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jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
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0 replies
jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
Help my diagram has too many points
MarkBcc168   27
N 9 minutes ago by Om245
Source: IMO Shortlist 2023 G6
Let $ABC$ be an acute-angled triangle with circumcircle $\omega$. A circle $\Gamma$ is internally tangent to $\omega$ at $A$ and also tangent to $BC$ at $D$. Let $AB$ and $AC$ intersect $\Gamma$ at $P$ and $Q$ respectively. Let $M$ and $N$ be points on line $BC$ such that $B$ is the midpoint of $DM$ and $C$ is the midpoint of $DN$. Lines $MP$ and $NQ$ meet at $K$ and intersect $\Gamma$ again at $I$ and $J$ respectively. The ray $KA$ meets the circumcircle of triangle $IJK$ again at $X\neq K$.

Prove that $\angle BXP = \angle CXQ$.

Kian Moshiri, United Kingdom
27 replies
+1 w
MarkBcc168
Jul 17, 2024
Om245
9 minutes ago
Geometry, SMO 2016, not easy
Zoom   18
N an hour ago by SimplisticFormulas
Source: Serbia National Olympiad 2016, day 1, P3
Let $ABC$ be a triangle and $O$ its circumcentre. A line tangent to the circumcircle of the triangle $BOC$ intersects sides $AB$ at $D$ and $AC$ at $E$. Let $A'$ be the image of $A$ under $DE$. Prove that the circumcircle of the triangle $A'DE$ is tangent to the circumcircle of triangle $ABC$.
18 replies
Zoom
Apr 1, 2016
SimplisticFormulas
an hour ago
A touching question on perpendicular lines
Tintarn   2
N an hour ago by pi_quadrat_sechstel
Source: Bundeswettbewerb Mathematik 2025, Round 1 - Problem 3
Let $k$ be a semicircle with diameter $AB$ and midpoint $M$. Let $P$ be a point on $k$ different from $A$ and $B$.

The circle $k_A$ touches $k$ in a point $C$, the segment $MA$ in a point $D$, and additionally the segment $MP$. The circle $k_B$ touches $k$ in a point $E$ and additionally the segments $MB$ and $MP$.

Show that the lines $AE$ and $CD$ are perpendicular.
2 replies
Tintarn
Mar 17, 2025
pi_quadrat_sechstel
an hour ago
Woaah a lot of external tangents
egxa   2
N 2 hours ago by soryn
Source: All Russian 2025 11.7
A quadrilateral \( ABCD \) with no parallel sides is inscribed in a circle \( \Omega \). Circles \( \omega_a, \omega_b, \omega_c, \omega_d \) are inscribed in triangles \( DAB, ABC, BCD, CDA \), respectively. Common external tangents are drawn between \( \omega_a \) and \( \omega_b \), \( \omega_b \) and \( \omega_c \), \( \omega_c \) and \( \omega_d \), and \( \omega_d \) and \( \omega_a \), not containing any sides of quadrilateral \( ABCD \). A quadrilateral whose consecutive sides lie on these four lines is inscribed in a circle \( \Gamma \). Prove that the lines joining the centers of \( \omega_a \) and \( \omega_c \), \( \omega_b \) and \( \omega_d \), and the centers of \( \Omega \) and \( \Gamma \) all intersect at one point.
2 replies
egxa
Apr 18, 2025
soryn
2 hours ago
No more topics!
A masterpiece
harazi   38
N Feb 14, 2025 by ihategeo_1969
Source: problem 10674 AMM, created by Marius Cavachi
Someone gave me the following extraordinary problem:
Let a,b>1 be integers such that for all n>0 we have a^n-1|b^n-1. Then b is a natural power of a. I can't find a solution.
38 replies
harazi
Mar 9, 2004
ihategeo_1969
Feb 14, 2025
A masterpiece
G H J
Source: problem 10674 AMM, created by Marius Cavachi
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harazi
5526 posts
#1 • 6 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, kingu, and 3 other users
Someone gave me the following extraordinary problem:
Let a,b>1 be integers such that for all n>0 we have a^n-1|b^n-1. Then b is a natural power of a. I can't find a solution.
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pbornsztein
3004 posts
#2 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
This is indeed a difficult problem, which has been proposed as ex. 10674 in the A.M.M. It seems that only the proposer provided a solution (see. vol.107, Aug.-Sept. 2000, p. 654), which is probably impossible to find....
It is not easy to write it here, so I will give it only if you cannot reach the above reference.

Pierre.
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harazi
5526 posts
#3 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
No, I cannot find that reference and I would be most glad if you could post a solution.
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pbornsztein
3004 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Ok, let's go (I have interchanged a and b, but it is too late....i will not write it again...) :

Define a sequence (Q_k) of polynomials with deg(Q_k) \leq k by Q_0 = -1, and
Q_(k+1)(x) = b <sup>k+1</sup> (x-1)Q_k(bx) - a(b <sup>k+1</sup>x - 1)Q_k(x) for k \geq 0.
Observe that Q_(k+1)(0) = (a - b <sup>k+1</sup> )Q_k(0). Iterating this and employing Q_0 = -1 leads to
Q_k(0) = -(a - b <sup>k</sup> )(a - b <sup>k-1</sup> )...(a - b).
Assume that a = b <sup>j</sup> for every non-negative integer j, so that Q_k(0) =/=0.
We will obtain a contradiction by identifying a k such that Q_k is identically 0.

Let r_(0,n) = (a <sup>n</sup> - 1)/(b <sup>n</sup> - 1) for n > 0.
By assumption r_(0,n) is an integer.
For k \geq 0 define r_(k+1,n) recursively by :
r_(k+1,n) = b <sup>k+1</sup> r_(k,n+1) - a*r_(k,n).
Let p_0 = 1 and p_(k+1) = a(1 - b <sup>k+1</sup> )p_k.

By induction on k it follows for n \geq 1 and k \geq 0 that :
r_(k,n) = [a <sup>n</sup> p_k + Q_k(b <sup>n</sup> )]/[(b <sup>n+k</sup> - 1)(b <sup>n+k-1</sup> - 1)...(b <sup>n</sup> - )]

Now fix k so that b <sup>k</sup> < a < b <sup>k+1</sup> . Since :
(b <sup>n</sup> - 1)(b <sup>n+1</sup> - 1)...(b <sup>n+k</sup> - 1) = b <sup>n(k+1)</sup> (1 - b <sup>-n</sup> )(b - b <sup>-n</sup> )...(b <sup>k</sup> - b <sup>-n</sup> ) \geq b <sup>n(k+1)</sup> /2,
we see that
|r_(k,n)| \leq |a <sup>n</sup> p_k + Q_k(b <sup>n</sup> )|/[b <sup>n(k+1)</sup> /2] \leq 2( |p_k|(a/b <sup>k+1</sup> ) <sup>n</sup> + |Q_k(b <sup>n</sup> )|/(b <sup>n</sup> ) <sup>k+1</sup> ). (*)

Since a < b <sup>k+1</sup> and deg(Q_k) < k+1, the rightmost expression in (*) is bounded above by 1 when n is sufficiently large. Thus r_(k,n) = 0 for large n, since it is an integer. For all large n, this yields
a <sup>n</sup> p_k + Q_k(b <sup>n</sup> ) = 0 and thus p_k(a/b <sup>k</sup> ) <sup>n</sup> + Q_k(b <sup>n</sup> )/(b <sup>n</sup> ) <sup>k</sup> = 0.
This forces p_k = 0, since otherwise the lefts side is unbounded as n - > +oo. We now conclude that Q_k(b <sup>n</sup> ) = 0 for all n and thus Q_k is the zero polynomial, and we are done.

Pierre.
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harazi
5526 posts
#5 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Oh, my God! From where did he take those? My ideas ar the following:
Suppose that b is not a power f a and take k=[log(base a) b]. Then a^k<b<a^(k+1). Put b^n-1=x_n(a^n-1). I've manged to show that we can find some non-zero constants C-k,...,C-0 such that for all sufficiently large n we have C_k*x_(n+k)+C_(k-1)*x_(n+k-1)+...+C_1*x_n+1+C_0=0. But I don't know how to continue. Help!
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gauss202
4855 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Who was the proposer of this question in the A.M.M.?
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zscool
480 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
proposed by Marius Cavachi of romania.
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harazi
5526 posts
#8 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Wow! I didn't know that. I know Marius Cavachi has extremely difficult problems, but this one is the hardest of them all. He is really the teacher with the hardest proposed problems in our country.
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harazi
5526 posts
#9 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Look what I did. Maybe someone knows how to continue.
Let us choose k such that a^k<b<a^(k+1). Define x_n=(b^n-1)/(a^n-1) and r_1=b/a, r_2=b/a^2,...,r_k=b/a^k. Then we have the identity:
x_n=[b^n-a^kn]/[a^kn(a^n-1)]+ \sum (r_i)^n. Take the sequence a_n= \sum (r_i)^n and consider also the polynomial P(X)=(X-r_1)...(x-r_k). Then if we denote C=k(k+1)/2, we find that:
a_n-( \sum r_i)a_(n-1)+....+(-1)^kr_1*...*r_k*a_(n-k)=0. But we can easily see looking at the polynomial that \sum r_i,..., r_1*...*r_k are of the form T/C, with T an integer. Thus, if we write S_1=C*(- \sum r_i),...
S_k=C(-1)^kr_1*...*r_k, we find that S_1,...,S_k are integers and also that Ca_n+S_1a_(n-1)+...+...+S_ka_(n-k). But from the first identity we can see that the sequence x_n-a_n goes to 0. Then so does the sequence
C(a_n-x_n)+....+S_k(a_n-a_(n-k)). Thus the sequence Cx_n+...+S_k*x_(n-k) goes to 0 and it's formed by integers. Therefore we can find n_0 such that whenever n>n_0 this last sequence is 0. But I cannot find a contradiction from this assertion.
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harazi
5526 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Does everybody think that this idea cannot lead to a solution? I still hope, but I still can't prove that. Any ideas?
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vess
716 posts
#11 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, and 1 other user
It can also be solved in an entirely different way. Specifically, pick an arbitrary prime $p>a$, and let $n$ be the order of $a$ modulo $p$. Since $p$ divides $a^n-1$, it must also divide $b^n - 1$. But as $a$ has order $n$ modulo $p$, $b$ has to be a power of $a$ modulo $p$ (that is, the congruence $b \equiv a^x \pmod{p}$ is solvable). We conclude that $b$ is a power of $a$ modulo all sufficiently large primes. It is then a well-known result of A. Schinzel (proven easily with the Chebotarev density theorem) that $b$ must be a power of $a$, which is the assertion of our problem.

In fact, this argument proves a stronger claim: Let $S \subset \mathbb{N}$ be a set that intersects all (infinite) integer arithmetic progressions. If, for all $n \in S$, the set of prime divisors of $a^n - 1$ is a subset of those of $b^n-1$, then $b$ is a power of $a$.

--Vesselin
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harazi
5526 posts
#12 • 7 Y
Y by tongzhao, Adventure10, Mango247, and 4 other users
Yes, vess, if we throw the atomic bomb on it, it works even if we suppose that the divisibility relation holds for infinitely many values of n, but who can prove this result? I've read in an article that this is true, but they say the proof is monstruous. Probably for you is easy, since you are expert in this field, but do not ask anyone to be.
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RobertuX
201 posts
#13 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
harazi wrote:
Someone gave me the following extraordinary problem:
Let a,b>1 be integers such that for all n>0 we have a^n-1|b^n-1. Then b is a natural power of a. I can't find a solution.
Well, I think using Cyclotomical polynomials, Eulerphi function and modular theory this problem is TRIVIAL :D :D :D so read my problem in the FORUM, and try to use it!

Best Regards.

RX TCM
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harazi
5526 posts
#14 • 11 Y
Y by RoastBeef, william122, rkm0959, Adventure10, Quidditch, megarnie, Mogmog8, Mango247, CrystalFlower, DensSv, and 1 other user
Excuse me, great genius of number theory, for such a trivial problem. Probably, since it seems there is no problem enough difficult for you you can start thinking about great unsolved problems in nulber theory. Probably they are not so trivial. It seems that all readers of AMM and many mathlinkers are too idiot.
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Valentin Vornicu
7301 posts
#15 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, Kingsbane2139
Guys, guys, guys settle down. Untill we see proof, disregard RobertuX statement of the problem above being trivial. Maybe he mis-understood the problem ;) Let's not be harsh with each other here, shall we? :)
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vess
716 posts
#16 • 5 Y
Y by shinichiman, Adventure10, Mango247, and 2 other users
harazi wrote:
I've manged to show that we can find some non-zero constants C-k,...,C-0 such that for all sufficiently large n we have C_k*x_(n+k)+C_(k-1)*x_(n+k-1)+...+C_1*x_n+1+C_0=0. But I don't know how to continue. Help!

But you have already done most of the work! :? Perhaps you have already finished the proof from here, but anyway, here it goes:

You have proven that, for $n>n_0$, the $x_n$ take the form
\[
x_n = c_1\alpha_1^n + c_2\alpha_2^n + \cdots + c_s\alpha_s^n,
\]
where $\alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_s \in \mathbb{C}^*$ are pairwise different non-zero complex numbers, and the $c_i$ are (non-zero) constants. Hence, for every $n > n_0$, we have the identity
\[
b^n -  1 = (a^n - 1) x_n = \sum c_i(a\alpha_i)^n - \sum c_i \alpha_i^n, 
\]
i.e.
\[ (*) \quad
b^n - 1^n - \sum c_i(a\alpha_i)^n + \sum c_i \alpha_i^n = 0 \quad \forall \, n>n_0.
\]
Now, the following simple assertion, which is an immediate corollary of the properties of the Vandermonde determinant, has received at least two other solutions in this forum:

If $y_1,\ldots,y_r \in \mathbb{C}^*$ are pairwise different non-zero complex numbers and $b_1,\ldots,b_r$ are constants satisfying $b_1y_1^n + \cdots + b_ry_r^n = 0$ for all $n>n_0$, then $b_1 =\cdots =b_r = 0$.

Now, as the constants $c_i$ are assumed to be non-zero and $a>1$, (*) implies that there is an $i_0$ such that $\alpha_{i_0} = 1$, and there is a $j_0$ such that $a\alpha_{j_0} = b$ (otherwise, the coefficients of $1^n$ and of $b^n$ are $-1 \neq 0$ and $1 \neq 0$, respectively, and we get a contradiction with the above assertion). Furthermore, because the $\alpha_i$ are pairwise different, every $\alpha_i$ with $i \neq i_0$ must appear as some $a\alpha_{i'}$, and also conversely: each $a\alpha_j$ with $j \neq j_0$ must appear as some $\alpha_{j'}$. We conclude that the following sets coincide:
\[
\big\{ \alpha_i \mid i \neq i_0 \big\} \equiv \big\{ a\alpha_j \mid j \neq j_0 \big\}.
\]
As $\alpha_{i_0} = 1$, it is easy to conclude from here that $\{ \alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_s \} = \{1,a,a^2,\ldots,a^{s-1}\}$. Hence, $b = a\alpha_{j_0}$ is a power of $a$ (actually, it is $a^s$), as claimed. QED

--Vesselin
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harazi
5526 posts
#17 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
To Valentin: I consider a little lack of respect considering a problem that did not received solutions from the readers of AMM as being trivial. Anyway, I apologise for the tone.
To vess: yes, vess, I have already found the continuation of the solution. Thus, we have another solution to this magnificient problem.
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Valentin Vornicu
7301 posts
#18 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
harazi wrote:
To Valentin: I consider a little lack of respect considering a problem that did not received solutions from the readers of AMM as being trivial. Anyway, I apologise for the tone.
Of course Harazi. It is possible for this to be just a language / problem misunderstanding (which I think is the case here), in which case there is no need to argue one with each other :). With this post, let us end the off-topic, and continue posting regarding this indeed marvelous problem ;)
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nntrkien
61 posts
#19 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
This is a really nice and hard problem, with an excellent solution. But i wonder that we could have an arithmetical solution ? We can see that every prime divisors of b is divide a and if a is divide b then b is a power of a. Is it can be continued ?
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vess
716 posts
#20 • 4 Y
Y by omarius, Adventure10, Mango247, and 1 other user
Yes, the problem does admit a solution with algebraic number theory. The key is that it suffices to show that, for any prime $\ell$, there exist $j = j(\ell),c =c(\ell)$ such that $b = a^jc^{\ell}$. For $\ell = 2$, for example, it is easily seen that if $b$ does not have the form $a^jc^2$, then there exists a prime $p$ such that $\Big( \frac{a}{p} \Big)=1, \Big( \frac{b}{p}  \Big) = -1$, and taking $n = \frac{p-1}{2}$ contradicts $a^n - 1 \mid b^n - 1$. Try generalizing this idea for any $\ell$.
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nntrkien
61 posts
#21 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Yeah, when i solved this problem, i see that if $b^n-1$ is divisible by $a^n+1$ then $b$ is a even power of $a$. That means $b^n-1$ is divisible by $a^n+1$ with every n then $b^n-1$ is divisible by $a^n-1$ with every $n$. What do you think ?
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maxal
629 posts
#22 • 4 Y
Y by omarius, Adventure10, Mango247, and 1 other user
zscool wrote:
proposed by Marius Cavachi of romania.
Is he really the author of this problem?

Actually this problem was published in russian book

В.А.Садовничий, А.А.Григорьян, С.В.Конягин "Задачи студенческих математических олимпиад"
("Problems of mathematical olympiads for university students")

back in 1987 as a problem 27 in the section 4.1. But there is nothing said about who is its author. BTW, solution from that book is quoted here.
Attachments:
opuz0405.pdf (30kb)
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iura
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#23 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Well, after the problem about $a^n+n|b^n+n$ was given at ROM TST /Taiwan TST 2006 (and you can guess that also somewhere else), it's natural to ask for the following generalisation, which is done by the same method:

If $p,q \in \mathbb{Z}[X]$ with $a^n-p(n)|b^n-p(n)$ for all sufficiently big $n$, then $b=a^k, q=p^k$,
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Gibbenergy
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#24 • 3 Y
Y by xlzq, Adventure10, Mango247
maxal wrote:
Actually this problem was published in russian book

В.А.Садовничий, А.А.Григорьян, С.В.Конягин "Задачи студенческих математических олимпиад"
("Problems of mathematical olympiads for university students")

back in 1987 as a problem 27 in the section 4.1. But there is nothing said about who is its author. BTW, solution from that book is quoted here.

I would be very appreciate if someone could explain for me this argument:
" In the case $k=1$ we have that for n sufficiently large $qm_{n+1}-pm_{n}=0$, $m_{n} <>0$ this implies that $q=1$"
Please help me! :(
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maxal
629 posts
#25 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Gibbenergy wrote:
I would be very appreciate if someone could explain for me this argument:
" In the case $k=1$ we have that for n sufficiently large $qm_{n+1}-pm_{n}=0$, $m_{n} <>0$ this implies that $q=1$"
Please help me! :(
Let $t$ be any positive integer. We have
$qm_{n+1} = p m_n$
$qm_{n+2} = p m_{n+1}$
...
$qm_{n+t+1} = p m_{n+t}$
Multiplying them up we have $q^t m_{n+t+1} = p^t m_n$ meaning that $q^t\mid m_n$.
Since $t$ is arbitrary and $m_n\ne 0$, it must be $q=1$.
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shalex
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#26 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
in the opuz0405.pdf

In the induction, we can get $x_{1},x_{2},\ldots,x_{k-1}\in\mathbb{Z}$ but how can we get $x_{k}\in\mathbb{Z}$? And where do we need $x_{1},x_{2},\ldots,x_{k}\geq 1$? (Actually we need it I think)
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maxal
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#27 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
shalex wrote:
in the opuz0405.pdf
In the induction, we can get $x_{1},x_{2},\ldots,x_{k-1}\in\mathbb{Z}$ but how can we get $x_{k}\in\mathbb{Z}$?
Choice of $x_{k}=p/q$ was rather arbitrary.
Applying the same arguments to $x_{1}=p/q,$ one can get that $x_{2},\ldots,x_{k}\in\mathbb{Z}.$
shalex wrote:
And where do we need $x_{1},x_{2},\ldots,x_{k}\geq 1$?
To get $m_{n}\ne 0.$
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maxal
629 posts
#28 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
btw, this is Cavachi's proof:
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maxal
629 posts
#29 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
A very similar problem but about integral functions instead of integers:
https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h136198
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by maxal, Dec 3, 2023, 4:20 PM
Reason: link update
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piever
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#30 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
vess wrote:
The congruence $b \equiv a^{x}\pmod{p}$ is solvable. We conclude that $b$ is a power of $a$ modulo all sufficiently large primes. It is then a well-known result of A. Schinzel (proven easily with the Chebotarev density theorem) that $b$ must be a power of $a$.

I'd like to see if the following elementary proof of this "well-known result" is correct, just to have a completely elementary proof of the whole problem:

The equation is solvable for every prime such that $(a,p)=1$, so it is solvable for every positive integer such that $(a,n)=1$

Let $n=a^{c}-1$ for a positive integer $c$ such that $a^{c}-1>b$

Obviously $c=ord_{n}(a)$ so there is a nonnegative integer $x<c$ such that $n|a^{x}-b$ but since $-n<a^{x}-b<n$, then we have $a^{x}-b=0$ that is our thesis.


EDIT: ops Vess, you are right, it works only if $(ord_{q}(a),ord_{p}(a))=1$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by piever, Jun 14, 2007, 3:04 PM
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vess
716 posts
#31 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, and 1 other user
piever wrote:
The equation is solvable for every prime such that $(a,p)=1$, so it is solvable for every positive integer such that $(a,n)=1$

Not so obvious! How, for instance, the existence of $x,y$ with $b \equiv a^{x}\mod{p}$ and $b \equiv a^{y}\mod{q}$ yields a $z$ with $b \equiv a^{z}\mod{pq}$? An example such as $b = 4, a =-1, p = 3, q = 5$ show that the first two propositions do not imply the third: we have $4 \equiv (-1)^{0}\pmod{3}, 4 \equiv (-1)^{1}\pmod{5}$, but $4 \equiv (-1)^{z}\pmod{15}$ is not solvable.


What you do show is this weaker statement: if the congruence $b \equiv a^{x}\pmod{n}$ is solvable for all $n$ coprime to any given $D$, then $b$ is a power of $a$.
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myan
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#32 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
For generalisations and analogues for abelian schmes and odd-dimensional Quillen $ K$-theory groups of algebraic number fields see http://arxiv.org/abs/0809.1991 and the references given there.
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maxal
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#33 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
A more general statement: "if $a^n-1$ divides $b^n-1$ for infinitely many integers $n$, then $b$ is a power of $a$" is proved in the paper http://www.emis.de/journals/JTNB/2005-1/pages423-435.pdf
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by maxal, Aug 9, 2016, 10:11 PM
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MathPanda1
1135 posts
#34 • 3 Y
Y by PRO2000, Kayak, Adventure10
I think they have a proof in the last example of chapter 17 of PFTB.
It is amazing how a number theory problem has such a not number theory solution! (See post #28) How in the world would anyone come up with such a solution?
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by MathPanda1, Aug 10, 2016, 1:50 AM
Reason: Edit: Chapter 17, not Chapter 15
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MathPanda1
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#36 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
vess wrote:
It is then a well-known result of A. Schinzel (proven easily with the Chebotarev density theorem) that $b$ must be a power of $a$, which is the assertion of our problem.

Sorry, but can someone post a solution to this using Chebotarev density theorem? Thank you very much!
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CANBANKAN
1301 posts
#37 • 3 Y
Y by samrocksnature, asdf334, ngduchieu1903
Solution from 1 year ago?
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asdf334
7585 posts
#38 • 1 Y
Y by GeoKing
Here's an elaboration of the above solution (for my own benefit, since I suck at NT)

Step 1: Prove that $\text{rad}(b)\mid \text{rad}(a)$.
Proof: If $p\mid b$ then $p\nmid b^n-1\implies p\nmid a^n-1\implies p\mid a$. So (maybe a hard skill?) $b\mid a^m$ for large $m$.

Step 2: Prove that for an odd prime power $p^k$ all solutions to
\[b^{\text{ord}_{p^k}(a)}\equiv 1\pmod {p^k}\]are exponents of $a$.
Proof: I probably overcomplicated this (not good at NT intuition, rip). Let's set $a=g^e$ for primitive root $g$ and $b=g^f$, then
\[f\cdot \text{ord}_{p^k}(a)=f\cdot \frac{p^k-1}{\gcd(e,p^k-1)}\]is an integer, hence $\gcd(e,p^k-1)\mid f$ is necessary and sufficient, and yet this is equivalent to having $(g^e)^c\equiv g^f\pmod {p^k}$ for some $c$.

Step 3: Use polynomials, a useful hard skill.
Proof: Well, since $b$ satisfies the equation in Step 2, there's always some $b-a^e$ which is divisible by $p^k$. I find this hard to motivate, but it anyway implies
\[a^n-1\mid \prod_{e=0}^{n-1}(b-a^e)\]where $\nu_2$ analysis is trivial (since $a,b$ are both odd). (Possible motivation: since $b-a^e$ will be divisible by $p^k$ and the product of the prime powers forms the odd part of $a^n-1$, we have the LHS. But $e$ varies, so we should multiply together to get the RHS. I think you just have to push it and hope for the best.)

Step 4: Bound degree, another useful hard skill. Bounding in general is nice.
Okay, at this point we want to bound degree (heuristically, size arguments should work). First realize that distinct irreducible polynomials are relatively prime. Since the LHS has too small degree as a polynomial of $a$, and the RHS is fixed if we decrease $n$, we might as well try to multiply together a bunch of irreducible polynomials (hopefully this step becomes more natural as I improve). So let's take the cyclotomic polynomials $\Phi_t(a)$ for $1\le t\le n$. We should get
\[\prod_{t=1}^n \Phi_t(a)^{\lfloor \frac{n}{t}\rfloor}\mid \prod_{e=0}^{n-1}(b-a^e)\]and now the degrees match, and yet the RHS should be divided further by $b^{n-C}\ge a^{n-C}$ from Step 1. Hence the LHS has "larger" degree (grows faster) so the expression in the RHS is $0$, meaning $b$ is a power of $a$.

Wow that's kind of hard. Probably beyond my skill level right now, most of the ideas are totally new to me and I have no experience with intpoly. :(
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kingu
220 posts
#39 • 2 Y
Y by L13832, ihategeo_1969
Extremely Low Effort Post
Let $a,b>1$ be integers such that for all $n>0$ we have $a^n-1 \mid b^n-1$. Then $b$ is a natural power of $a$.

I will present tree different possible solutions to this remarkable problem.

We being by the solutions that will use of size considerations, i.e, $\frac{b^n - 1}{a^n - 1}$ should grow like sum of $\frac{b^n}{a^{i^n}}$ for $1 \le i \le \log_{a}(b)$.


First Solution (with an overkill lemma). In fact, the above observation is very strong, we will use it with Zhero's Lemma (I lack a better name for it) used in the 2009 ISL N7 solution (I just copied the proof and the lemma directly XD).

Zhero's Lemma. Let $x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_n$ be distinct rationals, and let $c_1, c_2, \ldots, c_n$ be real numbers. Then if there exists a sequence of integers $s_1, s_2, \ldots$ so that $\lim_{k \to \infty} [ s_k - (c_1 x_1^k + c_2 x_2^k + \ldots + c_n x_n^k)] = 0$, then each $x_i$ with absolute value not less than 1 must be an integer.

Proof. It is clear that it is sufficient to prove this when $|x_i| \geq 1$ for all $i$. Let $q_k = c_1 x_1^k + c_2 x_2^k + \ldots + c_n x_n^k$, and let $d_k = s_k - q_k$. We induct on $n$. When $n = 1$, let $x = \frac{p}{q}$. Then
\begin{align*}
qs_{k+1} - ps_k
&= q\left (d_{k+1} + c_1 \frac{p^{k+1}}{q^{k+1}} - p \left (d_k + c_1 \frac{p^k}{q^k} \right) \right) \\
&= q d_{k+1} - p d_k.
\end{align*}$\lim_{k \to \infty} (qd_{k+1} - p d_k) = 0$, so $\lim_{n \to \infty} (qs_{k+1} - ps_k) = 0$. But $qs_{k+1} - ps_k$ is always an integer, so we find that $qs_{k+1} = p s_k$ for all sufficiently large $k$. Hence, for some $k$ and all nonnegative $i$, $s_{k+i} = \left(\frac{p}{q}\right)^i s_k$, But $s_{k+i}$ is always a nonzero integer for $k$ sufficiently large (since $c_i x_1^k$ is unbounded and $s_k - c_i x_1^k$ converges), so we must have $q=1$.

We will now show that if the result is true for some $n$, then it is also true for $n+1$. Let $x_{n+1} = \frac{p_{n+1}}{q_{n+1}}$. Then
\begin{align*}
q_{n+1} s_{k+1} - p_{n+1} s_k
&= q_{n+1} \left (d_{k+1} + c_{n+1} \frac{p_{n+1}^{k+1}}{q_{n+1}^{k+1}} + \sum_{i=1}^n c_i x_i^{k+1} \right) - p_{n+1} \left (d_k + c_{n+1} \frac{p_{n+1}^k}{q_{n+1}^k} + \sum_{i=1}^n c_i x_i^k \right) \\
&= (q_{n+1} d_{k+1} - p_{n+1} d_k) + \sum_{i=1}^n (q_{n+1} x_i c_i - p_{n+1} c_i) x_i^k.
\end{align*}Hence,
\[ \lim_{k \to \infty}  \left [ (q_{n+1} s_{k+1} - p_{n+1} s_k ) -\sum_{i=1}^n (q_{n+1} x_i c_i - p_{n+1} c_i) x_i^k \right ] = \lim_{k \to \infty} \left [ q_{n+1} d_{k+1} - p_{n+1} d_k  \right] = 0\],
so if we define $s_k' = q_{n+1} s_{k+1} - p_{n+1} s_k$ and $c_i' = q_{n+1} x_i c_i - p_{n+1} c_i$, we may apply the inductive hypothesis to find that each $x_i$, $1 \leq i \leq n$, is an integer. By symmetry (e.g., by isolating $x_1$ instead of $x_{n+1}$), we may conclude that $x_{n+1}$ is an integer as well.

To see this can be applied in our case, notice that
\[x_n = \frac{b^n-1}{a^n-1} = \sum_{i=1}^{\log_a(b)}\left(\frac{b}{a^i}\right)^n + \mathcal{O}(\frac{b^n}{a^{n\log_a(b)}})- \frac{1}{a^n-1}\]so, we can use the lemma to conclude that
\[\frac{b^n-1}{a^n-1} = \sum_{i=1}^{\log_a(b)}\left(\frac{b}{a^i}\right)^n\]and in particular $a \mid b$, writing $b = ac$, we have that it is also true that $a^{n} - 1 \mid c^n-1$ for all $n$. So we are done.

Remark. To use the above lemma, we can also try to use the following idea (this part of a solution by Zoroastro, a teacher in Brazil) $\sum_{i=1}^{\log_a(b)}\left(\frac{b}{a^i}\right)^n$ is the sum of some geometric progressions with ratio $\frac{b}{a^i}$, then it will also satisfy a linear recurrence $(y_n)_{n \ge 1}$ with the coeffiecients being of the integer polynomial $P(X) = a^{\frac{\log_{a}(b)(\log_{a}(b)+1)}{2}}(X-\frac{b}{a^1})\cdots(X - \frac{b}{a^{\log_{a}(b)}})$. Say that the linear recurrence is
\[c_{j}y_{n + j} + c_{j-1}y_{n + (j-1)} + \cdots + c_0y_n\],
then
\begin{align*}
c_{j}x_{n + j} + c_{j-1}x_{n + (j-1)} + \cdots + c_0x_n &= \\
c_{j}(x_{n + j} - y_{n+j}) + c_{j-1}(x_{n + (j-1)} - y_{n + (j-1)}) + \cdots + c_0(x_n - y_n)
\end{align*}because eacher term in the parathensis tends to $0$, we will have that $x_n$ will satisfy a linear recurrence and we are done in a similar way due to the lemma.


Second Solution (PFTB).

Let $x^{(i)}_{n} = bx^{(i-1)}_{n+1} - a^{i}x^{(i-1)}_{n+1}$ for $2 \le i$, with $x^{2}_{n} = \frac{b^n-1}{a^n-1}$, then we can show by induction that \[x^{(i)}_n = \frac{c_ib^n + c_{i-1}a^{n(i-1) + \cdots + c_{1}a^n + c_0}}{(a^{n+i-1} - 1)\cdots(a^n-1)}\]for some contanst $c_j$, so as soon as we reach a index $i$ with $\lim x^{(i)} = 0$, we will have that $bx^{(i-1)_{n}} = a^{i-1}x^{(i-1)_{n+1}}$, from where we can again conclude that $a \mid b$, and we are done in a similar fashion to the first solution.


Third Solution (Vess). So apparently, notice that for all large enough prime $p$ and $n = \text{ord}_p(a)$, then $b \equiv a^j \mod p$, this result can be shown by a very cunning usage of Gallagher's Sieve

Theorem (Gallagher's Sieve). Let $S$ be a finite set of integers and $P$ a finite set of prime powers, let $m_p$ be a number such that $m_p \ge |\{S \mod p\}|$ if we have $\sum_{p \in P} \frac{\Lambda(p)}{m_p} \ge 2\log M$ where $M = \max S$. Then
\[|S| \le \frac{\sum_{p \in P} \Lambda(p) - \log 2X}{\sum_{p \in P}\frac{\Lambda(p)}{m_p} - \log 2X}\].

Lemma. Let $a, b > 1$, and $a \equiv b^{k} \mod p$ for some $k$ for every power of prime $p$. Show that $b$ is a power of $a$.

Proof. The main part is to prove that $\log a$ and $\log b$ are l.d (this is $a^{k} = b^{j}$ for some $k$ and $j$).
Assume that $\log a$ and $\log b$ are l.i. The idea is that there are a lot of number that are of the form $a^ib^j$ smaller than some $x$, but by Gallagher's that set is also small.
More specifically, let this set be $S_x$, then its cardinality is bounded below by $\log(x)^2$.
Now, for the upper bound, define $P_y$ to be the set of power of primes divisors of $a^{i}-1| i=0,1 \dots, y$, then let $m_p$ order of $a$ in $p$ and also $y \ge m_p$. Prove a technical lemma that states $\sum_{p \in P_y} \log(p) = \Theta(y^2)$, then apply Gallagher's Sieve, this you get a contradiction, and it is possible to finish by standard number theory.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by kingu, Oct 16, 2024, 1:25 PM
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ihategeo_1969
205 posts
#40
Y by
Why so many AOPS posts for this lols. This
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