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jwelsh   0
Jul 1, 2025
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0 replies
jwelsh
Jul 1, 2025
0 replies
Peru IMO TST 2023
diegoca1   1
N 13 minutes ago by straight
Source: Peru IMO TST 2023 D1 P3
Find all positive integers $k$ such that the sequence $a_n = \binom{2n}{n}$, $n \geq 0$, is periodic modulo $k$ from some point onward; that is, there exists a positive integer $n_0 > 0$ such that the sequence $ a_n $ , for $n \geq n_0$ , is periodic modulo $k$.
1 reply
diegoca1
an hour ago
straight
13 minutes ago
Peru IMO TST 2023
diegoca1   0
18 minutes ago
Source: Peru IMO TST 2023 D2 P1
Let \( n > 1 \) be an integer. Isaac wants to cover an \( n \times n \) board with some tiles, without overlaps and without going off the board. For this purpose, Isaac has many tiles of the form:
(See attachment)
Each of these tiles covers exactly $4$ squares of the board. Isaac is allowed to choose any tile and, with a straight cut, divide the tile into two new tiles. Each new tile must be able to cover exactly an integer number of squares of the board. For which values of \( n \) is it possible for Isaac to achieve his goal by making at most two cuts?
0 replies
diegoca1
18 minutes ago
0 replies
Kazakhstan 2012 ( Grade 10 problem 5)
ts0_9   6
N an hour ago by Fly_into_the_sky
Function $ f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R} $ such that $f(xf(y))=yf(x)$ for any $x,y$ are real numbers. Prove that $f(-x) = -f(x)$ for all real numbers $x$.
6 replies
ts0_9
May 20, 2012
Fly_into_the_sky
an hour ago
Peru IMO TST 2023
diegoca1   0
an hour ago
Source: Peru IMO TST 2023 D1 P2
Let $n$ be a positive integer. On an $n \times n$ board, players $A$ and $B$ take turns in a game. On each turn, a player selects an edge of the board (not on the board border) and makes a cut along that edge. If after the move the board is split into more than one piece, then that player loses the game.

Player $A$ moves first. Depending on the value of $n$, determine whether one of the players has a winning strategy.
0 replies
diegoca1
an hour ago
0 replies
No more topics!
Decreasing primes
MithsApprentice   20
N May 29, 2025 by Ilikeminecraft
Source: USAMO 1997
Let $p_1, p_2, p_3, \ldots$ be the prime numbers listed in increasing order, and let $x_0$ be a real number between 0 and 1. For positive integer $k$, define
\[ x_k = \begin{cases} 0 & \mbox{if} \; x_{k-1} = 0, \\[.1in] {\displaystyle \left\{ \frac{p_k}{x_{k-1}} \right\}} & \mbox{if} \; x_{k-1} \neq 0, \end{cases}  \]
where $\{x\}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$. (The fractional part of $x$ is given by $x - \lfloor x \rfloor$ where $\lfloor x \rfloor$ is the greatest integer less than or equal to $x$.) Find, with proof, all $x_0$ satisfying $0 < x_0 < 1$ for which the sequence $x_0, x_1, x_2, \ldots$ eventually becomes 0.
20 replies
MithsApprentice
Oct 9, 2005
Ilikeminecraft
May 29, 2025
Decreasing primes
G H J
Source: USAMO 1997
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MithsApprentice
2390 posts
#1 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, kamatadu, Mango247
Let $p_1, p_2, p_3, \ldots$ be the prime numbers listed in increasing order, and let $x_0$ be a real number between 0 and 1. For positive integer $k$, define
\[ x_k = \begin{cases} 0 & \mbox{if} \; x_{k-1} = 0, \\[.1in] {\displaystyle \left\{ \frac{p_k}{x_{k-1}} \right\}} & \mbox{if} \; x_{k-1} \neq 0, \end{cases}  \]
where $\{x\}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$. (The fractional part of $x$ is given by $x - \lfloor x \rfloor$ where $\lfloor x \rfloor$ is the greatest integer less than or equal to $x$.) Find, with proof, all $x_0$ satisfying $0 < x_0 < 1$ for which the sequence $x_0, x_1, x_2, \ldots$ eventually becomes 0.
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ZetaX
7579 posts
#2 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, kamatadu, and 1 other user
I don't think we need any property of that sequence $p_i$ except that it's integral... :?

Claim: exactly the rational $x_0$ work.
Let $x_0=\frac{a_1}{a_0}$ with $a_1<a_0$. When $x_1=\left\{ \frac{p_1a_0}{a_1} \right\} = \frac{a_2}{a_1}$, we have $a_2<a_1$ again and so on, thus the sequence $a_i$ defined by this is (strictly) decreasing as long as $a_i \neq 0$. But since this is a sequence of non-negative integers, it will become $0$, thus the sequences starting with rational numbers will eventually become $0$.
Iff $x_i$ is irrational, also $x_{i+1}$ will be, so for all other starting values it doesn't become $0 \in \mathbb{Q}$.
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Karth
1272 posts
#3 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Claim: the sequence goes to $0$ if and only if $x \in \mathbb{Q}$.

$\Rightarrow$ direction: suppose that $x = a/b$. Induct on $a+b$. Clearly, the statement is true for $a+b=3 \Rightarrow x=1/2$. Suppose that the claim holds true for all $a+b=k$. Consider $a_1,b_1$ such that $a_1+b_1=k+1$. Notice that in the sequence, $\frac{a_1}{b_1} \rightarrow \frac{b_1 p \bmod a_1}{a_1}$. Since $b_1 p \bmod a_1 < a_1$ and $a_1 < b_1$, we have that $b_1 p \bmod a_1 + a_1 < a_1 + b_1$, so the sequence converges by the inductive hypothesis.

$\Leftarrow$ direction: pretty clear that this is true, but to be totally rigorous, suppose that $x \not\in \mathbb{Q}$. If the sequence did eventually converge to $0$, then $x$ could be expressed as $a/b$ for integral $a,b$, implying that $x\in\mathbb{Q}$, a contradiction.

This seems too easy for a USAMO problem, even for a #1... :maybe:
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aZpElr68Cb51U51qy9OM
1600 posts
#4 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
We claim that only $x_0 \in \mathbb{Q}$ satisfy the condition.

Let $x_k = \frac{p}{q} \neq 0$ for some positive integers $p$ and $q$. Since $0 < x_k < 1$, it follows that $p < q$. Then $x_{k+1} = \left \{ \frac{p_{k+1}}{\frac{p}{q}}\right\}$. Suppose that $p_{k+1} \nmid p$. Then $x_{k+1} = \left\{ \frac{qp_{k+1}}{p} \right \} = \frac{a}{p}$, where $a \equiv qp_{k+1} \pmod{p}$.

Now suppose that $p_{k+1} \mid p$. Then $x_{k+1} = \left \{ \frac{q}{b} \right \} = \frac{c}{b}$ where $b = \frac{p}{p_{k+1}}$ and $c \equiv q \pmod{b}$.

In both cases, the numerator of $x_k$ is strictly greater than that of $x_{k+1}$; the numerator of nonzero $\{ x_i \}_{i=0}^\infty$ is strictly monovariant. Therefore, the numerator of the numbers of the sequence will become $0$ at some point, implying that the sequence converges to $0$.

Now let $x_k \not \in \mathbb{Q}$. Suppose that $x_{k+1}$ is rational. This implies that $\frac{p_{k+1}}{x_k}$ is rational, but this implies that $x_k$ is rational, contradiction. Thus all terms of the sequence are irrational, and will not eventually reach $0$.
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thecmd999
2860 posts
#5 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Looks like I need to start doing nongeo.

Solution
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djmathman
7947 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Lol this is a funny problem.

Sketch
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Wave-Particle
3690 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Solution
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Delray
348 posts
#8 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
First we check that all rational $x_0$ will produce a series that eventually reaches zero. Let the the denominator of $x_0$ be equal to $k$. Clearly, the numerator is less than $k$. When we calculate $x_1$, the new denominator will be less than or equal to$x_0$'s numerator, hence the denominator decreases. It follows that for any choice of $x_0$, there will be some $i$ such that the numerator of $x_i$ is one. It follows that $x_{i+1}=0$. Hence, any rational $x_0$ will eventually terminate.
For any irrational $x_k$, note that $x_{k+1}$ will also be irrational. Since an irrational $x_k$ will never fully divide $p_{k+1}$, the series will never terminate, so we are done. $\square$
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v_Enhance
6906 posts
#9 • 3 Y
Y by RedFlame2112, HamstPan38825, Imayormaynotknowcalculus
The answer is $x_0$ rational.
If $x_0$ is irrational, then all $x_i$ are irrational by induction. So the sequence cannot become zero.
If $x_0$ is rational, then all are. Now one simply observes that the denominators of $x_n$ are strictly decreasing, until we reach $0 = \frac 01$. This concludes the proof.

Remark: The sequence $p_k$ could have been any sequence of integers.
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HamstPan38825
8904 posts
#10
Y by
All rationals work. Obviously irrationals fail; otherwise let $x_i = \frac{p_i}{q_i}$ in simplest terms. Observe that $p_i < q_i$ for all $i$, so $$x_{i+1} = \frac k{p_i}$$for some $k < p_i$ by definition. Hence $q_{i+1} < q_i$, and the sequence $q_i$ is decreasing. Therefore, in finitely many terms $q_i$ will become 1, and the next term in the sequence will be 0, as desired.
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asdf334
7584 posts
#11 • 2 Y
Y by Math4Life2020, channing421
The answer is all rationals.
Notice that irrationals fail; therefore we may let $$x_k=\frac{n_k}{d_k},$$where $\gcd{(n_k, d_k)}=1$.
Claim: $n_k > n_{k+1}$ when $n_k > 0$. This proves the problem.
Proof: Notice that $$x_{k+1}=\left\{\frac{p_{k+1}d_k}{n_k}\right\},$$thus $n_{k+1} < d_{k+1} \leq n_k$. $\blacksquare$
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Keith50
464 posts
#12
Y by
I have made a video explanation on this problem: https://youtu.be/OhFyJKqzxlA
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th1nq3r
146 posts
#13
Y by
Solution
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by th1nq3r, Jul 19, 2022, 7:40 PM
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Mogmog8
1080 posts
#14 • 1 Y
Y by centslordm
We claim the answer is all rationals. Notice if $x_0$ is irrational, then $x_1,x_2,\dots$ are irrational, and therefore cannot be $0.$ If $x_0$ is rational, all $x_i$ are rational so let $x_{k-1}=m/n.$ Then, $$x_k=\left\{\frac{p_kn}{m}\right\}=\frac{p_kn-\ell m}{m},$$where we choose $\ell$ such that $p_kn-\ell m<m.$ Hence, the numerators of $x_k$ are strictly decreasing, so eventually $x_k=0.$ $\square$
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NTistrulove
183 posts
#15
Y by
Solution
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Danielzh
497 posts
#16
Y by
The answer is $X_0$ can be any rational number between $[0,1)$

Observe that $\frac{P_k}{X_{k-1}}$ needs to be an integer so $X_{k-1}$ must be rational. For $X_{k-1}$ to be rational, then $X_{k-2}$ must also be rational, then so on until $X_0$.

Set $X_k=\frac{a}{b}$. $X_{k+1}=\frac{b*P_{k+1}}{a}$ which must have a denominator of $a$, which is also less than $b$. Note that we want $X_k=\frac{1}{b}$, for any positive integer $b$, so that $X_{k+1}$ is an integer.

Note that since the denominator of $X_k$ is strictly decreasing and that $0 \le X_n < 1$ for all whole numbers $n$, the sequence must eventually contain an element having a numerator of 1, hence implying our claim.

$\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 6 times. Last edited by Danielzh, Apr 7, 2023, 1:56 AM
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YaoAOPS
1633 posts
#17
Y by
storage
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blueprimes
387 posts
#18
Y by
We claim the answer is all rational $0 < x_0 < 1$. Clearly if $x_0$ is irrational, all operations preserve irrationality so the sequence never becomes all $0$.

Now suppose $x_0$ is rational, at any point $x_k = \dfrac{a}{b}$ where $a, b \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$, $\gcd(a, b) = 1$ and $1 \le a < b$, we have $x_{k + 1} = \left\{\frac{p_{k + 1} b}{a} \right\}$ which implies when $x_{k + 1}$ is fully simplified its denominator is at most $a$. Then as the sequence progresses the denominator always decreases when fully simplified, so at some point it terminates to all zeroes.
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de-Kirschbaum
228 posts
#19
Y by
If $x_0$ is irrational, then $x_1=\left \{ \frac{p_{1}}{x_0} \right \}$ is irrational. Similarly $x_2$ is irrational and so on. Thus every element of $\{x_i\}$ is irrational. Since $0$ is rational, the sequence will never 0 out.

If $x_0=\frac{n}{m}$ for $\gcd(n,m)=1$ and $n>m \in \mathbb Z$, then $x_1=\left \{ \frac{p_{1}}{x_0} \right \}=\left \{ \frac{p_1m}{n} \right \}=\frac{p_1m \mod {n}}{n}$. Let $b_1=p_1m \mod{n}$, clearly $b_1<n$. We can see that the sequence of numerators would go like $b_1=p_1m \mod{n}, b_2=p_2 n \mod{b_1}, b_3=b_1p_3 \mod{b_2}, \ldots, b_i=b_{i-2}p_i \mod{b_{i-1}}, \ldots$

This is a monotonically decreasing sequence of nonnegative integers, so it must eventually go to 0 at some point. Thus every rational number between 0,1 works.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by de-Kirschbaum, Dec 30, 2024, 4:18 PM
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AshAuktober
1055 posts
#20
Y by
Very nice statement!

Answer: All rational $x_0$ in $(0, 1)$ work.
Solution: Note that $$x_k \in \mathbb{Q} \iff x_{k+1} \in \mathbb{Q}.$$Now, if $x_0 \notin \mathbb{Q}$, then $x_i$ is always irrational, so none of them can be zero.
For $x_0 \in \mathbb{Q}$, Note that the sum of the numerator and denominator always decreases, so the numerator eventually becomes zero.
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Ilikeminecraft
734 posts
#21
Y by
The answer is $(0, 1)\cap \mathbb Q.$
Irrational obviously doesn't work.
If $x_0$ is rational, we can show that the denominator is strictly decreasing until numerator is 0. Indeed, if $x_\ell = \frac mn$ where $m < n,$ then $x_{\ell + 1} = \left\{\frac{p_\ell}{\frac mn}\right\} = \frac{np_\ell \pmod m}{m}$ which is true. However, we can't have that the denominator goes less than 0. Thus, eventually, it must become 0.
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