Difference between revisions of "2021 AMC 12A Problems/Problem 16"

Revision as of 12:13, 21 February 2021

The following problem is from both the 2021 AMC 10A #16 and 2021 AMC 12A #16, so both problems redirect to this page.

Problem

In the following list of numbers, the integer $n$ appears $n$ times in the list for $1 \leq n \leq 200$ . $1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, \ldots, 200, 200, \ldots , 200$ What is the median of the numbers in this list?

$\textbf{(A)} ~100.5 \qquad\textbf{(B)} ~134 \qquad\textbf{(C)} ~142 \qquad\textbf{(D)} ~150.5 \qquad\textbf{(E)} ~167$

Solution 1

There are $1+2+..+199+200=\frac{(200)(201)}{2}=20100$ numbers in total. Let the median be $k$ . We want to find the median $k$ such that $\frac{k(k+1)}{2}=20100/2,$ or $k(k+1)=20100.$ Note that $\sqrt{20100} \approx 142$ . Plugging this value in as $k$ gives $\frac{1}{2}(142)(143)=10153.$ $10153-142<10050$ , so $142$ is the $152$ nd and $153$ rd numbers, and hence, our desired answer. $\fbox{(C) 142}$ .

Note that we can derive $\sqrt{20100} \approx 142$ through the formula $\sqrt{n} = \sqrt{a+b} \approx \sqrt{a} + \frac{b}{2\sqrt{a} + 1},$ where $a$ is a perfect square less than or equal to $n$ . We set $a$ to $19600$ , so $\sqrt{a} = 140$ , and $b = 500$ . We then have $n \approx 140 + \frac{500}{2(140)+1} \approx 142$ . ~approximation by ciceronii

Solution 2

The $x$ th number of this sequence is $\left\lceil\frac{-1\pm\sqrt{1+8x}}{2}\right\rceil$ via the quadratic formula. We can see that if we halve $x$ we end up getting $\left\lceil\frac{-1\pm\sqrt{1+4x}}{2}\right\rceil$ . This is approximately the number divided by $\sqrt{2}$ . $\frac{200}{\sqrt{2}} = 141.4$ and since $142$ looks like the only number close to it, it is answer $\boxed{(C) 142}$ ~Lopkiloinm

Solution 3 (answer choices)

We can look at answer choice $C$ , which is $142$ first. That means that the number of numbers from $1$ to $142$ is roughly the number of numbers from $143$ to $200$ .

The number of numbers from $1$ to $142$ is $\frac{142(142+1)}{2}$ which is approximately $10000.$ The number of numbers from $143$ to $200$ is $\frac{200(200+1)}{2}-\frac{142(142+1)}{2}$ which is approximately $10000$ as well. Therefore, we can be relatively sure the answer choice is $\boxed{(C) \text{ } 142}.$

-PureSwag

Video Solution by Hawk Math

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AjQARBvdZ20

Video Solution by OmegaLearn (Using Algebra)

https://youtu.be/HkwgH9Lc1hE

Video Solution by TheBeautyofMath

https://youtu.be/CTXQunZpBA4

~IceMatrix

2021 AMC 10A (Problems • Answer Key • Resources)
Preceded by Problem 15	Followed by Problem 17
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 • 7 • 8 • 9 • 10 • 11 • 12 • 13 • 14 • 15 • 16 • 17 • 18 • 19 • 20 • 21 • 22 • 23 • 24 • 25
All AMC 10 Problems and Solutions

2021 AMC 12A (Problems • Answer Key • Resources)
Preceded by Problem 15	Followed by Problem 17
1 • 2 • 3 • 4 • 5 • 6 • 7 • 8 • 9 • 10 • 11 • 12 • 13 • 14 • 15 • 16 • 17 • 18 • 19 • 20 • 21 • 22 • 23 • 24 • 25
All AMC 12 Problems and Solutions

The problems on this page are copyrighted by the Mathematical Association of America's American Mathematics Competitions.

@@ Line 26: / Line 26: @@
 The number of numbers from <math>1</math> to <math>142</math> is <math>\frac{142(142+1)}{2}</math> which is approximately <math>10000.</math> The number of numbers from <math>143</math> to <math>200</math> is <math>\frac{200(200+1)}{2}-\frac{142(142+1)}{2}</math> which is approximately <math>10000</math> as well. Therefore, we can be relatively sure the answer choice is <math>\boxed{(C) \text{ } 142}.</math>
--PureSwag
+-[[User:PureSwag|PureSwag]]
 ==Video Solution by Hawk Math==

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