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k a June Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Jun 2, 2025
Congratulations to all the mathletes who competed at National MATHCOUNTS! If you missed the exciting Countdown Round, you can watch the video at this link. Are you interested in training for MATHCOUNTS or AMC 10 contests? How would you like to train for these math competitions in half the time? We have accelerated sections which meet twice per week instead of once starting on July 8th (7:30pm ET). These sections fill quickly so enroll today!

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0 replies
1 viewing
jlacosta
Jun 2, 2025
0 replies
Problem 2 IMO 2005 (Day 1)
Valentin Vornicu   82
N 8 minutes ago by mahyar_ais
Let $a_1,a_2,\ldots$ be a sequence of integers with infinitely many positive and negative terms. Suppose that for every positive integer $n$ the numbers $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_n$ leave $n$ different remainders upon division by $n$.

Prove that every integer occurs exactly once in the sequence $a_1,a_2,\ldots$.
82 replies
1 viewing
Valentin Vornicu
Jul 13, 2005
mahyar_ais
8 minutes ago
Strange multi-equation
giangtruong13   1
N 9 minutes ago by iniffur
Source: One of Vietnamese Specialized School's Math Entrance Exam
Solve the multi equation: $\begin{cases}  x^3+x^2-xy^2=\sqrt{(x-y^2)^3} \\  56x^2+20(x^2-y^2)=\sqrt[3]{4x(8x+1)}-2\end{cases}$
1 reply
giangtruong13
Yesterday at 3:07 PM
iniffur
9 minutes ago
Easy Diff NT
xToiletG   1
N 11 minutes ago by Bet667
Prove that for every $n \geq 2$ there exists positive integers $x, y, z$ such that
$$\frac{4}{n}=\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}$$
1 reply
xToiletG
6 hours ago
Bet667
11 minutes ago
One of the lines is tangent
Rijul saini   5
N 15 minutes ago by AN1729
Source: LMAO 2025 Day 2 Problem 2
Let $ABC$ be a scalene triangle with incircle $\omega$. Denote by $N$ the midpoint of arc $BAC$ in the circumcircle of $ABC$, and by $D$ the point where the $A$-excircle touches $BC$. Suppose the circumcircle of $AND$ meets $BC$ again at $P \neq D$ and intersects $\omega$ at two points $X$, $Y$.

Prove that either $PX$ or $PY$ is tangent to $\omega$.

Proposed by Sanjana Philo Chacko
5 replies
Rijul saini
Yesterday at 7:02 PM
AN1729
15 minutes ago
How to write up a functional equation solution
math_explorer   0
Feb 17, 2017
None of this is original, but I don't remember how I picked it up and don't have a good place to refer to every time I feel the need (which I bet exists and somebody will point it out to me really soon because of Cunningham's law but anyway):

Let's say you have a functional equation like:

[quote]Find all functions $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ such that \[ f(x + f(y)) = f(f(x)) + y \]for all $x, y \in \mathbb{R}$.[/quote]
(I just made this up by putting a lot of random $f$s on the page, by the way. I hope it's solvable.)

Many people who are new to functional equations will write a solution like, "Let $x = 0$. Then we have $f(f(y)) = f(f(0)) + y$. Then $f(x + f(y)) = f(f(0)) + x + y$. ..."

Depending on the problem, this can be an okay writeup, but more often it gets really confusing and hard to read. The issue is usually something like you want to take $x$ in the equation and replace it with, say, $(1-x)$ or $x + y$ or something else depending on $x$, and then do something else with that equation; or you might want to swap $x$ and $y$ in the equation. But writing "Let $x = 1-x$" or anything resembling that is horrible... if $x = 1-x$ doesn't that just mean $x = 1/2$? How do we know whether the two $x$'s on the two sides of your equation are the same, and if not, which one is which?

The short workaround is to use a different variable name, "Let $x = 1 - a$", and then end up with an equation involving $a$ that you do more things with, but sometimes this requires extra foresight into what you're going to do with the equation and can be annoying for a different host of reasons, e.g. you accidentally reuse a variable name used elsewhere.

The cleanest way around this is to start your solution by saying, "Let $P(x, y)$ denote [the given functional equation]": for example, "Let $P(x, y)$ denote the statement \[ f(x + f(y)) = f(f(x)) + y. \]"

Then you can do things like "replace $x$ with $1-x$" with no ambiguity just by writing "$P(1-x, y)$".

In our example, we might write:

From $P(0, x)$ we get $f(f(x)) = f(f(0)) + x$ for all $x$. Plugging back into $P(x, y)$ we get \[ f(x + f(y)) = f(f(0)) + x + y \]for all $x, y$. Let $Q(x, y)$ denote this statement.

Suppose $f(y) = f(y')$; then by comparing $P(x, y)$ with $P(x, y')$ we see \[ f(f(x)) + y' = f(x + f(y)) = f(x + f(y')) = f(f(x)) + y, \]so $y = y'$, and so $f$ is injective.

Comparing $Q(x, y)$ with $Q(y, x)$, we see... (rest of solution left as exercise for reader)

I'm not even sure why $P$ is the right letter to use, but that was the letter I learned at whatever point I picked this up and it seems pretty common on the fora — some people even use the $P$ in their solution to functional equations without even defining $P$. (I don't recommend that.)

(I actually probably won't even end up referring to this post because it's written in such a casual manner for this blog but eh, post in February)
0 replies
math_explorer
Feb 17, 2017
0 replies
Abstract functional equation
math_explorer   0
Jan 26, 2013
An anti-homomorphism from a ring $R$ to a ring $R'$ is a homomorphism $\eta$ (what a great letter) between the additive groups that also satisfies $\eta(1) = 1$ and $\eta(ab) = \eta(b)\eta(a)$ for any $a, b \in R$.

A Jordan homomorphism from a ring $R$ to a ring $R'$ is a homomorphism $\eta$ between the additive groups that also satisfies $\eta(1) = 1$ and $\eta(aba) = \eta(a)\eta(b)\eta(a)$ for any $a, b \in R$.

Why do people have so many things named after them!?

If $R'$ is a domain, then the Jordan homomorphism is either a homomorphism or an anti-homomorphism.
This is so literally a functional equation...

Proof.
Let $P(a, b)$ denote the statement $\eta(aba) = \eta(a)\eta(b)\eta(a)$.

\[P(a, 1) \Longrightarrow \eta(a^2) = \eta(a)^2 \qquad \forall a \in R\]
\[P(a, a) \Longrightarrow \eta(a^3) = \eta(a)^3 \qquad \forall a \in R\]

Hmm qq is a substring of \qquad. /random

Subtracting $P(a, b)$ and $P(c, b)$ from $P(a+c, b)$ yields

\[ \eta(abc + cba) = \eta(a)\eta(b)\eta(c) + \eta(c)\eta(b)\eta(a) \]

(since $\eta$ is an additive group homomorphism)
Let this statement be $Q(a, b, c)$.

So, for any $x, y \in R$ we have

\begin{align*}&(\eta(xy) - \eta(x)\eta(y))(\eta(xy) - \eta(y)\eta(x)) \\ =& \eta(xy)^2 - \eta(xy)\eta(y)\eta(x) - \eta(x)\eta(y)\eta(xy) + \eta(x)\eta(y)\eta(y)\eta(x) \\ =& \eta(xyxy) - \eta(xy^2x + xyxy) + \eta(x)\eta(y^2)\eta(x) \\ =& \eta(xy^2x) - \eta(xy^2x) \\ =& 0 \end{align*}

using $Q(xy, y, x)$ and $\eta(y)^2 = \eta(y^2)$ and of course the additive-group-homomorphism properties.
(darn I'm not sure what the best way to typeset this without overflowing width is)

So (this is the only place where we use the condition that $R'$ is a domain) one of the factors in the original expression is 0, i.e. either $\eta(xy) = \eta(x)\eta(y)$ or $\eta(xy) = \eta(y)\eta(x)$ for any $x, y \in R$ (*).

In fact, the single condition (*) plus the additive-group-homomorphism properties are sufficient to prove that $\eta$ is either a homomorphism or an anti-homomorphism.

To prove this, we need to show it works like a homomorphism on all pairs $xy$ with $\eta(xy) = \eta(x)\eta(y)$, or like an anti-homomorphism on all pairs $xy$ with $\eta(xy) = \eta(y)\eta(x)$. This is somewhat an abuse of English but I think it gets the point across better than equation after equation. We provide two ways to finish.

The Straightforward Bash

Claim. For any $a, b, c$, either $\eta$ acts as a homomorphism or as an anti-homomorphism on both pairs $ab$ and $ac$. Similar remarks hold for $ba$ and $ca$.

Proof of claim. If this is not true, then the only other possibility for (*) is that $\eta$ acts as a homomorphism on one pair and as an anti-homomorphism on the other.

Suppose (WLOG) $\eta(ab) = \eta(a)\eta(b)$ and $\eta(ac) = \eta(c)\eta(a)$. Consider $\eta(a(b+c)) = \eta(ab) + \eta(ac)$.

If $\eta(a(b+c)) = \eta(a)\eta(b+c) = \eta(a)\eta(b) + \eta(a)\eta(c)$ then $\eta(ac) = \eta(a)\eta(c)$ too.
Otherwise if $\eta(a(b+c)) = \eta(b+c)\eta(a) = \eta(b)\eta(a) + \eta(c)\eta(a)$ then $\eta(ab) = \eta(b)\eta(a)$ too.

Both contradict our initial assumption. Thus $\eta$ acts as a homomorphism on both or as an anti-homomorphism on both.
-- end claim --

Now: suppose $\eta$ works on some pair as only a homomorphism and on some other pair as only an anti-homomorphism, that is: $\eta(ab) = \eta(a)\eta(b) \neq \eta(b)\eta(a)$ while $\eta(cd) = \eta(d)\eta(c) \neq \eta(c)\eta(d)$.
From what we just derived, this forces $\eta$ to work as both a homomorphism and an anti-homomorphism on the pairs $ad$ and $bc$. Thus:

\begin{align*} \eta(ad) &= \eta(a)\eta(d) = \eta(d)\eta(a) \\ \eta(cb) &= \eta(c)\eta(b) = \eta(b)\eta(c) \\ \eta(a(b+d)) &= \eta(a)(\eta(b) + \eta(d)) = \eta(a)\eta(b+d) \\ &\neq (\eta(b) + \eta(d))\eta(a) = \eta(b+d)\eta(a) \\ \eta(c(b+d)) &\neq \eta(c)(\eta(b) + \eta(d)) = \eta(c)\eta(b+d) \\ &= (\eta(b)+\eta(d))\eta(c) = \eta(b+d)\eta(c) \end{align*}

i.e. $\eta$ works on $a(b+d)$ as only a homomorphism, and on $c(b+d)$ as only an anti-homomorphism, impossible.

Thus $\eta$ is fully a homomorphism or fully an anti-homomorphism (it may be partially both, on elements that commute). Q.E.D.

Slick Group Theory!

Observe:
1. $\eta(a)\eta(1) = \eta(a)1' = \eta(a1)$
2. $\eta(a)\eta(b) = \eta(ab)$ and $\eta(a)\eta(c) = \eta(ac)$ together imply $\eta(a)\eta(b + c) = \eta(a(b+c))$ (additive homomorphism properties + distributivity)
3. $\eta(a)\eta(b) = \eta(ab)$ implies $\eta(a)\eta(-b) = \eta(a(-b))$ since obviously $-1$ commutes with everybody multiplicatively just like $1$

(Firefox, how can you not think "multiplicatively" is a word?!)

Therefore, for any $a$, the set of all $b$ such that $\eta(a)\eta(b) = \eta(ab)$ is a subgroup of the additive group of $R$.

Similar remarks hold if you fix $b$ and collect all $a$, or if you look at pairs with $\eta(b)\eta(a) = \eta(ab)$, or both.

Some quick group-theory lemmata:

Lemma 1. The intersection of any number of subgroups of a group is a subgroup. Proof. Just verify all the axioms trivially.

Lemma 2. If the union of two subgroups $H$ and $L$ of a group $G$ is $G$ itself then one of the subgroups is improper. Proof: If $H$ is included in $L$ or vice versa, the result is clear; otherwise, take $h \in H \setminus L$ and $\ell \in L \setminus H$ and observe that $h\ell$ is in neither $H$ nor $L$, a contradiction.

Therefore:
Fix $a$ and collect $B_1 := \{ b \in R \mid \eta(ab) = \eta(a)\eta(b) \}$ and $B_2 := \{ b \in R \mid \eta(ab) = \eta(b)\eta(a) \}$.

From (*), $B_1 \cup B_2 = R$; also, as we discussed, $B_1$ and $B_2$ are subgroups of the additive group of $R$. Then by Lemma 2, either $B_1 = R$ or $B_2 = R$ (**).

Now collect $A_1 := \{ a \in R \mid \eta(ab) = \eta(a)\eta(b) \; \forall b \in R \}$ and $A_2 := \{ a \in R \mid \eta(ab) = \eta(b)\eta(a) \; \forall b \in R \}$.

Note that $A_1 = \bigcap_{b \in R} \{ a \in R \mid \eta(ab) = \eta(a)\eta(b) \}$, which is a subgroup of $R$ from our initial discussion and Lemma 1. Similarly, $A_2$ is a subgroup of $R$ too. Then (**) says that for any $a \in R$, either $a \in A_1$ or $a \in A_2$, i.e. $A_1 \cup A_2 = R$. By Lemma 2 either $A_1 = R$, whence $\eta$ is a homomorphism, or $A_2 = R$, whence $\eta$ is an anti-homomorphism. Q.E.D.
0 replies
math_explorer
Jan 26, 2013
0 replies
No more topics!
CHKMO 2018 P2
YanYau   12
N Jan 13, 2021 by Krits
Suppose $ABCD$ is a cyclic quadrilateral. Extend $DA$ and $DC$ to $P$ and $Q$ respectively such that $AP=BC$ and $CQ=AB$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $PQ$. Show that $MA\perp MC$.
12 replies
YanYau
Dec 2, 2017
Krits
Jan 13, 2021
CHKMO 2018 P2
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G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
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YanYau
133 posts
#1 • 3 Y
Y by integrated_JRC, Adventure10, Mango247
Suppose $ABCD$ is a cyclic quadrilateral. Extend $DA$ and $DC$ to $P$ and $Q$ respectively such that $AP=BC$ and $CQ=AB$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $PQ$. Show that $MA\perp MC$.
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ThE-dArK-lOrD
4071 posts
#2 • 3 Y
Y by Tawan, Vietjung, Adventure10
Let $B'$ be a point on $(ABCD)$ such that $BB'CA$ is an isosceles trapezoid, we have $B'C=AB=QC$ and $B'A=CB=PA$.
Let $N$ be the second intersection of $(PAB')$ with $PQ$.
We've $\angle{B'NP}=\angle{B'AD}=180^{\circ}-\angle{B'CD}$. So, $\angle{B'CD}=180^{\circ}-\angle{B'NP}=\angle{B'NQ}$.
This means $N'$ also lies on $(B'CQ)$.
Note that $CB'=CQ$ and $AB'=AP$. So $\angle{ANC}=\angle{B'NC}+\angle{B'NA}=\frac{\angle{B'NQ}+\angle{B'NP}}{2}=90^{\circ}$.
Let $(ANC)$ intersects $PQ$ again at $M'$, note that $\angle{AM'C}=90^{\circ}$.
It's enough to prove that $M'=M$, i.e. $M'$ is the midpoint of $PQ$.
Note that we've $\angle{M'AC}=\angle{CNQ}=\angle{CB'Q}$.
Reflect $A$ and $C$ over $M'$ to get $A'$ and $C'$, respectively. Also, reflect $B'$ over $AC$ to get $B_2$.
We've $CB'=CQ,CA=CA'$ and $\angle{ACA'}=\angle{B'CQ}\Rightarrow \angle{B'CA}=\angle{QCA'}$.
This gives $\triangle{B'CA}\equiv \triangle{QCA'}$. It follows that $\triangle{AB_2C}$ is the reflection of $\triangle{A'QC}$ over $CM'$.
Similarly, $\triangle{CB_2A}$ is the reflection of $\triangle{C'PA}$ over $AM'$.
Hence, $\angle{PAM'}=\angle{B_2AM'}=\angle{B_2AC}+\angle{CAM'}=\angle{B'AC}+\angle{CA'M'}=\angle{CA'Q}+\angle{CA'M'}=\angle{M'A'Q}$.
So, $AP\parallel A'Q$. Since $M'$ is the midpoint of $AA'$, $M'$ is also the midpoint of $PQ$, done.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by ThE-dArK-lOrD, Dec 2, 2017, 6:01 PM
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ayan.nmath
643 posts
#3 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Solution: We flip $\Delta ABC$. Note that this preserve all the properties of the configuration.
We use complex numbers to prove $\angle AMC=\pi/2$. Lowercase letters will denote the corresponding uppercase letter points in the configuration, let the cyclic quadrilateral $ABCD$ lie on the unit circle.
Then since $d,c,q$ are collinear we have,
\[\frac{d-c}{q-c}=\frac{\bar{d}-\bar{c}}{\bar{q}-\bar{c}}\implies \bar{q}=\frac{c-q+d}{cd}\]Again since $BC=CQ$,
\[|b-c|=|c-q|\implies (c-b)(\frac{1}{c}-\frac{1}{b})=(\frac{1}{c}-\frac{c-q+d}{cd})(c-q)\]\[\implies q=\pm\frac{\sqrt{d}(b-a)}{\sqrt{b}}+c\]Similarly,
\[p=\pm\frac{\sqrt{d}(b-a)}{\sqrt{b}}+a\]We can rotate the quadrilateral, so WLOG we can assume $b=1$.
It can be seen that exactly one of them is $+$ and the other has $-$ sign. WLOG assume $p$ has $+$ sign.
Therefore,
\[m=\frac{p+q}{2}=\frac{\sqrt{d}(a-c)+c+a}{2}\]Let $\delta=\frac{2a-2m}{2c-2m}$, we wish to show $\delta+\bar{\delta}=0$. Now,
\[\delta=\frac{2a+\sqrt{d}(c-a)-c-a}{2c+\sqrt{d}(c-a)-c-a}=\frac{(c-a)(\sqrt{d}-1)}{(c-a)(\sqrt{d}+1)}=\frac{\sqrt{d}-1}{\sqrt{d}+1}\]Hence,
\[\bar{\delta}=\frac{\frac{1}{\sqrt{d}}-1}{\frac{1}{\sqrt{d}}+1}=\frac{1-\sqrt{d}}{1+\sqrt{d}}\]Thus, $\delta+\bar{\delta}=0$. And we are done. $\blacksquare$

Remark: I am a beginner in complex bashing, so...
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by ayan.nmath, Dec 3, 2017, 2:53 AM
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Davrbek
252 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
YanYau wrote:
Suppose $ABCD$ is a cyclic quadrilateral. Extend $DA$ and $DC$ to $P$ and $Q$ respectively such that $AP=BC$ and $CQ=AB$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $PQ$. Show that $MA\perp MC$.

From medians formula we need to prove
$MA^2+MC^2=AC^2$.
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DimPlak
44 posts
#5 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
ayan.nmath wrote:
Solution: We flip $\Delta ABC$. Note that this preserve all the properties of the configuration.
We use complex numbers to prove $\angle AMC=\pi/2$. Lowercase letters will denote the corresponding uppercase letter points in the configuration, let the cyclic quadrilateral $ABCD$ lie on the unit circle.
Then since $d,c,q$ are collinear we have,
\[\frac{d-c}{q-c}=\frac{\bar{d}-\bar{c}}{\bar{q}-\bar{c}}\implies \bar{q}=\frac{c-q+d}{cd}\]Again since $BC=CQ$,
\[|b-c|=|c-q|\implies (c-b)(\frac{1}{c}-\frac{1}{b})=(\frac{1}{c}-\frac{c-q+d}{cd})(c-q)\]\[\implies q=\pm\frac{\sqrt{d}(b-a)}{\sqrt{b}}+c\]Similarly,
\[p=\pm\frac{\sqrt{d}(b-a)}{\sqrt{b}}+a\]We can rotate the quadrilateral, so WLOG we can assume $b=1$.
It can be seen that exactly one of them is $+$ and the other has $-$ sign. WLOG assume $p$ has $+$ sign.
Therefore,
\[m=\frac{p+q}{2}=\frac{\sqrt{d}(a-c)+c+a}{2}\]Let $\delta=\frac{2a-2m}{2c-2m}$, we wish to show $\delta+\bar{\delta}=0$. Now,
\[\delta=\frac{2a+\sqrt{d}(c-a)-c-a}{2c+\sqrt{d}(c-a)-c-a}=\frac{(c-a)(\sqrt{d}-1)}{(c-a)(\sqrt{d}+1)}=\frac{\sqrt{d}-1}{\sqrt{d}+1}\]Hence,
\[\bar{\delta}=\frac{\frac{1}{\sqrt{d}}-1}{\frac{1}{\sqrt{d}}+1}=\frac{1-\sqrt{d}}{1+\sqrt{d}}\]Thus, $\delta+\bar{\delta}=0$. And we are done. $\blacksquare$

Remark: I am a beginner in complex bashing, so...

Good evening! We have BC = AP , not BC = CQ ! Although it is not a dammage for the whole idea! :-)
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by DimPlak, Dec 23, 2017, 6:26 PM
Reason: change opinion
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ayan.nmath
643 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
@above Umm... Actually it is "Good night" for me :D.
I wrote "We flip $\triangle ABC$" in the very first line of my proof, so I think it should be fine.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by ayan.nmath, Dec 23, 2017, 6:42 PM
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DimPlak
44 posts
#7 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
ayan.nmath wrote:
@above Umm... Actually it is "Good night" for me :D.
I wrote "We flip $\triangle ABC$" in the very first line of my proof, so I think it should be fine.

Sorry, but I don't understand the term "flip" ! Im a beginner too, more than you! :-)
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qweDota
150 posts
#8 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Make a trapezoids $ABCP_{1}$ and $ABCQ_{1}$ such that $AP=BC=AP_{1}$ and $CQ=AB=CQ_{1}$.Let $CP_{1}\cap AQ_{1}=N$ then $180-\angle ADC=\angle ABC=\angle ANC=\angle P_{1}NQ_{1}$ wich gives $\angle AP_{1}N=\angle AP_{1}=\angle ADCC=\angle ADC=\angle P_{1}NA$ so $P_{1}A=AN=AP$ and similarly $NQ_{1}=NC=CQ$.Now $$\angle PDQ+\angle DPN+\angle DQN=\angle PNQ...(1)$$but $\angle PDQ=180-\angle ABC=180-\angle ANC=180-(\angle ANP+\angle PNQ+\angle CNQ)=180-(\angle DPN+\angle PNQ+\angle DQN )$ and replacing in $(1)$ gives $180 =2\angle PNQ$ so $\angle PNQ=90$ and so $MN=MP=MQ$ but we proved $PA=AN$ and $CN=CQ$ thus $MA$ bisects $\angle NMP$ and $MC$ bisects $\angle NMQ$ so $\angle AMC=\frac{\angle NMP+\angle NMQ}{2}=90$ as desired.$\blacksquare$
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mofumofu
179 posts
#9 • 7 Y
Y by tenplusten, MarkBcc168, jchang0313, BALAMATDA, Lsyaaaaaaaa, Adventure10, Mango247
Let $K,N$ be the midpoints of $CA,CP$, then $\triangle ABC\sim \triangle MNK$ with ratio $2$, so $KM=\frac{AC}{2}=KA=KC$ $\implies MA\perp MC$.
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IstekOlympiadTeam
542 posts
#10 • 7 Y
Y by tenplusten, luizp, Godfather2043, BALAMATDA, Adventure10, Mango247, JJeom
Let $A'$ be the reflection of point $A$ through point $M$ $\implies$ $APA'Q$ is a parallelogram.
Since $\angle APQ + \angle CQP=\angle ABC$ , it follows that that $\angle A'QC=\angle CQP+\angle A'QP=\angle CQP+\angle APQ=\angle ABC$.$\implies$ $\boxed{\angle A'QC=\angle ABC}$.
And we also have that $A'Q=AP$ and $CQ=AB$ $\implies$ $\boxed{\triangle ABC= \triangle A'QC}$
$\implies$ $AC=A'C$ $\implies$ $CM\perp AM$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by IstekOlympiadTeam, Mar 12, 2018, 5:12 PM
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MarkBcc168
1595 posts
#11
Y by
Here is a routine spiral similarity solution.

Let $T = \odot(DAC)\cap \odot(DPQ)$ be the spiral center. Then, since $\triangle TAP\sim\triangle TCQ$, $\tfrac{TA}{TC} = \tfrac{AP}{CQ} = \tfrac{BC}{AB}$, which means that $BT$ passes through the midpoint $K$ of $AC$. Seeing this, we observe that $\triangle TAP\sim\triangle TKM$ or
$$\frac{KM}{TK} = \frac{AP}{AT} = \frac{BC}{AT} = \frac{CK}{KT}$$or $KM=KC=KA$ as desired.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by MarkBcc168, Sep 3, 2020, 1:34 PM
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dgreenb801
1896 posts
#12 • 4 Y
Y by math31415926535, Mango247, Mango247, Mango247
See my solution to this problem on my Youtube channel here:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5aTTapplHQQ
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Krits
147 posts
#13 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Let $B'$ be the reflection of $B$ about perpendicular bisector of $AC$. Let $A,C$ be the midpoints of $PS,QT$ respectively. So $\triangle B'PS\overset{+}{\sim}\triangle B'TQ$ hence $B',P,S,PT\cap QS$ are cyclic. The fact that $AM//QS$ and $MC//PT$ finishes.
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