictly increasing becuase its increasing+injective.
Claim 3: $f$ is lineal.
Proof: Since $f$ is strictly increasing it makes sence the replace $f(x)=\lim_{x \to z^+} h(z)$ where $z \ge 0$. Thus now replacing $x \to 0^+$ on the original F.E.
$$h(h(0))+y=h(0)f(y)+1 \implies f \; \text{lineal}$$Claim 4: $f(x)=x+1$ for every positive real $x$
Proof: We have that $f(x)=ux+v$ where $u,v$ are positive real numbers, then replacing:
$$ux+uv+v+y=uvx+uvy+v^2+1 \overset{x=y=1}{\implies} (u+v)=(u+v)v \implies v=1 \implies f(x)=ux+1$$$$u+y=uy+1 \overset{y=2}{\implies} u=1 \implies f(x)=x+1$$Thus we are done :blush:
Note
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nguyenvuthanhha
482 posts
#14 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
mathaddiction wrote:
however, it is not hard to see $f(x_n)$ is bounded since
$$f(x_{n+1})=f(x_n+f(x_ny))=f(x_n)f(y)+1-y$$hence by recursion
$$f(x_{n+1})\leq f(y)^{n+1}+\frac{1-y}{1-f(y)}$$
.

Sorry but I don't understand this step. Can anybody help to clarify?
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rama1728
800 posts
#15 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
Hopeooooo wrote:
Let $R+$ be the set of positive real numbers. Determine all functions $f:R+$ $\rightarrow$ $R+$ such that for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y$
$f(x+f(xy))+y=f(x)f(y)+1$

$(Ukraine)$

Oh my god. This is one of the hardest fes I have ever done in my life. Not only is it hard, but it is also the type of fe which is trivialized when the domain adds a \(0\). Since I love this problem, I will try to give some motivations.

Let \(P(x,y)\) denote the assertion of the given functional equation. \(P(1,y)\) gives us that \(f\) is injective. Now, we know that if \(f\) is strictly increasing, then we can let \(f(x)=\lim_{x\rightarrow0}g(x)\), because \(f\) is increasing and \(g(0)\neq0\). So we have \[g(g(0))+y=g(0)f(y)+1\]implying that \(f\) is linear. Now we should show that \(f\) is strictly increasing. One idea we could try to use is that if \(m>n\) and \(f(m)<f(n)\), we should try to get \(m=n\) through some trick. Now, looking at the functional equation, substituting \(x\) or \(y\) as \(m\) will definitely not yield anything useful. So we now move to the next possibility, that is letting \(xy\) to be \(m\) or \(n\). We take the assertions \(P\left(x,\frac{m}{x}\right)\) and \(P\left(y,\frac{n}{y}\right)\). These assertions yield us \[f(x+f(m))+\frac{m}{x}=f(x)f\left(\frac{m}{x}\right)+1\]and \[f(y+f(n))+\frac{n}{y}=f(y)f\left(\frac{n}{y}\right)+1\]Now, if we let \(\frac{m}{x}=\frac{n}{y}\), then comparing the equations we got, the \(\frac{m}{x}\) and \(\frac{n}{y}\) terms cancel off and the \(f\left(\frac{m}{x}\right)\) term is common. Now, if we also assume that \(x+f(m)=y+f(n)\), we get that \(f(x)=f(y)\) and so \(x=y\) by injectivity! Now we should solve the system of equations
\[\begin{cases}
\frac{m}{x}=\frac{n}{y} \\
x+f(m)=y+f(n)
\end{cases}\]to get \((x,y)=\left(\frac{m(f(n)-f(m))}{m-n},\frac{n(f(n)-f(m))}{m-n}\right)\) and \(x,y\) are both positive too, so we can put them in the assertion. So, we have that \(f\left(\frac{n(f(n)-f(m))}{m-n}\right)=f\left(\frac{m(f(n)-f(m))}{m-n}\right)\) so \(m=n\), a contradiction, thus \(f\) is strictly increasing. Now that \(f\) is strictly increasing, from the first paragraphs, we see that \(f\) is linear. Checking the original assertion yields that \(f(x)=x+1\) for all positive reals \(x\), and we are done.

Remarks

PS: I edited the solution thanks to Luke Robitaille (I missed a crucial detail)
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by rama1728, Nov 21, 2021, 6:00 AM
Reason: .
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rama1728
800 posts
#16 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
mathaddiction wrote:
Claim. $f(x)>1$ for all $x\in\mathbb R^+$
Proof.
If $f(x)=1$, put $y=1$ in $(1)$,
$$f(x+1)=f(1)$$so $x=0$, contradiction.

Um what if \(f(x)<1\)? You have not discussed that case :huh:
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geometryzeus
4 posts
#17 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
http://www.imo-official.org/problems.aspx
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rama1728
800 posts
#18 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
geometryzeus wrote:
http://www.imo-official.org/problems.aspx
Uhh what do you want to convey?
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CANBANKAN
1301 posts
#19 • 2 Y
Y by rama1728, ImSh95
Let $P(x,y)$ denote the condition in the question.

Solution. Claim 1: $f$ is injective.

Proof: Suppose $f(a)=f(b)$. Comparing $P(1,b)$ with $P(1,a)$ forces $a=b$, as needed.

Claim 2: $f$ is increasing.

Proof: Fix $y$, move $x$

We know if $x_1\ne x_2$

Then $f(x_1+f(x_1y)) \ne f(x_2+f(x_2y))$

$x_1+f(x_1y)\ne x_2+f(x_2y)$

Let $t_1=x_1y, t_2=x_2y$ then this becomes $\frac{t_1-t_2}{y} = f(t_2)-f(t_1)$.

If $f(a)>f(b)$ but $a<b$ we can have $t_2=a, t_1=b, y=\frac{b-a}{f(a)-f(b)}$.

With this in mind, we know $f(x+f(xy))>f(x)$

Therefore, $y<f(x)(f(y)-1)+1$

$f(y)>1+\frac{y-1}{m}$ where $m=\lim\limits_{x\to 0} f(x)$.

Claim 3: $m= 1$.

Suppose $m>1$. Then let $a=f(1)$. $P(x,x^{-1})$ yields $f(x+a)=1-\frac 1x + f(x)f(x^{-1}) > 1-\frac 1x +m^2$. Denote this assertion $Q(x)$

Consider a chain $x\rightarrow x+a\rightarrow x+2a\rightarrow \cdots$. By induction, we can show if $x>1$, then $f(x+ta)>m^t$. This implies $f$ is greater than exponential growth.

Finish 1: Set $x=y$ to get $f(x)>\frac 12 \sqrt{f(x+f(x^2)} = \frac 12 \sqrt{c^{x+f(x^2)}} > \frac 12 c^{\frac 12(x+c^{x^2})}$ for some $c>1$ and $x$ large enough. Now, we repeat this argument for $x=y$ to get arbitarily large bounds on size of $f$ ). In particular, if we fix $f(t)=a$ for any $t$ we can get a contradiction after a couple of "recursions". We can also increase $m$ by setting $x\rightarrow 0$.

Finish 2. Consider another chain $x_0=x, x_n=x_{n-1}+f(x_{n-1})$. Note $P(x_n,1)$ yields $f(x_n)=f(x_{n-1})f(1)$ so $f(x_n)=f(x)f(1)^n$. However, $x_n$ is also exponential, so $f$ is near linear at $x_n$, contradiction.

Suppose $m<1$ then $f(y)>1+\frac{y-1}{m}$. Using $f(x+f(xy))-(x+f(xy))=f(y+f(xy))-(y+f(xy))$ we can get similar arbitrarily large bounds for f.

Therefore, $m=1$.

Now, setting $x\to 0$, $P(x,x)$ gives $\lim_{x\to 0} f(x+1)=2$

Therefore, $P(x\rightarrow 0,y)$ gives $f(1)+y=1f(y)+1$, so $f(y)\equiv y+1$.
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megarnie
5560 posts
#20 • 2 Y
Y by nguyenvuthanhha, ImSh95
Solved with hint by VicKmath7

Claim: $f$ is injective.
Proof: $P(1,x): f(1+f(x))+x=f(1)f(x)+1$.

If $f(a)=f(b)$, then do $P(1,a)-P(1,b)$ to get $a=b$. $\blacksquare$

Claim: $f$ is strictly increasing
Proof: Suppose there are $a$ and $b$ with $a>b$ and $f(b)>f(a)$ (since $f$ is injective, showing that this is not possible proves our claim).

Note that $c=\frac{a-b}{f(b)-f(a)}$ is positive.

$P\left(\frac{a}{c},c\right): f\left(\frac{a}{c}+f(a)\right)+c=f\left(\frac{a}{c}\right)f(c)+1$.

We have \[\frac{a}{c}+f(a)=\frac{af(b)-af(a)+af(a)-bf(a)}{a-b}=\frac{af(b)-bf(a)}{a-b}.\]We also have \[\frac{b}{c}+f(b)=\frac{bf(b)-bf(a)+af(b)-bf(b)}{a-b}=\frac{af(b)-bf(a)}{a-b}=\frac{a}{c}+f(a)\]So doing $P\left(\frac{b}{c},c\right)$ gives $f\left(\frac{a}{c}\right)=f\left(\frac{b}{c}\right)$, so $a=b$. $\blacksquare$

Claim: $f$ is linear
Let $p$ be the limit when $f(x)$ approaches $0$ and $q$ be the limit when $f(x)$ approaches $p$ from above. We will show that $q+y=pf(y)+1$, which implies $f$ is linear.

Set $x$ arbitrarily close to $0$. Then we get $f(x+p)+y=pf(y)+1\implies q+y=pf(y)+1$. $\blacksquare$

\begin{align*}
P(1,x): f(ax+b+1)+x=(ax+b)(a+b)+1 \\
\implies a^2x+ab+a+b+x=a^2x+ab+b^2+axb+1 \\
\implies a+b+x=b^2+axb+1 \\\implies ab=1\\ \text{and } a+b=b^2+1 \\
\end{align*}Now we get $a+\frac{1}{a}=\frac{1}{a^2}+1$. Multiplying by $a^2$ gives $a^3-a^2+a-1=0$. So $(a-1)(a^2+1)=0$. Since $a$ is real, $a=b=1$ and the only solution is $\boxed{f(x)=x+1}$, which works.
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ZETA_in_olympiad
2211 posts
#21 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
problem
n/n part of sol
This post has been edited 13 times. Last edited by ZETA_in_olympiad, Apr 9, 2022, 8:53 AM
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ZETA_in_olympiad
2211 posts
#22 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
The hardest part was proving $f(x)=ax+b,$ and I think this defines the difficulty of the whole problem, well at least in my case. Nevertheless thank you Ukraine for the problem.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by ZETA_in_olympiad, Apr 9, 2022, 6:43 AM
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oVlad
1724 posts
#23 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
ZETA_in_olympiad wrote:
Claim 2: $f$ is a non-decreasing monotonic function.
Proof. From injectivity it follows,
$$\forall a,b \in \mathbb{R^+}: a\neq b\implies a+f(ay)\neq b+f(by).$$
@ZETA_in_olympiad be careful! Injectivity and the fact that $a\neq b$ do not necessarily imply $a+f(ay)\neq b+f(by).$ What if $a=1,b=2$ and $f(ay)=2,f(by)=1$ for example? Generally speaking, if $x\neq y$ and $m\neq n$ we do not necessarily have $x+m\neq y+n.$
ZETA_in_olympiad wrote:
$n+y=mf(y)+1\implies f(y)=\frac{n+y-1}{m} ~~\forall m\neq 0.$
As a side note, you should clearly state that due to $f$ being non-decreasing, we cannot have $m=n=\infty,$ so we also cannot have $m=\infty$ or $n=\infty.$ You also have to make sure that $m\neq 0$ and only then can you say that $f(y)=(n+y-1)/m.$ I am unsure what you meant by $\forall m\neq 0$, as $m$ is a constant.
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ZETA_in_olympiad
2211 posts
#24 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
oVlad wrote:
I am unsure what you meant by $\forall m\neq 0$, as $m$ is a constant.
$m=0$ means $n+y=1$ which is false. I realize "for all" is absurd here.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by ZETA_in_olympiad, Apr 9, 2022, 8:43 AM
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ZETA_in_olympiad
2211 posts
#26 • 2 Y
Y by ImSh95, doanquangdang
oVlad wrote:
ZETA_in_olympiad wrote:
Claim 2: $f$ is a non-decreasing monotonic function.
Proof. From injectivity it follows,
$$\forall a,b \in \mathbb{R^+}: a\neq b\implies a+f(ay)\neq b+f(by).$$
@ZETA_in_olympiad be careful! Injectivity and the fact that $a\neq b$ do not necessarily imply $a+f(ay)\neq b+f(by).$ What if $a=1,b=2$ and $f(ay)=2,f(by)=1$ for example? Generally speaking, if $x\neq y$ and $m\neq n$ we do not necessarily have $x+m\neq y+n.$

Fixed it (?) Thanks for pointing. I don't know if there are more loopholes.
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nguyenvuthanhha
482 posts
#31 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
megarnie wrote:

Claim: $f$ is linear
Let $p$ be the limit when $f(x)$ approaches $0$ and $q$ be the limit when $f(x)$ approaches $p$ from above. We will show that $q+y=pf(y)+1$, which implies $f$ is linear.

Set $x$ arbitrarily close to $0$. Then we get $f(x+p)+y=pf(y)+1\implies q+y=pf(y)+1$. $\blacksquare$

\begin{align*}
P(1,x): f(ax+b+1)+x=(ax+b)(a+b)+1 \\
\implies a^2x+ab+a+b+x=a^2x+ab+b^2+axb+1 \\
\implies a+b+x=b^2+axb+1 \\\implies ab=1\\ \text{and } a+b=b^2+1 \\
\end{align*}Now we get $a+\frac{1}{a}=\frac{1}{a^2}+1$. Multiplying by $a^2$ gives $a^3-a^2+a-1=0$. So $(a-1)(a^2+1)=0$. Since $a$ is real, $a=b=1$ and the only solution is $\boxed{f(x)=x+1}$, which works.

Hello, Sorry for my question but why do you know that there exists that two limits?
There is no hypothesis for the continuity of $f$
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megarnie
5560 posts
#32 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
nguyenvuthanhha wrote:
megarnie wrote:

Claim: $f$ is linear
Let $p$ be the limit when $f(x)$ approaches $0$ and $q$ be the limit when $f(x)$ approaches $p$ from above. We will show that $q+y=pf(y)+1$, which implies $f$ is linear.

Set $x$ arbitrarily close to $0$. Then we get $f(x+p)+y=pf(y)+1\implies q+y=pf(y)+1$. $\blacksquare$

\begin{align*}
P(1,x): f(ax+b+1)+x=(ax+b)(a+b)+1 \\
\implies a^2x+ab+a+b+x=a^2x+ab+b^2+axb+1 \\
\implies a+b+x=b^2+axb+1 \\\implies ab=1\\ \text{and } a+b=b^2+1 \\
\end{align*}Now we get $a+\frac{1}{a}=\frac{1}{a^2}+1$. Multiplying by $a^2$ gives $a^3-a^2+a-1=0$. So $(a-1)(a^2+1)=0$. Since $a$ is real, $a=b=1$ and the only solution is $\boxed{f(x)=x+1}$, which works.

Hello, Sorry for my question but why do you know that there exists that two limits?
There is no hypothesis for the continuity of $f$

f is strictly increasing
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DottedCaculator
7330 posts
#33 • 2 Y
Y by ImSh95, Mango247
why is f strictly increasing?
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megarnie
5560 posts
#34 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
DottedCaculator wrote:
why is f strictly increasing?

because i proved f is strictly increasing
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ZETA_in_olympiad
2211 posts
#35 • 1 Y
Y by ImSh95
DottedCaculator wrote:
why is f strictly increasing?

User nguyenvuthanhha did cut the $f$ is strictly increasing part in his quote.
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Ru83n05
170 posts
#36
Y by
This seems diferent to the above, I hope it is correct. I really enjoyed this FE!

I claim the only such function is $f(x)=x+1$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^+$, which clearly works. I now prove that this is the only one.

My proof procedes in four steps. First, I find $f(1)$ and solve the functional equation over the positive rationals. Then, I prove injectivity and strict monotonicity to finally extend my result to $\mathbb{R}^+$ and conclude.

Step 1: We find $f(1)=2$.

For now, let $a:=f(1)$. I claim the following
Claim: In fact, it holds that
$$k:=\inf_{y\in \mathbb{R}^+} \left \{ \frac{f(y)}{y+1} \right\}=a-1$$Pf:
First I claim that $k\leq a-1$. If not, then by definition of $a, k$ we find
\begin{align}
    P(x, 1): af(x)=f(x+f(x))\geq k(x+f(x)+1)\implies \frac{f(x)}{x+1}\geq \frac{k}{a-k} \text{ for all } x\in \mathbb{R}^+
    \label{eq:cooleq}
\end{align}but by our assumption $a-k<1$ and we must have
$$\frac{k}{a-k}>k$$which contradicts the fact that $k$ is the infimum.

Now I claim $k\geq a-1$, which proves that $k=a-1$. Consider the sequence $\{k_i\}_{i=1}^{\infty}$ defined by
$$k_1=k \text{ and } k_{n+1}=\frac{k_n}{a-k_n} \text{ for all } n\geq 0, $$which has limit $a-1$. Notice that Equation (1) implies that
$$\frac{f(x)}{x+1}\geq k_n \text{ for every } x\in \mathbb{R}^+ \text{ and } n\in \mathbb{N}$$and thus we must also have
$$\frac{f(x)}{x+1}\geq \lim_{n\to\infty} k_n=a-1.$$In particular, by definition of infimum, we must have $k\geq a-1$, as desired. $\blacksquare$

Now see that
$$P(1, x): af(x)+1=x+f(1+f(x))\geq x+(a-1)(1+f(x)+1)\implies \frac{f(x)}{x+1}\geq 1+\frac{2(a-2)}{x+1}$$Since we have seen that $k=a-1$, applying this result to the above yields
$$1+\frac{2(a-2)}{x+1}\leq a-1 \text{ for every } x\in \mathbb{R}^+\implies (a-2)(x-1)\geq 0 \text{ for every } x\in \mathbb{R}^+$$which is a contradiction unless we have exactly $a=2$.

Step 2: We have
$$f(q)=q+1 \text{ for every } q\in \mathbb{Q}^+$$
The proof is a straightforward induction starting with the base case $f(1)=2$, proven in Step~1.

Step 3: $f$ is strictly monotone increasing (and injective).

Injectivity follows from $P(1, x)$. Since $f$ is injective, we must have
$$x_1+f(x_1y)=x_2+f(x_2y)\implies x_1=x_2$$for a fixed $y\in \mathbb{R}^+$, by looking at the LHS of $P(x_1, y)$ and $P(x_2, y)$. In particular, this means that we can never have
$$\frac{1}{y}=\frac{f(x_1y)-f(x_2y)}{-(x_1y-x_2y)} \text{ when } x_1y\neq x_2y$$implying that $f(a)-f(b)$ and $a-b$ have the same sign, as desired.

Step 4: $f(x)=x+1$ for all $x\in \mathbb{R}^+$

We will prove that given that we know values at all rational points and monotonicity, we can conclude that $f(x)\equiv x+1$.

Suppose that for some $x\in \mathbb{R}^+$ we have $f(x)\neq x+1$. Then we can find some rational $q$ such that
$$x+1 < q=f(q-1)<f(x)$$But since $f$ is monotone increasing we must have
$$q-1<x,$$a contradiction to $x+1<q$.


Hence we have proven that $f(x)=x+1$ is the only function that satisfies the problem statement over $\mathbb{R}^+$ $\square$
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by Ru83n05, Nov 15, 2022, 10:48 PM
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awesomeming327.
1692 posts
#38 • 1 Y
Y by GeoKing
Let $P(x,y)$ denote the assertion. We have $f(1,y)$ implies $f(1+f(y))+y=f(1)f(y)+1$, so $f$ is injective. Next, consider $P(\tfrac{x}{a},x)$ which gives
\[f\left(\frac{x}{a}+f(x)\right)+a=f\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)+1\]Thus, if $\tfrac{x}{a}+f(x)=\tfrac{y}{a}+f(y)$ then $x=y$. Suppose $x>y$ then $\tfrac{x}{a}+f(x)\neq \tfrac{y}{a}+f(y)$ for any $y$. If $f(y)<f(x)$ then $a$ must exist to make that equation come true, so $f(y)>f(x)$, implying that $f$ is increasing.

Let $x^+$ be a number that approaches $x$ from the positive side. In particular, $f(x^+)=\lim_{t\to x^+}(f(t))$. Note that $0^++c=c^+$, so $P(0^+,y)$ gives $f(f(0^+)^+)+y=f(0^+)f(y)+1$ which implies that $f$ is linear. Let $f(x)=ax+b$ where $a>0, b\ge 0$ then $ax+a^2xy+ab+b+y=a^2xy+abx+aby+b^2+1$ for all positive $x$ and $y$ which clearly implies $a=b=1$. From our derivation of $f$ is is clear that $f(x)=x+1$ works.
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hef4875
131 posts
#39
Y by
Someone please explain this for me, i agree that fix y and taking x to 0+ will exist
limf(x)=p x->0+
and
lim f(x+p)=q x->0+
But the step when x->0+ ,f(xy) -> p,
$limf(x+f(xy)) = lim(x+p)$
would require f is continuous, right?(the step written in latex)
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by hef4875, Jan 22, 2024, 3:15 AM
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amogususususus
369 posts
#43
Y by
One of the hardest FE I've solved :play_ball: .

The only function that satisfies is $f(x)=x+1 \ \forall \ x \in \mathbb{R^+}$. Clearly this function works, now we'll prove that only this function satisfies. Let $P(x,y)$ denote the assertion. All variables mentioned should be in $\mathbb{R^+}$ unless specified.
Claim 1. $f$ is injective
Proof. If $f(a)=f(b)$, then $P(1,a)$ and $P(1,b)$ implies that $a=b$. As desired.
Claim 2. $f(1)=2$
Proof. Let $f(1)=c$. First, from $P(1,y)$ we have
$$f(1+f(y))=cf(y)+1-y \ \ (1)$$. While from $P(x,1)$ we have
$$(x+f(x))=cf(x) \ \ (2)$$. Plug $x=1$ to $(2)$ and get $f(1+c)=c^2$ plug $x=1+c$ to $(1)$ again to get $f(1+c+c^2)=c^3$, do this one more time and get
$$f(1+c+c^2+c^3)=c^4 \Rightarrow f((1+c)(1+c^2))=c^4$$.Next, plug $y=1+c$ to $(1)$ and get $f(1+c^2)=c^3-c$ and plug $y=1+c+c^2$ to $(2)$ and get $f(1+c^3)=c^4-c^2-c$. Now from $P(1+f(1),1+f(1)^2)$, we have
$$f(1+c+c^4)=c(c^4-c^2-c)$$On the other hand, if we plug $x=1+c^3$ to $(2)$ we will get
$$f(c^4+c^3-c^2-c+1)=c(c^4-c^2-c)$$. By injectivity we get
$$c^3-c^2-c=c \Rightarrow c(c+1)(c-2)=0$$. Hence $f(1)=c=2$. As desired.
Claim 3. $f$ is strictly increasing
Proof. For $x<y$, assume $f(x)>f(y)$. Note that $P\left( \frac{x(f(x)-f(y))}{y-x},\frac{y-x}{f(y)-f(x)} \right)$ shows
$$f\left( \frac{yf(x)-xf(y)}{y-x} \right)+ \frac{y-x}{f(y)-f(x)}=f\left( \frac{x(f(x)-f(y))}{y-x}\right)f\left( \frac{y-x}{f(y)-f(x)} \right)+1$$. Where the LHS is symmetric in $x,y$ so swapping them and using injectivity gives $x=y$. A contradiction. Hence we must have $f(x)<f(y)$ since $f(x) \neq f(y)$.
Claim 4. $f(x)>1$
Proof. We can use $(2)$ and $f(1)=2$ to inductively prove $f(2^n-1)=2^n$for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$. Then from $P(x,2^n-1)$ we have
$$f(x)2^n+1>2^n-1 \Rightarrow f(x)>\frac{2^n-2}{2^n}$$. Setting $n$ to $\infty$ gives $f(x)\ge 1$. If $f(x)=1$ for some $x$ then plug that $x$ to $(2)$ and get $f(1+x)=2=f(1)$. Contradiction. As desired.
Claim 5. $\lim_{x \to 0} f(x)=1$
Proof. From $(1)$ we know $\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x)=\infty$. And also since $f(x)>1$,$\lim_{x \to 0} f(x)\ge 1$. Assume $\lim_{x \to 0} f(x) > 1$, then $f(x)\ge 1+c$ for some constant $c \in \mathbb{R^+}$ and all $x \in \mathbb{R^+}$. From $P\left( x,\frac{1}{x} \right)$, we have
$$f(x+2)+\frac{1}{x}=f(x)f\left( \frac{1}{x} \right)+1 \Rightarrow f(x+2)-f(x) \ge cf(x)+1-\frac{1}{x} $$. On the other hand from $P(x+2,x)-P(x,x+2)$ we have
$$f(x+2+f(x^2+2x))-f(x+f(x^2+2x))=2$$. So $f(z+2)-f(z)=2$ for some arbitrarily large $z$. Set $x=z$ to the inequality and set $\lim_{z \to \infty} z$ to get a contradiction.
Note that $(2)$ implies $\lim_{x \to 1} f(x)=2$, so $\lim_{x \to 0}f(x+f(xy))=2$, lastly set $\lim_{x \to 0}$ at $P(x,y)$ and get
$$f(1)+y=f(y)+1 \Rightarrow f(y)=y+1$$. And we are finished.
This post has been edited 8 times. Last edited by amogususususus, Jan 22, 2025, 11:26 AM
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jasperE3
11195 posts
#44
Y by
Hopeooooo wrote:
Let $\mathbb R^+$ be the set of positive real numbers. Determine all functions $f:\mathbb R^+\to\mathbb R^+$ such that for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y$:
\[f(x+f(xy))+y=f(x)f(y)+1\]
Ukraine

Claim: $f$ is strictly increasing
First we show that $f$ is injective, then we show that it's nondecreasing. Injectivity is obvious setting $x=1$ in the original equation, we get $f(1+f(x))+x=f(1)f(x)+1$. Now suppose FTSOC that there exist some $a<b$ with $f(a)>f(b)$. Let $u=\frac{af(a)-af(b)}{b-a}$ and $v=\frac{bf(a)-bf(b)}{b-a}$ and $k=\frac{b-a}{f(a)-f(b)}$, then we have $u+f(ku)=v+f(kv)$. So:
$$f(v)f(k)+1=f(v+f(kv))=f(u+f(ku))+k=f(u)f(k)+1$$Comparing, we have $f(u)=f(v)$, so $u=v$ (injectivity), so $a=b$, contradiction.

Then all one-sided limits exist, so:
$$c+y=\lim_{x\to0^+}(f(x+f(xy))+y)=\lim{x\to0^+}(f(x)f(y)+1)=df(y)+1$$for some constants $c,d$, so $f$ is linear. Testing, we have that $\boxed{f(x)=x+1}$.
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