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jlacosta   0
May 1, 2025
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0 replies
jlacosta
May 1, 2025
0 replies
Interesting inequality
sqing   3
N 6 minutes ago by sqing
Source: Own
Let $ a,b,c\geq  0 , a^2+b^2+c^2 =3.$ Prove that
$$ a^4+ b^4+c^4+6abc\leq9$$$$ a^3+ b^3+  c^3+3( \sqrt{3}-1)abc\leq 3\sqrt 3$$
3 replies
sqing
Yesterday at 2:54 AM
sqing
6 minutes ago
2-var inequality
sqing   12
N 11 minutes ago by sqing
Source: Own
Let $ a,b>0 , a^2+b^2-ab\leq 1 . $ Prove that
$$a^3+b^3 -\frac{a^4}{b+1}  -\frac{b^4}{a+1} \leq 1 $$
12 replies
sqing
May 27, 2025
sqing
11 minutes ago
Sum of whose elements is divisible by p
nntrkien   46
N 35 minutes ago by Jackson0423
Source: IMO 1995, Problem 6, Day 2, IMO Shortlist 1995, N6
Let $ p$ be an odd prime number. How many $ p$-element subsets $ A$ of $ \{1,2,\dots,2p\}$ are there, the sum of whose elements is divisible by $ p$?
46 replies
nntrkien
Aug 8, 2004
Jackson0423
35 minutes ago
Graph Theory
achen29   4
N 2 hours ago by ABCD1728
Are there any good handouts or even books in Graph Theory for a beginner in it? Preferable handouts which are extensive!
4 replies
achen29
Apr 24, 2018
ABCD1728
2 hours ago
No more topics!
IMO Shortlist 2009 - Problem C1
April   66
N May 27, 2025 by Bonime
Consider $2009$ cards, each having one gold side and one black side, lying on parallel on a long table. Initially all cards show their gold sides. Two player, standing by the same long side of the table, play a game with alternating moves. Each move consists of choosing a block of $50$ consecutive cards, the leftmost of which is showing gold, and turning them all over, so those which showed gold now show black and vice versa. The last player who can make a legal move wins.
(a) Does the game necessarily end?
(b) Does there exist a winning strategy for the starting player?

Proposed by Michael Albert, Richard Guy, New Zealand
66 replies
April
Jul 5, 2010
Bonime
May 27, 2025
IMO Shortlist 2009 - Problem C1
G H J
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huashiliao2020
1292 posts
#55 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
pronouns are used WLOG.

The answer to a and b is that it must always end and player 2 will always win. For a), let each of the cards represent their respective place in a digit of the binary number with 2009 digits, with 1 as gold and 0 as black; it's obvious that each time the number strictly decreases.
For b), we look at the 10th, 60th, ..., 1960th cards; exactly one of the 40 must be flipped each turn; in particular, since there are 40 cards, the 2nd player gets the 40th ``removal" of the card. Then, if the 10th card is left, the second player takes the first card which leaves no gold cards, so he wins. On the other hand, if some other card is left, he takes that one and finishes, since by size reasons we know the union of them have all been covered. $\blacksquare$
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Nguyen
54 posts
#56 • 2 Y
Y by channing421, GA34-261
Well let me say the more essential thing.

The winner is fixed even if the "block" is not a cluster of consecutive cards, as long as it has a fixed "pattern", for example, the cards are numbered from right to left 0, 1, 2, ..., each player can choose an integer N and flip the cards numbered N, N+2, N+5 if the card N+5 has gold side up.

This is just polynomial division with coefficients in Z[2]. In this case the divisor is x^5+x^2+1.
After each move, the remainder polynomial remains unchanged, but the amount of coefficients that are 1 in quotient polynomial changes by 1. So the parity of the amount of 1's in the quotient polynomial determines the winner.
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dolphinday
1329 posts
#57 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
($a$)
Yes, the game does end eventually.
We can encode the cards in binary by interpreting gold cards as $1$ and black as $0$(reading left to right). Notice that each legal move decreases the value of the binary interpretation of the current configuration, so we must get to a binary value of $0$ which corresponds to all $2009$ cards being black.
($b$). Consider cards in positions $10$, $60$, $110$, $\dots$, $1960$. Any valid move swaps the color of exactly one of these cards. Since each move changes the number of gold cards in this collection of $40$ cards by $1$, and the second player must have an even number of cards on the turn they lose, this is impossible since by parity the number of gold cards at the beginning of the second player's turn is odd. (hopefully this is correct now)
previous error
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by dolphinday, May 16, 2024, 1:42 PM
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scannose
1020 posts
#58 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
(a) Yes. Consider the binary number $a_1 a_2 \dots a_{2009}$ in which $a_i$ is $1$ if the $i$th card from left to right is gold, and $0$ otherwise. It is easy to observe that every move causes this binary number to decrease; as a result, at most $2^{2009} - 1$ valid moves are possible.
(b) No; in fact, the starting player loses even if the second player plays randomly. Consider the cards $a_{10}, a_{60}, \dots, a_{1960}$. We note that every move flips exactly one of these cards, and there is always a valid move if at least one of these cards are facing up, or that there is no longer a valid move only when (though not always when) none of these cards are still facing up. Combined with the fact that the game always reaches an end, since there are $40$ such cards, the game only ends when the second player finishes their move.

@above consider a position where there are only 49 cards; the first player obviously loses, but the 24th/34th card still exists.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by scannose, May 16, 2024, 3:20 AM
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dolphinday
1329 posts
#59 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
scannose wrote:
@above consider a position where there are only 49 cards; the first player obviously loses, but the 24th/34th card still exists.
thanks, i think i fixed it and figured out my error
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Sagthenik
7 posts
#60 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
For the first mark gold as 1 and black cards as 0 then you would see that the value of binary decreases so we can comment that at some point the game would obviously end leading to all cards as black
And for second part consider the cards 10,60,110.....1960 and when the moves reach 1960th card then the game would stop and for even turns it would lead to the winning condition for the second player
Hence irrespective of the winning strategy the second player is always going to win
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blueprimes
363 posts
#61 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
Wow, binary is so clever :blush:

Number the cards $1, 2, \dots, n$ from left to right.

(a) Let there be $n \ge 50$ cards, we will prove a stronger statement: That any row of $n$ cards, gold or black face showing, the game must terminate. We induct on $n$, clearly the $n = 50$ case is resolved as the first card must be black at some point. Now assume the claim is true for $n = k$, we will prove for $n = k + 1$. Clearly if the first card is black, the problem reduces to the $n = k$ case. Assume it is gold instead. For the sake of contradiction, assume it is possible that the game continues forever. Then we never change the block of $50$ consecutive cards starting with card $1$ as then it reduces to the $n = k$ problem. But this implies the game continues forever with the cards $2, 3, \dots, k + 1$, which is a contradiction of the $n = k$ problem as well. Hence, the induction is complete and the claim holds. Now $n = 2009$ and all cards gold finishes.

(b) Consider the original problem. We claim the second player always wins. Let $K$ denote the number of cards out of $10, 60, 110, \dots, 2010$ that are gold at any state. Note that if the game ends we have $K=0$. At the beginning of the game, we have $K = 40$. Now any move changes exactly one of the cards mentioned above, so $K$ toggles parity every move. Then clearly the second player wins no matter what moves they make, and we are done.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by blueprimes, Jun 9, 2024, 8:16 PM
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alba_tross1867
44 posts
#62 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
Falls easily by induction, but a better idea might be to consider the binary string of $1$ and $0$ ( resp. $1$ for gold $0$ for black ) and the decimal equivalent keeps on decreasing so the game ends of course. Another idea to induct on gold cards and when they turn black.
Second part comes from considering blocks of $50$ cards starting from the right-most one, and considering the first card of each block as representing card and keeping the count of gold representing cards which changes parity everytime which follows a winning strategy for second player.
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ezpotd
1310 posts
#63 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
a) Yes, use the standard binary weighting trick, clearly we are always decreasing in value and done.

b) No, the second player always wins. Consider the number of moves that have leftmost cards 50-99 (where cards are in decreasing order from left to right), then the number of moves that have leftmost cards 100-149, so and so forth. Clearly each of these numbers is just the exactly number of moves that affect cards 50, 100, and so on. Each of these must be odd (since we end on all black cards for 50, 100, etc), so summing this quantity for all multiples of 50 grants an even number, so there are an even number of moves total and thus the second player wins.
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eg4334
636 posts
#64 • 2 Y
Y by internationalnick123456, GA34-261
Considering numbering the cards from left to right as $2008, 2007, \dots 1, 0$.

a) Letting card $n$ have value $2^n$ if it is gold and $0$ if it is not, we can see that the sum of the values of the cards is strictly decreasing after every move. Done.

b) Consider all cards numbered $49 \pmod{50}$. Every move must turn exactly one of these over, and in order for there to be no moves remaining they all must become black. (If any are gold, simply move the fifty to the right starting with that one). But by parity reasons it is impossible for all of them to become black after the first persons turn. Done.
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DakshAggarwalRedsurgance
10 posts
#65 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
JustKeepRunning wrote:
Just a quick note: I am pretty sure @daniel73’s sol is incorrect for part (a) because for his induction, he only showed that it doesn’t work in the configuration where they all start as golden numbers, while when he inducts upwards, he assumes it hold for all possible configurations of $n-1$ numbers, regardless of whether they are all gold or not. This issue can either be resolved using the strictly decreasing argument, or another way to fix it is to use the following:

Call a card “used” if it serves as the first card in one of the moves. Suppose that the first card is (ever) used. Then this means that the first card can never be used again, so we can effectively ignore it and reduce the problem to the other $2008$ cards. Otherwise, if it is not used, the problem also reduces to the remaining $2008$ cards. Notice that we can make this choice at the $2,3,\cdots, 1969$ cards(numbers interpreted as cardinality here), and after that, we are left with only $50$ cards, which is obviously not possible. Notice that even if there are gold cards remaining in the first $1969$ cards, they cannot be used, because in that specific case we “chose” not to use them. Therefore, the game ends.

Can someone make sure my argument acutally works because none of the other posts in the thread seem to use my approach?

This proof is correct iff you remember to mention that you are not inducting on all the winning states but rather on all game states which would most likely turn into a task in itself so rather you could just use the induction technique to proof for bijection between winning states and loosing states
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Maximilian113
575 posts
#66 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
a) Let the $n$th card from the right have value $2^n$ if it is gold and $0$ otherwise. Note that the sum of the values of the cards will then be strictly decreasing, but this sum of always positive, so the game will eventually terminate.

b) Now, consider the cards $50, 100, \cdots, 2000$ (from left to right). Clearly every move alters the state of exactly one of these cards. There are $40$ of these cards, so by parity no matter what the second player can always find a move. Therefore since the game terminates eventually the first player will lose. QED
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megahertz13
3194 posts
#67 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
(a) Interpret the cards as a binary number, where black translates into $0$ and gold translates into $1$. Since the number formed is strictly decreasing, we are done.

(b) Assume FTSoC that the starting player has a winning strategy. Consider the cards at positions $50k+1$ for $k\in \{0,1,\dots,39\}$. Notice that the number of these cards that are gold starts at $40$, and it also changes by exactly $1$ every move (since exactly one of these cards is flipped every move). Therefore, after the starting player moves, there are an odd number of these cards (at least one), which the second player can flip. Since the game ends and the starting player cannot win, the second player wins.
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lksb
183 posts
#68 • 1 Y
Y by GA34-261
From this point onwards we say a card was used in a certain move it is the leftmost card flipped by the move. If a card cannot be further flipped, we call it "unflippable"

Claim: If all cards to the left of a certain card are unflippable and the card itself is black, then it is also unflippable
Proof: In a move in which the used card was the $1^{\text{st}}$, it will be turned from golden to black, and there is no cards to its left who can flip it, therefore, it will remain black forever and consequently become unflippable.

(a) By the claim, the number of golden cards will decrease eventually and thus the game will end sometime

(b) For b), we assure 1s to cards who are gold and 0s to those who are black. Considering $S=\{50,100,150,200,\dots,2000\}$, we have that $|S|$ changes by $1$ each move, and as the game ends when all cards are 0s, we have that the game will end in an even number of moves, thus the 2nd player always wins.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by lksb, May 26, 2025, 6:02 PM
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Bonime
38 posts
#69 • 2 Y
Y by GA34-261, lksb
Here I present the generalization of this problem, where we're given a pair $(n,k) \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}^2, n\geq k$, and we have $n$ cards and we can flip a block with $k$ cards where the leftmost is showing its gold side.

$\textbf{Claim:}$ The game always end.
It can be done by many ways as you can see above, but I'll present another way to define a monovariant. Attribute the weight $(k+i)!$ to the $i$-th card from the right to the left. And let $S_i$ be the sum of the numbers of the cards showing its gold side after $i$ moves.
Note that $S_i$ can increase in at most $$\sum_{p=j+1}^{k+i+i} p! < k\cdot (k+j)!$$but it will necessarily decrease in at least $(k+i+1)!>k\cdot (k+i)!$, so $\{S_i\}$ is descending, therefore, since it can't be negative, sometime we'll not be able to operate anymore $\blacksquare$

Now, let us define $m_i$ to be movement where the $i$-th card from the left to the right is the leftmost one which is showing its gold side. Then, for each multiset $J$ of positive integer whose elements are less than $n+1-k$ , let $\sum_{j \in J} m_j$ to be the operation of performing all movements $m_j$, $j \in J$ and when $J=\emptyset $, $\sum m_j = 0$. Then, let $V$ be the set of all possible moves.

$\textbf{Claim:}$ $V$ is a vector space over $\mathbb{F}_2$
It's obvious since whenever we can sum each $m_i$ an even number of times, it's easy to see that it's equivalent to do none of those $m_i$ and whenever we can operate a sum $m_i+m_j$ as $m_j+m_i$, those two will lead to the same cards configuration as the parity of flips for each card is preserved. $\blacksquare$

Then, let $G=(m_{a_1}, m_{a_2}, ..., m_{a_T})$ be a game that ended. Note that if we delete all the movements that appeared an even number of times in $G$ and make all the moves that appeared an odd number to appear just one time, the winner will be preserved and we'll get into a new set of moves $G'$ that will have the same ending position. Finally, note that necessarilly $m_1 \in G'$, and, if $m_i,1<i\leq k \in G'$ it'll need to appear more than one time in $G'$, contradiction. Inductively, we can conclude that $G' = \{m_1, m_{k+1}, m_{2k+1}, ..., m_{k\lfloor \frac{n-k}k \rfloor +1}\}$ and, once the winner is preserved from $G$ to $G'$, we can conclude that the winner will be $$\text{The first player, if $\lfloor \frac{n-k}k \rfloor$ is even and the second player otherwise.}$$
Hence we conclude that once defined the parity of $\lfloor \frac{n-k}k \rfloor$, the winner is defined, and, no matter how he plays, he will win the game in $100\%$ of the times and the game will always end with the same cards showing their gold faces. :o
$\textbf{Remark:}$ This generalization is inspired by @jonh_malkovich 's generalization for the Brazil - TST Cone 2021/P2.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by Bonime, May 27, 2025, 12:23 AM
Reason: typo^3
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