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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
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0 replies
jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
The Chile Awkward Party
vicentev   1
N 7 minutes ago by KAME06
Source: TST IMO CHILE 2025
At a meeting, there are \( N \) people who do not know each other. Prove that it is possible to introduce them in such a way that no three of them have the same number of acquaintances.
1 reply
vicentev
Mar 29, 2025
KAME06
7 minutes ago
GMO P6 2024
Z4ADies   4
N an hour ago by ihategeo_1969
Source: Geometry Mains Olympiad (GMO) 2024 P6
Given a triangle $\triangle ABC$ with circumcircle $\Omega$, excircle $\Gamma$ that is tangent to segment $BC$ at $T$. $A$-mixtillinear incircle $\omega$ of $ABC$ is tangent to $AB, AC $ at $D,E$. Suppose $N$ is the midpoint of the arc $BAC$, and $G \in AT \cap \Omega$. Show that if the circles $(NDE), \omega$ have the same radius, then tangents to $\Omega$ at $N, G$ intersect on $DE$.

Author:Mykhailo Sydorenko (Ukraine)
4 replies
Z4ADies
Oct 20, 2024
ihategeo_1969
an hour ago
Perfect Square Function
Miku3D   15
N 2 hours ago by bin_sherlo
Source: 2021 APMO P5
Determine all Functions $f:\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$ such that $f(f(a)-b)+bf(2a)$ is a perfect square for all integers $a$ and $b$.
15 replies
1 viewing
Miku3D
Jun 9, 2021
bin_sherlo
2 hours ago
Symmetric FE
Phorphyrion   7
N 3 hours ago by megarnie
Source: 2023 Israel TST Test 7 P1
Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ such that for all $x, y\in \mathbb{R}$ the following holds:
\[f(x)+f(y)=f(xy)+f(f(x)+f(y))\]
7 replies
Phorphyrion
May 9, 2023
megarnie
3 hours ago
No more topics!
Prove that d >= p-1
tranthanhnam   14
N Apr 13, 2025 by Ilikeminecraft
Source: IMO Shortlist 1997, Q12
Let $ p$ be a prime number and $ f$ an integer polynomial of degree $ d$ such that $ f(0) = 0,f(1) = 1$ and $ f(n)$ is congruent to $ 0$ or $ 1$ modulo $ p$ for every integer $ n$. Prove that $ d\geq p - 1$.
14 replies
tranthanhnam
Aug 26, 2005
Ilikeminecraft
Apr 13, 2025
Prove that d >= p-1
G H J
Source: IMO Shortlist 1997, Q12
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tranthanhnam
420 posts
#1 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Exponent11
Let $ p$ be a prime number and $ f$ an integer polynomial of degree $ d$ such that $ f(0) = 0,f(1) = 1$ and $ f(n)$ is congruent to $ 0$ or $ 1$ modulo $ p$ for every integer $ n$. Prove that $ d\geq p - 1$.
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pbornsztein
3004 posts
#2 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, Exponent11
Anyway, so the answer is $n=2$ because $Q(x)=P(x)-1$ is not identically $0$ (since $n>0$) and has at least two distinct real roots, which means that $deg(P) = deg(Q) \geq 2$.

Conversely, $P(x) = 2003x(x-1) + 1$ is a suitable polynomial.

I hope I did not too wrong this time.

Pierre.
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enescu
741 posts
#3 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, Exponent11
Of course, this is the obvious answer. Still, I wonder why in the statement of the problem the remainders are $0$ or $1$. Maybe there's some stronger result and our new member did not quote the problem correctly.
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grobber
7849 posts
#4 • 7 Y
Y by shirinov, Adventure10, hakN, Mango247, Exponent11, and 2 other users
Then I think it's from the 1997 shortlist. We could do this:

Reduce the coefficients modulo $p$, and regard the polynomial as being over $\mathbb Z_p$. Now, assuming it has degree $\le p-1$, because this is the interesting case, attempt to construct it using Lagrange's interpolation formula. The resulting polynomial will have the leading coefficient equal to $-k$, where $k$ is the number of residues among $0,1,\ldots,p-1$ for which it takes the value $1$. Since $0<k<p,\ k$ cannot be zero modulo $p$, so the polynomial has a non-vanishing coefficient corresponding to its $p-1$'th degree monomial.
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enescu
741 posts
#5 • 26 Y
Y by Amir Hossein, utsab001, odnerpmocon, ATimo, toto1234567890, rafayaashary1, jt314, CeuAzul, pablock, nguyendangkhoa17112003, Polynom_Efendi, mijail, mira74, Kobayashi, Mutse, Adventure10, hakN, third_one_is_jerk, DrYouKnowWho, paccongnong19hy, Mango247, Mango247, Mango247, Mathandski, Exponent11, and 1 other user
Alternatively, we may use that
\[1^k+2^k+\ldots +(p-1)^k \equiv 0 \quad (\mod {p})\]
for all $k<p-1$. Assuming that $\deg P <p-1$ this yields
\[f(0)+f(1)+\ldots +f(p-1) \equiv 0 \quad (\mod p).\]
Since $f(0)=0,f(1)=1$ and $f(k)\equiv 0 \; \mbox{or} \; 1 (\mod p)$, this is a contradiction.
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nomik
22 posts
#6 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, Exponent11
from which theorem or lemma you got this
this yelds $f(0)+f(1)....f(p-1)=0(mod p)$
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mat2772
29 posts
#7 • 1 Y
Y by Exponent11
Let's call $A$ the set of values $m\in\{0,1,2,\dots ,p-1\}$ such that $f(m) \equiv 1\mod p$ and define $p(n)=f(n)+\sum_{i\in A} ((x-i)^{p-1}-1) $
Clearly $p(n)\equiv 0\mod p\hspace{0.1cm} \forall n\in \mathbb{Z}$, so for a know fact $p(n)\equiv 0 \vee \deg(p(n))\geq p$
In both cases $\deg(f(n)) \geq p-1$ Q.E.D.
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by mat2772, Sep 21, 2020, 6:14 PM
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MatBoy-123
396 posts
#8 • 4 Y
Y by Mango247, Mango247, Mango247, Exponent11
Just assume the contrary i.e. $deg f$ $\ge p-2$ and then from above information construct $P(x) $ using $Lagrange$ $Interpolation$...
And at last you will get all $f(i)$ to be $0$ $mod p$ .. A Contradiction to $f(1) $ = $1$..
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Sprites
478 posts
#9 • 2 Y
Y by Mango247, Exponent11
The key Corollary: If $f$ is a polynomial with integer coefficients and $\deg(f)<p-1$ then $p|\sum_{i=0}^{p-1} f(i)$
In this problem,$\sum_{i=0}^{p-1} f(i) <p \pmod  p$,so by the Corollary,$\deg(f)>p-1$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Sprites, Aug 25, 2021, 5:34 PM
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HamstPan38825
8857 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by channing421, Exponent11
The key Lemma is the following:

Lemma. If $f$ is a polynomial with integer coefficients and $\deg f < p-1$, then $$f(0)+f(1)+\cdots+f(p-1) \equiv 0 \pmod p.$$
Proof. We can reduce to the monomial case, which is well-known. $\blacksquare$

But now for this function $f$, each $f(i)$ with $0 \leq i \leq p-1$ is congruent to $0$ or $1$, so the LHS is congruent to at most $p-1$ modulo $p$, making it impossible to get a multiple of $p$.
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Pyramix
419 posts
#12 • 1 Y
Y by Exponent11
Note that $f$ is clearly not a constant polynomial, so $d\geq 1$. Hence, $p=2$ is trivial.

Hence, take $p>2$. Assume for contradiction that $d\leq p-2$.
Note that from Lagrange Interpolation Formula, we have that
\[f(x)=\sum_{j=0}^{p-1}f(j)\prod_{i\ne j}\frac{x-i}{j-i}\]Note that $f$ is the unique polynomial obtained by Lagrange Interpolation, as $d\leq p-2$.

Morevoer, since $d\leq p-2$, the coefficient of $p-1$ in $f$ is zero (leading coefficient). So, we have
\[0=\sum_{j=0}^{p-1}f(j)\prod_{i\ne j}\frac1{j-i}=\sum_{j=0}^{p-1}\frac{f(j)(-1)^{p-1-j}}{j!(p-j-1)!}\]Since $p-1$ is even, we have
\[\sum_{j=0}^{p-1}(-1)^j\binom{p-1}{j}f(j)=0\]However, we know that $\binom{p-1}{j}\equiv\frac{(p-1)\cdot(p-2)\cdots(p-j)}{1\cdot2\cdots j}\equiv(-1)^{j}\pmod{p}$
Hence, we have
\[f(0)+f(1)+\cdots+f(p-1)\equiv 0 \pmod{p}\]Since $f(n)\equiv0,1\pmod{p}$, it is forced that $f(0)\equiv f(1)\equiv\cdots f(p-1) \equiv x \pmod{p}$ where $x\in\{0,1\}$.
However, since $f(0)=0$ and $f(1)=1$, we have that $0\equiv1\pmod{p}$, which is impossible.

Hence, $d\geq p-1$ is true. $\blacksquare$
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dolphinday
1319 posts
#13 • 1 Y
Y by Exponent11
An important claim is that
\[\sum_{i=1}^{p-1} f(i) \equiv 0\pmod{p}\]if $deg(f) < p-1$ which follows from the fact that $1^k + 2^k + \dots + (p-1)^k \equiv 0\pmod p$ for $\gcd(k, p-1) \neq p-1$.
From this we get that $f$ must be constant modulo $p$ which is a contradiction by $f(0) \neq f(1)$, so $deg(f) \geq p-1$.
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Mathandski
738 posts
#14 • 1 Y
Y by Exponent11
Finite differences solution!
Attachments:
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Mathandski
738 posts
#17 • 1 Y
Y by OronSH
While solving another problem (23GTWO5)
Quote:
Let $p \ge 3$ be prime. Find the smallest possible degree of a polynomial $f$ with integer coefficients for which $f(0)$, $f(1)$, …, $f(p)$ leave exactly three distinct remainders upon division by $p$.

I got stuck on the case where it was exactly two distinct remainders (50% hint on OTIS). Couldn't for the life of me figure out how to do it. I eventually gave in and searched the problem up to find my own solution on aops wth
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Ilikeminecraft
343 posts
#18
Y by
Note that $\deg Q$ is constructed by $x^{p - 1},$ and FLT shows this works.

WLOG, we may assume $f(0) = 0,$ and the other value is 1. This is from deleting the constant factor and multiplying by the unit of whatever the other value is.

Now, assume $Q = a_n x^n + a_{n - 1}x^{n - 1} + \dots + a_1x$ where $n < p - 1.$ Note that $1^k + 2^k + \dots + x^k\equiv 0$ which must follow due to $k < p - 1.$ Hence, adding all of the values together yield $0\pmod p.$ However, the sum should be bounded(exclusively) by $0, p$. Thus, a contradiction.
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