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k a May Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
May 1, 2025
May is an exciting month! National MATHCOUNTS is the second week of May in Washington D.C. and our Founder, Richard Rusczyk will be presenting a seminar, Preparing Strong Math Students for College and Careers, on May 11th.

Are you interested in working towards MATHCOUNTS and don’t know where to start? We have you covered! If you have taken Prealgebra, then you are ready for MATHCOUNTS/AMC 8 Basics. Already aiming for State or National MATHCOUNTS and harder AMC 8 problems? Then our MATHCOUNTS/AMC 8 Advanced course is for you.

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[*]May 21st, 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Mathcamp 2025 Qualifying Quiz Part 2 Math Jam, Problems 5 and 6, Canada/USA Mathcamp staff will discuss solutions to Problems 5 and 6 of the 2025 Mathcamp Qualifying Quiz![/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
May 1, 2025
0 replies
k i Adding contests to the Contest Collections
dcouchman   1
N Apr 5, 2023 by v_Enhance
Want to help AoPS remain a valuable Olympiad resource? Help us add contests to AoPS's Contest Collections.

Find instructions and a list of contests to add here: https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c40244h1064480_contests_to_add
1 reply
dcouchman
Sep 9, 2019
v_Enhance
Apr 5, 2023
k i Zero tolerance
ZetaX   49
N May 4, 2019 by NoDealsHere
Source: Use your common sense! (enough is enough)
Some users don't want to learn, some other simply ignore advises.
But please follow the following guideline:


To make it short: ALWAYS USE YOUR COMMON SENSE IF POSTING!
If you don't have common sense, don't post.


More specifically:

For new threads:


a) Good, meaningful title:
The title has to say what the problem is about in best way possible.
If that title occured already, it's definitely bad. And contest names aren't good either.
That's in fact a requirement for being able to search old problems.

Examples:
Bad titles:
- "Hard"/"Medium"/"Easy" (if you find it so cool how hard/easy it is, tell it in the post and use a title that tells us the problem)
- "Number Theory" (hey guy, guess why this forum's named that way¿ and is it the only such problem on earth¿)
- "Fibonacci" (there are millions of Fibonacci problems out there, all posted and named the same...)
- "Chinese TST 2003" (does this say anything about the problem¿)
Good titles:
- "On divisors of a³+2b³+4c³-6abc"
- "Number of solutions to x²+y²=6z²"
- "Fibonacci numbers are never squares"


b) Use search function:
Before posting a "new" problem spend at least two, better five, minutes to look if this problem was posted before. If it was, don't repost it. If you have anything important to say on topic, post it in one of the older threads.
If the thread is locked cause of this, use search function.

Update (by Amir Hossein). The best way to search for two keywords in AoPS is to input
[code]+"first keyword" +"second keyword"[/code]
so that any post containing both strings "first word" and "second form".


c) Good problem statement:
Some recent really bad post was:
[quote]$lim_{n\to 1}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{n}-lnn$[/quote]
It contains no question and no answer.
If you do this, too, you are on the best way to get your thread deleted. Write everything clearly, define where your variables come from (and define the "natural" numbers if used). Additionally read your post at least twice before submitting. After you sent it, read it again and use the Edit-Button if necessary to correct errors.


For answers to already existing threads:


d) Of any interest and with content:
Don't post things that are more trivial than completely obvious. For example, if the question is to solve $x^{3}+y^{3}=z^{3}$, do not answer with "$x=y=z=0$ is a solution" only. Either you post any kind of proof or at least something unexpected (like "$x=1337, y=481, z=42$ is the smallest solution). Someone that does not see that $x=y=z=0$ is a solution of the above without your post is completely wrong here, this is an IMO-level forum.
Similar, posting "I have solved this problem" but not posting anything else is not welcome; it even looks that you just want to show off what a genius you are.

e) Well written and checked answers:
Like c) for new threads, check your solutions at least twice for mistakes. And after sending, read it again and use the Edit-Button if necessary to correct errors.



To repeat it: ALWAYS USE YOUR COMMON SENSE IF POSTING!


Everything definitely out of range of common sense will be locked or deleted (exept for new users having less than about 42 posts, they are newbies and need/get some time to learn).

The above rules will be applied from next monday (5. march of 2007).
Feel free to discuss on this here.
49 replies
ZetaX
Feb 27, 2007
NoDealsHere
May 4, 2019
FE with devisibility
fadhool   1
N 2 minutes ago by fadhool
if when i solve an fe that is defined in the set of positive integer i found m|f(m) can i set f(m) =km such that k is not constant and of course it depends on m but after some work i find k=c st c is constant is this correct
1 reply
fadhool
2 hours ago
fadhool
2 minutes ago
Japan MO Finals 2023
parkjungmin   2
N 5 minutes ago by parkjungmin
It's hard. Help me
2 replies
parkjungmin
Yesterday at 2:35 PM
parkjungmin
5 minutes ago
Iranian geometry configuration
Assassino9931   2
N 8 minutes ago by Captainscrubz
Source: Al-Khwarizmi Junior International Olympiad 2025 P7
Let $ABCD$ be a cyclic quadrilateral with circumcenter $O$, such that $CD$ is not a diameter of its circumcircle. The lines $AD$ and $BC$ intersect at point $P$, so that $A$ lies between $D$ and $P$, and $B$ lies between $C$ and $P$. Suppose triangle $PCD$ is acute and let $H$ be its orthocenter. The points $E$ and $F$ on the lines $BC$ and $AD$, respectively, are such that $BD \parallel HE$ and $AC\parallel HF$. The line through $E$, perpendicular to $BC$, intersects $AD$ at $L$, and the line through $F$, perpendicular to $AD$, intersects $BC$ at $K$. Prove that the points $K$, $L$, $O$ are collinear.

Amir Parsa Hosseini Nayeri, Iran
2 replies
Assassino9931
Today at 9:39 AM
Captainscrubz
8 minutes ago
Non-homogenous Inequality
Adywastaken   5
N 38 minutes ago by ehuseyinyigit
Source: NMTC 2024/7
$a, b, c\in \mathbb{R_{+}}$ such that $ab+bc+ca=3abc$. Show that $a^2b+b^2c+c^2a \ge 2(a+b+c)-3$. When will equality hold?
5 replies
Adywastaken
3 hours ago
ehuseyinyigit
38 minutes ago
f(m + n) >= f(m) + f(f(n)) - 1
orl   30
N an hour ago by ezpotd
Source: IMO Shortlist 2007, A2, AIMO 2008, TST 2, P1, Ukrainian TST 2008 Problem 8
Consider those functions $ f: \mathbb{N} \mapsto \mathbb{N}$ which satisfy the condition
\[ f(m + n) \geq f(m) + f(f(n)) - 1
\]
for all $ m,n \in \mathbb{N}.$ Find all possible values of $ f(2007).$

Author: Nikolai Nikolov, Bulgaria
30 replies
orl
Jul 13, 2008
ezpotd
an hour ago
Classic Diophantine
Adywastaken   3
N an hour ago by Adywastaken
Source: NMTC 2024/6
Find all natural number solutions to $3^x-5^y=z^2$.
3 replies
Adywastaken
3 hours ago
Adywastaken
an hour ago
Add d or Divide by a
MarkBcc168   25
N an hour ago by Entei
Source: ISL 2022 N3
Let $a > 1$ be a positive integer and $d > 1$ be a positive integer coprime to $a$. Let $x_1=1$, and for $k\geq 1$, define
$$x_{k+1} = \begin{cases}
x_k + d &\text{if } a \text{ does not divide } x_k \\
x_k/a & \text{if } a \text{ divides } x_k
\end{cases}$$Find, in terms of $a$ and $d$, the greatest positive integer $n$ for which there exists an index $k$ such that $x_k$ is divisible by $a^n$.
25 replies
MarkBcc168
Jul 9, 2023
Entei
an hour ago
Alice and Bob play, 8x8 table, white red black, minimum n for victory
parmenides51   14
N an hour ago by Ilikeminecraft
Source: JBMO Shortlist 2018 C3
The cells of a $8 \times 8$ table are initially white. Alice and Bob play a game. First Alice paints $n$ of the fields in red. Then Bob chooses $4$ rows and $4$ columns from the table and paints all fields in them in black. Alice wins if there is at least one red field left. Find the least value of $n$ such that Alice can win the game no matter how Bob plays.
14 replies
parmenides51
Jul 22, 2019
Ilikeminecraft
an hour ago
GEOMETRY GEOMETRY GEOMETRY
Kagebaka   71
N 2 hours ago by bin_sherlo
Source: IMO 2021/3
Let $D$ be an interior point of the acute triangle $ABC$ with $AB > AC$ so that $\angle DAB = \angle CAD.$ The point $E$ on the segment $AC$ satisfies $\angle ADE =\angle BCD,$ the point $F$ on the segment $AB$ satisfies $\angle FDA =\angle DBC,$ and the point $X$ on the line $AC$ satisfies $CX = BX.$ Let $O_1$ and $O_2$ be the circumcenters of the triangles $ADC$ and $EXD,$ respectively. Prove that the lines $BC, EF,$ and $O_1O_2$ are concurrent.
71 replies
1 viewing
Kagebaka
Jul 20, 2021
bin_sherlo
2 hours ago
Equation of integers
jgnr   3
N 2 hours ago by KTYC
Source: Indonesia Mathematics Olympiad 2005 Day 1 Problem 2
For an arbitrary positive integer $ n$, define $ p(n)$ as the product of the digits of $ n$ (in decimal). Find all positive integers $ n$ such that $ 11p(n)=n^2-2005$.
3 replies
jgnr
Jun 2, 2008
KTYC
2 hours ago
Divisibility..
Sadigly   4
N 2 hours ago by Solar Plexsus
Source: another version of azerbaijan nmo 2025
Just ignore this
4 replies
Sadigly
Yesterday at 7:37 AM
Solar Plexsus
2 hours ago
Surjective number theoretic functional equation
snap7822   3
N 2 hours ago by internationalnick123456
Source: 2025 Taiwan TST Round 3 Independent Study 2-N
Let $f:\mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{N}$ be a function satisfying the following conditions:
[list=i]
[*] For all $m, n \in \mathbb{N}$, if $m > n$ and $f(m) > f(n)$, then $f(m-n) = f(n)$;
[*] $f$ is surjective.
[/list]
Find the maximum possible value of $f(2025)$.

Proposed by snap7822
3 replies
snap7822
May 1, 2025
internationalnick123456
2 hours ago
Many Equal Sides
mathisreal   3
N 2 hours ago by QueenArwen
Source: Brazil EGMO TST 2023 #1
Let $ABC$ be a triangle with $BA=BC$ and $\angle ABC=90^{\circ}$. Let $D$ and $E$ be the midpoints of $CA$ and $BA$ respectively. The point $F$ is inside of $\triangle ABC$ such that $\triangle DEF$ is equilateral. Let $X=BF\cap AC$ and $Y=AF\cap DB$. Prove that $DX=YD$.
3 replies
mathisreal
Nov 10, 2022
QueenArwen
2 hours ago
LOTS of recurrence!
SatisfiedMagma   4
N 2 hours ago by Reacheddreams
Source: Indian Statistical Institute Entrance UGB 2023/5
There is a rectangular plot of size $1 \times n$. This has to be covered by three types of tiles - red, blue and black. The red tiles are of size $1 \times 1$, the blue tiles are of size $1 \times 1$ and the black tiles are of size $1 \times 2$. Let $t_n$ denote the number of ways this can be done. For example, clearly $t_1 = 2$ because we can have either a red or a blue tile. Also $t_2 = 5$ since we could have tiled the plot as: two red tiles, two blue tiles, a red tile on the left and a blue tile on the right, a blue tile on the left and a red tile on the right, or a single black tile.

[list=a]
[*]Prove that $t_{2n+1} = t_n(t_{n-1} + t_{n+1})$ for all $n > 1$.

[*]Prove that $t_n = \sum_{d \ge 0} \binom{n-d}{d}2^{n-2d}$ for all $n >0$.
[/list]
Here,
\[ \binom{m}{r} = \begin{cases}
\dfrac{m!}{r!(m-r)!}, &\text{ if $0 \le r \le m$,} \\
0, &\text{ otherwise}
\end{cases}\]for integers $m,r$.
4 replies
SatisfiedMagma
May 14, 2023
Reacheddreams
2 hours ago
Functional equation
Amin12   17
N Apr 30, 2025 by bin_sherlo
Source: Iran 3rd round 2017 first Algebra exam
Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R^+}\rightarrow\mathbb{R^+}$ such that
$$\frac{x+f(y)}{xf(y)}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{x}))$$for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y$.
17 replies
Amin12
Aug 7, 2017
bin_sherlo
Apr 30, 2025
Functional equation
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: Iran 3rd round 2017 first Algebra exam
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Amin12
16 posts
#1 • 3 Y
Y by yayitsme, Adventure10, Mango247
Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R^+}\rightarrow\mathbb{R^+}$ such that
$$\frac{x+f(y)}{xf(y)}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{x}))$$for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y$.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Amin12, Aug 7, 2017, 8:40 AM
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Vietnamisalwaysinmyheart
311 posts
#2 • 4 Y
Y by gemcl, Jonathankirk, Adventure10, Mango247
Here is my solution:
Click to reveal hidden text
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Ankoganit
3070 posts
#3 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, math_comb01
Setting $x\mapsto \frac1x$ in the given equation gives $$f\left(f(x)+\frac1y\right)=x+\frac1{f(y)}.$$Call this statement $P(x,y)$. This immediately gives $f$ is injective.

Now comparing $P(x,\tfrac1{f(y)})$ and $P(y,\tfrac1{f(x)})$ gives $$\frac{1}{f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)}-\frac{1}{f\left(\frac1{f(y)}\right)}=x-y\implies \frac{1}{f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)}=x+k\implies f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)=\frac1{x+k}.$$Here $k$ is some constant. Also, comparing $P(\tfrac1{f(x)},y)$ and $P(\tfrac1{f(y)},x)$ and using injectivity, we have $$f\left(f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)+\frac1y\right)=f\left(f\left(\frac1{f(y)}\right)+\frac1x\right)\implies f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)+\frac1y=f\left(\frac1{f(y)}\right)+\frac1x\implies f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)=\frac1x+k'.$$Here $k'$ is another constant. Now this gives $\tfrac1{x+k}=\tfrac1x+k'$ holds for all $x\in\mathbb R^+$, which forces $k=k'=0$. So in fact $f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)=\frac1x.$ Now $P(\tfrac{1}{f(x)})$ gives $$f\left(\frac1x+\frac1y\right)=\frac1{f(x)}+\frac1{f(y)}.$$Call this new statement $Q(x,y)$.
Now $Q(x,x)$ gives $f(\tfrac2x)=\tfrac2{f(x)}\;(\star).$ Comparing $Q(\tfrac{xy}{x+y},1)$ and $Q(x,\tfrac{y}{y+1})$ and mutilplying y $2$ gives $$\frac2{f(1)}+\frac{2}{f\left(\frac{xy}{x+y}\right)}=\frac{2}{f\left(\frac y{y+1}\right)}+\frac2{f(x)}.$$Using $(\star)$ in each of these terms, we have $f(2)+f\left(\tfrac2x+\tfrac2y\right)=f\left(2+\tfrac{2}{y}\right)+f\left(\tfrac2x\right)$, and replacing $x\mapsto 2x,y\mapsto 2y$, we get $$f(2)+f\left(\frac1x+\frac1y\right)=f\left(2+\frac{1}{y}\right)+f\left(\frac1x\right).$$Now we use the statements $Q(x,y),Q(\tfrac12,y)$ to simplify that into $$f(2)+\frac1{f(x)}+\frac{1}{f(y)}=\frac1{f(\tfrac12)}+\frac1{f(y)}+f\left(\frac1x\right)\implies f\left(\frac1x\right)-\frac1{f(x)}=f(2)-\frac1{f(\tfrac12)}.$$Setting $x=2$, there, we get $f(\tfrac12)+\tfrac1{f(1/2)}=f(2)+\frac1{f(2)}$, and since $f(2)\ne f(1/2)$ because of injectivity, we get $f(2)=\frac1{f(1/2)}$, which in turn implies $f\left(\frac1x\right)=\frac1{f(x)}.$

Now $Q(x,y)$ can be written as $f(\tfrac1x+\tfrac1y)=f(\tfrac1x)+f(\tfrac1y)$, which becomes Cauchy's equation after setting $x\mapsto 1/x,y\mapsto 1/y$. Since the codomain of $f$ is bounded from below, we must have $f(x)=cx$, and only $f(x)=x$ fits.

Edit: Sniped darn :furious:
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Ankoganit, Aug 7, 2017, 3:10 PM
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TLP.39
778 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Another solution.
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Kirilbangachev
71 posts
#5 • 23 Y
Y by TLP.39, Ankoganit, k.vasilev, Xurshid.Turgunboyev, naw.ngs, gemcl, MahdiTA, Kayak, rmtf1111, e_plus_pi, Sillyguy, ValidName, Aryan-23, Arefe, r_ef, maryam2002, Gaussian_cyber, FAA2533, electrovector, Kamikaze-1, Adventure10, TemetNosce, NicoN9
We can rewrite it as:
$$\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{f(y)}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{x})).$$It is clear that we can replace $x$ by $\frac{1}{x}$ and get:
$$x+\frac{1}{y}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(x)).$$Suppose that $x_1>f(x_1)$ for some $x_1.$ Then $(x,y)=(x_1,\frac{1}{x_1-f(x_1)})$ gives us $$x_1=f(x_1)-\frac{1}{f(y)}<f(x_1),$$contradiction. So $\boxed{x \le f(x) \hspace{2mm} \forall x}.$ But this means that
$$x+\frac{1}{f(y)}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(x))\ge \frac{1}{y}+f(x)\ge \frac{1}{y}+x \Longrightarrow$$$$\frac{1}{f(y)}\ge \frac{1}{y}\Longrightarrow \boxed{y\ge f(y) \hspace{2mm} \forall y}.$$Combining the two boxed results gives us $f(x)=x.$
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anantmudgal09
1980 posts
#6 • 3 Y
Y by e_plus_pi, Adventure10, Mango247
Amin12 wrote:
Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R^+}\rightarrow\mathbb{R^+}$ such that
$$\frac{x+f(y)}{xf(y)}=f\left(\frac{1}{y}+f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right)$$for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y$.

Equivalently, $$\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{f(y)}=f\left(\frac{1}{y}+f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right)$$for all $x,y>0$. Put $t=\tfrac{1}{x}$ thus $t+\tfrac{1}{f(y)}=f\left(f(t)+\tfrac{1}{y}\right)$ for all $t,y>0$. Observe that as $t \rightarrow \infty$ we see $\mathbb{R}(f)$ has no upper bound. Thus, for any $\varepsilon>0$ it is possible to pick $y$ with $\tfrac{1}{f(y)}<\varepsilon$; hence $ \cup [\tfrac{1}{f(y)}, \infty)$ is a subset of $\mathbb{R}(f)$, consequently $f$ is surjective over $\mathbb{R}^{+}$. If $f(a)=f(b)$ then plugging $t=a$ and $t=b$ subsequently, we conclude $a=b$ or $f$ is injective. Thus, $f$ is a bijection on positive reals.

Now substitute $y=\tfrac{1}{f(z)}$ yielding $$f(f(t)+f(z))=t+\frac{1}{f\left(\frac{1}{f(z)}\right)}$$for all $t,z>0$. Swapping $t,z$ fixes the LHS, hence $\frac{1}{f\left(\frac{1}{f(z)}\right)}=z+C$ for some constant $C$ and all $z>0$. Hence $f(f(t)+f(z))=t+z+C$ for all $t,z>0$. Playing the Devil's trick again, we put $x=f(z)$ in the original equation; so $$\frac{1}{f(z)}+\frac{1}{f(y)}=f\left(\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z+C}\right)$$and swap $y,z$; injectivity of $f$ then yields that $y \mapsto \frac{1}{y}-\frac{1}{y+C}$ is a constant function. Thus, $C=0$ and so $f(f(y)+f(z))=y+z$ for all $y,z>0$. Now plug $x \mapsto f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$ in $f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)=\frac{1}{x}$ to conclude that $f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=\frac{1}{f(x)}$ for all $x>0$. Now we immediately get $f(f(x))=x$ for all $x>0$ and so $f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)$ (putting $a=f(y), b=f(z)$); hence $f$ is additive too. Now $f$ is strictly increasing so if $f(x_0)>x_0$ then $x_0=f(f(x_0)>x_0$ and vice-versa. Thus, $f(x_0)=x_0$ for all $x_0>0$ and $f$ is the identity function. It also works. $\blacksquare$
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stroller
894 posts
#8 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Fix $y$ to note that $f$ is injective and $(\frac{1}{f(y)},\infty) \subseteq f$. Now take $y$ with $f(y) \to \infty$ gives $(0,\infty)  = f$. Therefore $f$ is bijective.
Now note that
$$f(x+\frac{1}{f(y)} + \frac1z) =  f(f(f(x) + 1/y ) + 1/z) = f(x) + 1/y + 1/f(z)$$Replace $z$ by $1/z$ in the above relation and consider symmetric equation with $x,z$ swapped we deduce
$$f(x) = 1/f(1/x) + \underbrace{f(z) - 1/f(1/z)}_c$$Fix $z$ and vary $x$ to get using $f$ bijective that $(c,\infty) = f$ so $c = 0$, i.e. $f(z) = \frac 1 {f(1/z)}$.
Now we rewrite original FE as
$$f(f(x) + y) = x + f(y).$$Replace $x$ by $f(x)$ to get
$$f(f^2(x) + y)  = f(x) + f(y) = f(y) + f(x) = f(f^2(y) + f(x)). \qquad\qquad  \dots \dots (1)$$Now use injectivity to get
$f^2(x) = \underbrace{f^2(y) - y}_{c'} + x$. Taking a similar consideration as before with $c$ we see that $c' = 0$. Therefore $f(x)^2 = x$, so $(1)$ becomes Cauchy FE. Extend $f(x)$ by $f(-x)  = -f(x)$ for all $x < 0$ and note that extended $f$ satisfies Cauchy on the reals, and $f(x) > 0$ for all $x > 0$, so $f$ is linear, from which we conclude that $f(x) = x$, as desired.
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e_plus_pi
756 posts
#9 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Enjoyed this a whole lot :P
Amin12 wrote:
Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R^+}\rightarrow\mathbb{R^+}$ such that
$$\frac{x+f(y)}{xf(y)}=f\left(\frac{1}{y}+f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right)$$for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y$.

We begin our solution by claiming that $\boxed{f(x) \equiv x \forall \ x \in \mathbb{R^+}}$ is the only solution to the given equation. Note that it indeed works.
$  $

Now, let $P(x,y)$ denote the given assertion.
$(\star) P \left(\frac{1}{x}, \frac{1}{f(y)}\right) : $
\begin{align*}
x + \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(y)})} & = f(f(y) + f(x)) \\
                                                 & = f(f(x) + f(y)) \\
                                                 & = y + \frac{1}{f (\frac{1}{f(x)})} \\
\end{align*}Therefore, let $h(x) =\frac{1}{f \left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)} $. Then we have $h(x) - h(y) = x - y \implies h(x) = x + c \forall x \in \mathbb{R^+}$ and some $c \in \mathbb{R}$.
So, $f(\frac{1}{f(y)}) = \frac{1}{y+c} \implies f$ is injective . Now $P(f(x) , y) ; P(f(y),x)$ imply that $c = 0$. So $f(\frac{1}{f(y)}) = \frac{1}{y}$ and hence $f$ is bijective .
Thus, $P(f(x),y ) \implies \frac{1}{f(x)} + \frac{1}{f(y)} = f\left(\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} \right)$.
$  $
Call the last equation $Q\left(\frac{1}{x} , \frac{1}{y}\right)$. Then, $Q(f(x) , f(y)) : f(f(x) + f(y)) = x + y \forall x, y \in \mathbb{R^+}$.
$(\star \star) Q(x,x) :  f(2f(x))  = 2x$
$  $
$(\star \star \star) Q(2f(x) , 2f(y)): f(2x + 2y ) = 2\cdot (f(x) + f(y))$. (By induction on this, we get $f(2^nx + 2^ny) = 2^nf(x) +2^nf(y)$
In this equation replace $x \mapsto (x+z)$ and observe that:
$$ \underbrace{f(x+z) + f(y) = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \left(f( 2x + 2y + 2z)\right) = f(x+y) + f(z)}_{S(x,y,z)}$$Now using $S(x,x, 3x) : f(2x) + f(3x) = 5 \cdot f(x)$ and $S(x,2x,3x) : 2 \cdot f(3x) - f(2x) = 4 f(x)$.
$  $
Combining both these equations, we get that $f(2x) = 2f(x)$. So , iterating $f$ on both sides we get $f(f(2x)) = f(2f(x)) = 2x \implies f(f(x)) = x \forall x \in  \mathbb{R^+}$.
$ $
So, $f$ is an involution. Now comparing $Q(x,y)$ and $f(f(x+y))$ we see that
$$f(f(x)+f(y)) = x + y = f(f(x+y)) \overset{\text{injection}}{\implies} \underbrace{f(x) + f(y) = f(x+y)}_{\text{Cauchy}} \implies f \equiv \alpha x + \beta $$Plugging this back in $P(x,y)$ we get $\beta = 0$ and $\alpha = 1$.
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william122
1576 posts
#11 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Denote the assertion as $P(x,y)$.

As $x\to 0$, we get unbounded values of $f$, and for a fixed value of $y$, we get that $f(x)$ is surjective over $\left(\frac{1}{f(y)},\infty\right)$. So, letting $f(y)$ tend towards infinity gives surjectivity.

If $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$, $P\left(\frac{1}{x_1},y\right),P\left(\frac{1}{x_2},y\right)$ gives $x_1=x_2$, so $f$ is bijective.

Consider $P\left(x,\frac{1}{y}\right)$. As $x$ varies for fixed $y$, we get that the image of $(y,\infty)$ is $\left(\frac{1}{f(1/y)},\infty\right)$. Thus, if $y_1<y_2$, $\frac{1}{f(1/y_1)}<\frac{1}{f(1/y_2)}$, so $f$ is increasing. As it is both increasing and bijective, our function must be continuous.

Consider $P\left(\frac{1}{y-\frac{1}{f(x)}},x\right)$. This gives that $f\left(\frac{1}{x}+f\left(y-\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)\right)=y-\frac{1}{f(x)}+\frac{1}{f(x)}=y$, so it is fixed as $x$ varies. Note that we must have $x>f^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{y}\right)$ to make sure the argument is positive, and as $x$ approaches this lower bound, the LHS gets arbitrarily close to $C=f\left(\frac{1}{f^{-1}\left(1/y\right)}\right)$. The RHS cannot be less than $C$, since it will otherwise be exceeded as $x$ approaches $f^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{y}\right)$. Likewise, it can't be more than $C$. So, we must have $f\left(\frac{1}{x}+f\left(y-\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)\right)=C=f\left(\frac{1}{f^{-1}(1/y)}\right)\implies \frac{1}{x}+f\left(y-\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)=\frac{1}{f^{-1}(1/y)}$. As $x\to\infty$, LHS approaches $f(y)$, so we can get by similar logic that it must always be $f(y)$. Thus, $f^{-1}(1/y)=\frac{1}{f(y)}\implies f\left(\frac{1}{f(y)}\right)=\frac{1}{y}$.

Finally, consider $P(x,f(y))$, which gives $\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{f(f(y))}=f\left(\frac{1}{f(y)}+f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right)$. As $x\to\infty$, LHS approaches $\frac{1}{f(f(y))}$ while RHS is always larger, but approaches $\frac{1}{y}$ by above. Using a similar argument, if $\frac{1}{y}>\frac{1}{f(f(y))}$, then we eventualy have RHS>LHS, and if $\frac{1}{f(f(y))}>\frac{1}{y}$, we have the opposite. Hence, $\frac{1}{f(f(y))}=\frac{1}{y}\implies f(f(y))=y$.

Now, we have that $f$ is both an involution and increasing. If it is nonconstant, though, we can find $a<b$ such that $f(a)=b>f(b)=a$. Thus, $f(x)=x$ is the only solution.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by william122, Dec 24, 2019, 12:33 PM
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Functional_equation
530 posts
#12 • 1 Y
Y by amar_04
Amin12 wrote:
Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R^+}\rightarrow\mathbb{R^+}$ such that
$$\frac{x+f(y)}{xf(y)}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{x}))$$for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y$.
This is Hard(and Nice)
Claim 1.$f$ is injective function.
Proof:
$$P(\frac{1}{x},\frac{1}{f(y)})\implies f(f(x)+f(y))=x+\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(y)})}=y+\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(x)})}\implies f(\frac{1}{f(x)})=\frac{1}{x+c}$$$f(\frac{1}{f(x)})=\frac{1}{x+c}\implies f\to injective$
Claim 2.$f(\frac{1}{f(x)})=\frac{1}{x}$
Proof:
$P(f(x),y)\implies \frac{1}{f(x)}+\frac{1}{f(y)}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{f(x)}))=f(\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{x+c})$
$P(f(y),x)\implies \frac{1}{f(y)}+\frac{1}{f(x)}=f(\frac{1}{x}+f(\frac{1}{f(y)}))=f(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y+c})$
Then $f(\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{x+c})=f(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y+c})\implies \frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{x+c}=\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y+c}$
Then $c=0\implies f(\frac{1}{f(x)})=\frac{1}{x}$
$P(f(x),y)\implies f(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y})=\frac{1}{f(x)}+\frac{1}{f(y)}$
$x=\frac{kt}{k+t}\implies f(\frac{1}{k}+\frac{1}{t}+\frac{1}{y})=\frac{1}{f(y)}+\frac{1}{f(\frac{kt}{k+t})}$
Then
$\frac{1}{f(y)}+\frac{1}{f(\frac{kt}{k+t})}=\frac{1}{f(k)}+\frac{1}{f(\frac{yt}{y+t})}$
$\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{x})}=g(x)$
Then
$g(\frac{1}{y})+g(\frac{1}{k}+\frac{1}{t})=g(\frac{1}{k})+g(\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{t})$
$\frac{1}{y}\to y,\frac{1}{k}\to k,\frac{1}{t}\to t$
Then
$g(y+t)-g(y)=g(k+t)-g(k)\implies g-additive$
And $g:\mathbb{R^+}\rightarrow\mathbb{R^+},additive\implies g(x)=kx+b$
$f(\frac{1}{f(x)})=\frac{1}{x}\implies g(\frac{1}{g(x)})=\frac{1}{x}\implies \frac{k}{kx+b}+b=\frac{1}{x}$
Then $b=0,k=1$
$g(x)=x,x\in R^+\implies f(x)=x,x\in R^+$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Functional_equation, Jan 5, 2021, 3:50 PM
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Prod55
127 posts
#13
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Let $P(x,y)$ the given assertion.
$P(1/x,1/f(y)): 1/f(1/f(y)))+x=f(f(y)+f(x))$
$y\leftrightarrow x $: $1/f(1/f(y)))+x=1/f(1/f(x)))+y$ so $f(1/f(x))=1/(x+C)$, so $f$ is injective.
Now we have that $P(1/x,1/f(y)) : x+y+C=f(f(x)+f(y)) :Q(x,y)$
$Q(x+z,y): x+y+z+C=f(f(x+z)+f(y))$
$Q(x,y+z): x+y+z+C=f(f(x)+f(y+z))$.
Since $f$ is injective we have that $f(x+z)+f(y)=f(x)+f(y+z)$.
Therefore $x+y+C+f(f(z))=f(f(x)+f(y))+f(f(z))=f(f(x))+f(f(y)+f(z))=f(f(x))+y+z+C$ so $f(f(x))=x+D$.
$P(1/f(x),1/y): f(x)+1/f(1/y))=f(x+y+D)=f(y)+1/f(1/x))$ so $f(x)-1/f(1/x))=E$.
setting $x\leftrightarrow 1/x$ it's simple to show that $E=0$ so $f(x)f(1/x)=1$.
Since $f(1/f(x))=1/(x+C)$ we have that $f(f(x))=x+C$ so $C=D$.
Also $1/x+D=f(f(1/x))=f(1/f(x))=1/f(f(x))=1/(x+D)\Leftrightarrow...\Leftrightarrow D=0$, thus $C=D=0$.
So $f(f(x))=x$ and $f(f(x)+f(y))=x+y$.
$x\rightarrow f(x),y\rightarrow f(y): f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ etc.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Prod55, Jun 12, 2021, 1:54 PM
Reason: typo
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Keith50
464 posts
#14
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Answer: $f(x)=\frac{1}{x} \ \ \forall x\in \mathbb{R}^+.$
Proof: It's easy to see that the above function is a solution. Let $P(x,y)$ denote the given assertion, by comparing \[P\left(\frac{1}{x}, \frac{1}{f(1)}\right) \implies \frac{1+xf\left(\frac{1}{f(1)}\right)}{f\left(\frac{1}{f(1)}\right)}=f(f(1)+f(x))\]and \[P\left(1,\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)\implies \frac{1+f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)}{f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)}=f(f(x)+f(1))\]we will get $f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)=\frac{1}{x+C_1}$ where $C_1=\frac{1}{f\left(\frac{1}{f(1)}\right)}-1.$ From here, it's also clear that $f$ is injective. Also, by comparing \[P(f(x),1) \implies \frac{f(x)+f(1)}{f(x)f(1)}=f\left(1+f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)\right)\]and \[P(f(1),x) \implies \frac{f(1)+f(x)}{f(1)f(x)}=f\left(\frac{1}{x}+f\left(\frac{1}{f(1)}\right)\right)\]we will get $f\left(1+f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)\right)=f\left(\frac{1}{x}+f\left(\frac{1}{f(1)}\right)\right) \implies f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)=\frac{1}{x}+C_2$ where $C_2=f\left(\frac{1}{f(1)}\right)-1.$ Therefore, we have $\frac{1}{x+C_1}=\frac{1}{x}+C_2$ or equivalently, $C_2x^2+C_1C_2x+C_1=0.$ Since this holds for all positive real $x$, it must be the case where $C_1=C_2=0$ which implies $f\left(\frac{1}{f(x)}\right)=\frac{1}{x}.$ Now notice that \[P\left(\frac{1}{x}, \frac{1}{f(x)}\right) \implies f(2f(x))=2x\]and so $4f(x)=f(2f(2f(x)))=f(4x).$ Then, \[P\left(\frac{1}{x}, \frac{1}{f(3x)}\right)\implies f(f(3x)+f(x))=4x=f(2f(2x)) \implies f(3x)+f(x)=2f(2x)\]and \[P\left(\frac{1}{2x}, \frac{1}{f(4x)}\right)\implies f(4f(x)+f(2x))=f(f(4x)+f(2x))=6x=f(2f(3x)) \implies 4f(x)+f(2x)=2f(3x)\]give us \[4f(2x)-2f(x)=2f(3x)=4f(x)+f(2x) \implies f(2x)=2f(x) \ \ \forall  x\in \mathbb{R}^{+}.\]Hence, $2f(f(x))=f(2f(x))=2x \implies f(f(x))=x$ and $f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=f\left(\frac{1}{f(f(x))}\right)=\frac{1}{f(x)}.$ Lastly, \[P\left(f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right), \frac{1}{y}\right)\implies f(x+y)=\frac{f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)+f\left(\frac{1}{y}\right)}{f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)f\left(\frac{1}{y}\right)}=f(x)+f(y)\]implies $f$ is additive over the positive reals, thus $f$ is linear and letting $f(x)=ax+b$ where $a,b$ are constants, we see that since $f(f(x))=x \implies a^2x+ab+b=x \implies a=1, b=0$, $\boxed{f(x)=x}$ is the only solution. $\quad \blacksquare$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Keith50, Jul 7, 2021, 5:21 AM
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Mahdi_Mashayekhi
695 posts
#15
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$\frac{x+f(y)}{xf(y)} = \frac{1}{f(y)} + \frac{1}{x}$ Now put $\frac{1}{x}$ instead of $x$ in equation. Let $P(x,y) : \frac{1}{f(y)} + x = f(\frac{1}{y} + f(x))$.
Let $f(a) = f(b)$ then $P(a,y) , P(b,y)$ implies that $f$ is injective.
$P(x,\frac{1}{f(y)}) : \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(y)})} + x = f(f(y) + f(x)) = \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(x)})} + y \implies \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(x)})} - x = t \implies f(\frac{1}{f(x)}) = \frac{1}{x+t}$
$P(f(x),y) : f(\frac{1}{y} + \frac{1}{x+t}) = \frac{1}{f(y)} + \frac{1}{f(x)} = f(\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y+t}) \implies \frac{1}{y} + \frac{1}{x+t} = \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y+t} \implies t = 0 \implies f(\frac{1}{f(x)}) = \frac{1}{x}$
$P(x,\frac{1}{f(y)}) : \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(y)})} + x = f(f(y) + f(x)) \implies f(f(y) + f(x)) = x+y$ Let $f(f(y) + f(x)) = x+y$ be $Q(x,y)$.
$Q(x,x) , Q(x-t,x+t) : f(x+t) - f(x) = f(x) - f(x-t)$ which holds for any $x > t > 0$ which implies that $f$ is linear so $f(x)=  ax + b$.
we had $f(f(y) + f(x)) = x+y \implies f(a(x+y)+2b) = x+y \implies a^2(x+y) + 2ab + b = x+y \implies (a^2-1)(x+y) + 2ab + b = 0$ which since $a,b$ are constant but $x,y$ are not implies that $a^2-1 = 0 \implies a = 1$ so $x+y + 2b + b = x+y \implies b = 0$ so $f(x) = ax + b = x$ which clearly works.
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ZETA_in_olympiad
2211 posts
#16 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Also see here.
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Knty2006
50 posts
#17
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Man this took really long

Note that the above is equivalent to $\frac{1}{f(y)}+\frac{1}{x}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{x}))$, which also implies injective as a result

Let $P(x,y) : \frac{1}{f(y)}+\frac{1}{x}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{x}))$
Setting $P(f(x),y)=P(f(y),x)$, we get $\frac{1}{y}-f(\frac{1}{f(y)})=\frac{1}{x}-f(\frac{1}{f(x)})$

This implies that $\frac{1}{x}-f(\frac{1}{f(x)})=-c$ for some constant $c$ over all values of $x$

Now, setting $P(x,\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{y})})=(y,\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{x})})$
$\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+c}=\frac{1}{y}-\frac{1}{y+c}$

Note this only holds iff $c=0$

Taking $P(x,\frac{1}{f(y)})$
$y+\frac{1}{x}=f(f(y)+f(\frac{1}{x}))$
$y+x=f(f(y)+f(x))$

Now note, if $a+b=c+d$
$f(f(a)+f(b))=a+b=c+d=f(f(c)+f(d))$
Due to injectivity, this implies $f(a)+f(b)=f(c)+f(d)$

Note $2f(3x)=f(4x)+f(2x)=3f(2x)$
Also, $5f(2x)=2f(3x)+2f(2x)=2f(4x)+2f(x)=4f(2x)+2f(x)$, so $f(2x)=2f(x)$

Recall $P(y,f(y))$ implies $\frac{f(y)}{2}f(\frac{2}{y})=1$
However, together with $f(2x)=2f(x)$, we have $\frac{1}{f(x)}=f(\frac{1}{x})$

Therefore, we have that $f(f(x))=x$

Also,$ P(\frac{1}{x},\frac{1}{y})$ gives us $f(y)+x=f(y+f(x))$ , Since $f$ is surjective, varying the value of $f(x)$, we have that $f$ is a strictly increasing function
FTSOC suppose $f(x)=a$ where $a>x$ Then, note $f(a)=x<a<f(x)$ contradiction. The same holds for when $a<x$

Hence, $f(x)=x$ for all values of $x$
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ThisNameIsNotAvailable
442 posts
#18
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Amin12 wrote:
Find all functions $f:\mathbb{R^+}\rightarrow\mathbb{R^+}$ such that
$$\frac{x+f(y)}{xf(y)}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{x}))$$for all positive real numbers $x$ and $y$.

My 400th post. Let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion of the given FE, which is $$f\left(\frac1{y}+f\left(\frac1{x}\right)\right)=\frac1{f(y)}+\frac1{x},\quad\forall x,y>0.$$Assume that $f(a)=f(b)$, then $P(1/a,y)$ and $P(1/b,y)$ give $a=b$ or $f$ is injective.
Hence comparing $P(f(x),y)$ and $P(f(y),x)$, we easily get $$\frac1{y}+f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)=\frac1{x}+f\left(\frac1{f(y)}\right)\implies f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)=\frac1{x}+c.$$Similarly, comparing $P(1/x,1/f(y))$ and $P(1/y,1/f(x))$, we get $$f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)=\frac1{x+d}\implies\frac1{x}+c=\frac1{x+d},$$for all $x>0$. Let $x\to\infty$, we get $c=d=0$, so $f\left(\frac1{f(x)}\right)=\frac1{x}$ and $P(1/x,1/f(y))$ gives $$Q(x,y):f(f(x)+f(y))=x+y,\quad\forall x,y>0.$$$Q(f(x)+f(y),y)$ gives $$f(x+y+f(y))=f(x)+y+f(y).$$Plugging $x$ by $x+f(x)$ into the above FE and changing the role of $x,y$, by the injectivity, we get $$f(x+f(x))=x+f(x)+d.$$If $d>0$, $Q(x+f(x),d)$ and the injectivity give $d+f(d)=0$, absurb. Thus $d=0$, so $Q(x,f(x))$ gives $$f(f(x)+f(f(x)))=x+f(x)=f(x+f(x))\implies f(f(x))=x.$$$Q(f(x),f(y))$ immediately implies $f$ is additive, so after checking, we get $f(x)=x$ for all $x>0$ is a solution.
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ezpotd
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Rewrite the assertion as $\frac 1x + \frac{1}{f(y)} = f(\frac 1y + f(\frac 1x))$.

Claim: $f$ is bijective.
Proof: For injectivity, we can vary $\frac 1x$. For surjectivity, observe we can hit any value above $\frac{1}{f(y)}$, since we can make $\frac{1}{f(y)}$ as small as we want we are done.

Now let $\frac 1y = a$, we have $\frac{1}{f(\frac 1a)} < f(a + k)$ as $k$ is a positive real. Then we have $\frac 1x + \frac{1}{f(y)} = f(\frac 1y + f(\frac 1x)) > \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(x)})}$, so letting $\frac{1}{f(y)}$ approach zero gives $f(\frac{1}{f(x)}) \ge \frac 1x$. Now substitute $x = f(k)$, so we have $\frac{1}{f(k)} + \frac{1}{f(y)} = f(f(\frac{1}{f(k)}) + \frac 1y ) = f(\frac 1k + \frac 1y + c)$ for $c = f(\frac{1}{f(k)}) - \frac 1k \ge 0)$. Now observe each pair $(k,y)$ results in exactly one value of $c$, which is the same as the value of $c$ given by $(y,k)$, but also this value is uniquely determined by $k$ so $c$ is constant, thus $f(\frac{1}{f(x)}) = \frac 1x + c$, but since the left hand side gets as small as we want we must have $c = 0$ and $\frac{1}{f(x)}+ \frac{1}{f(y)}= f(\frac 1x + \frac 1y)$.

Now let $f(a)= 1, f(\frac{1}{f(a)} ) = f(1) = a$, then we have $f(\frac{1}{f(1)}) =f(\frac 1a) = 1$, so $a = \frac 1a$ giving $a = 1$.

Now we prove that $f$ is the identity. Assume $a < b$ but $f(a) \ge f(b)$. Now we have $\frac{1}{f(a)} \le\frac{1}{f(b)} < f(\frac 1b + k) = f(\frac 1a)$, giving $f(a)f(\frac 1a) > 1$. Clearly, $a$ cannot be $1$, so $f(x) > 1$ for $x > 1$. Likewise, assume $\frac{1}{f(x)} > 1 $, which gives $\frac 1x > 1$, so $f(x) > 1$ iff $x  >1$. This fact carries the rest of the solution, we can now proceed with a standard rational extension.

First we solve $f$ over rationals. Let $Q$ be the assertion $\frac{1}{f(x)} + \frac{1}{f(y)} = f(\frac 1x + \frac 1y)$. Now $Q(1,1)$ gives $f(2) = 2$, then we can use the assertion $R$, being $f(\frac{1}{f(x)}) = \frac 1x$ to get $f(\frac 12) = 2$. Now we can always induct, do $Q(1, \frac 1n)$ to get $f(n + 1) =n + 1$ and $R(n + 1)$ to get $f(\frac{1}{n + 1}) = \frac{1}{n +1}$. Now to get all rationals we induct on the denominator, we can use $Q(\frac 1n, 2)$ to get all rationals with denominator $2$, then use $Q(\frac 1n, 3)$ and $Q(\frac 1n, \frac 32)$ to get all rationals with denominator $3$, and so one and so forth we win.

To finish, we prove $f(r) = r$ for all reals. First take $r > 1$. Assume $f(r) > r$. Then there exists some rational $q$ with $\frac{1}{f(q)} + \frac{1}{f(r)} < 1 < \frac 1q + \frac 1r$, contradiction. Symmetrical argument proves $f(r) = r$ for $r > 1$. Now consider $R(\frac 1r)$, this gives $f(\frac{1}{f(\frac 1r)}) = r$, giving $\frac 1r = f(\frac 1r)$ by injectivity.
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bin_sherlo
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\[\frac{1}{f(y)}+x=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(x))\]Answer is $f(x)=x$ which holds. Let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion.
Claim: $f$ is bijective.
Proof: If $f(a)=f(b)$, compare $P(a,y)$ and $P(b,y)$ to get contradiction. Fix $y$ and increase $x$ to see that $f$ takes all sufficiently large positive values. We can pick $1/f(y)$ sufficiently small thus, $f$ is surjective.
Claim: $f(\frac{1}{f(x)})=\frac{1}{x}$.
Proof: Plug $P(x,1/f(y))$ in order to observe that
\[\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(y)})}+x=f(f(x)+f(y))=\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(x)})}+y\implies x-\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(x)})}=y-\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(y)})}\]Since this implies $x-1/f(1/f(x))$ is constant and it's smaller than any positive $y$, it must be a nonpositive constant. Let $\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{f(x)})}=x+c$ or $f(\frac{1}{f(x)})=\frac{1}{x+c}$ where $c\geq 0$. By symmetry and injectivity we have
\[f(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y+c})=f(\frac{1}{x}+f(\frac{1}{f(y)}))=\frac{1}{f(y)}+\frac{1}{f(x)}=f(\frac{1}{y}+f(\frac{1}{f(x)}))=f(\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{x+c})\]Thus, $\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+c}=\frac{c}{x(x+c)}$ is constant which requires $c=0$. So $f(1/f(x))=1/x$ as we have claimed.
Claim: $f$ is involution and $f(x)f(\frac{1}{x})=1$.
Proof: $P(x,1/f(y))$ gives $x+y=f(f(x)+f(y)) $. We get $f(f(x)+f(y+z))=x+y+z=f(f(x+z)+f(y))$ and injectivity implies $f(x+y)-f(x)$ is independent of $x$. Let $f(x+y)-f(x)=h(y)$. Since $h(x)+f(y)=f(x+y)=h(y)+f(x)$ we observe $h(x)=f(x)+d$. Thus, $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)+d$.
\[f(f(x))+f(\frac{1}{y})+d=f(f(x)+\frac{1}{y})=x+\frac{1}{f(y)}\]$f(f(x))-x=t$ and $f(\frac{1}{y})-\frac{1}{f(y)}=r$. Since $r=f(\frac{1}{f(x)})-\frac{1}{f(f(x))}=\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+t}=\frac{t}{x(x+t)}$, we must have $t=0$ which implies $r=0$. Thus, $f$ is an involution and $f(x)f(\frac{1}{x})=1$.
Claim: $f$ is additive.
Proof: $P(f(x),1/y)$ yields $f(x)+f(y)=f(x+y)$.

Since $f$ is additive and $f$ takes values on positive reals, $f$ is Cauchy function hence $f(x)=cx$ which implies $c=1$. So $f(x)=x$ is the only solution as desired.$\blacksquare$
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