Random Random FE

by utkarshgupta, Feb 16, 2017, 2:09 AM

Problem :
Find all functions $f : Let $$f:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ such that
$$f(x^{2}+y+f(y))=2y+f(x)^2$$

Okay....
Here it goes...

Solution :
Let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion
$$f(x^{2}+y+f(y))=2y+f(x)^2.$$
And let $k=\frac{-f(0)^2}{2}$
$$P(0,k) \implies f(k)=0$$
Now let if possible, there exist some $a \neq k$ such that $f(a)=0$,
$P(0,a) \implies f(a) = f(0)^2 + 2a \neq 0$

A contradiction !

Hence $f(t) = 0 \implies t = k$.

Let $f(0)=c$ then $k = \frac{-c^2}{2}$.

$$P(k,0) \implies f(k^2+f(0)) = f(k)^2 = 0$$$$\implies k^2 + c = k$$$$\implies c = 0,2$$
Let if possible $c=2 \implies k=-2$
Then $P(0,0) \implies f(2) = 4$
$P(0,k) \implies f(2) = 0$

A contradiction !

$$\boxed {f(0) = 0}$$And there exists no $a \neq 0$ such that $f(a)=0$

$$P(x,\frac{-f(x)^2}{2}) \implies f(x^2 + \frac{-f(x)^2}{2} + f(\frac{-f(x)^2}{2})) = 0$$$$\implies x^2 + \frac{-f(x)^2}{2} + f(\frac{-f(x)^2}{2}) = 0$$
Thus if $f(a) = f(b)$ then $a^2 = b^2$

Let if possible $f(a) = f(-a)$ for some $a \neq 0$
$$f(a + f(a)) = 2a = -f(-a + f(-a))$$
Hence $$f((a+f(a))^2) = f((-a+f(a))^2)$$Since $x^2 > 0$...
We must have $a^2+f(a)^2+2af(a) = a^2 + f(a)^2 - 2af(a)$
That is either $a= 0$ or $f(a) = 0$
A contradiction !

Hence $f$ is injective.


$$P(x,0) \implies f(x^2) = f(x)^2 \ge 0$$$$P(0,y) \implies f(y+f(y)) = 2y$$
Let $z^2 - y^2 + f(z^2) - f(y^2) = x^2$ (assume greater than zero or else we can assume it to be equal to $-x^2$)
$$P(x^2,y^2) \implies f(x^2+y^2 + f(y^2)) = f(x^2) + 2y^2$$$$P(0,z^2) \implies f(z^2+f(z^2)) = 2z^2$$$$\implies f(x^2 + f(z^2) - f(y^2)) = 2(y^2-z^2) = f(x^2 + f(x^2))$$Since $f$ is injective
$$f(x^2+y^2) = f(x^2) + f(y^2)$$.
We also have $-f(x) = f(-x)$ and $f(x^2) > 0$
So by Cauchy we are done !

That is $\boxed {f(x)=x}$ is the only solution !
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by utkarshgupta, Feb 16, 2017, 4:31 AM

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5 Comments

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Doesn't $k^2+c=k \Longrightarrow c \in \{0,-2\}$ instead?

by anantmudgal09, Feb 17, 2017, 5:15 PM

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That was a silly mistake :P
But a contradiction can be derived nevertheless
Will edit later :)

by utkarshgupta, Feb 18, 2017, 3:19 AM

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Yes. My idea for a correction was $$f(f(0)+f(f(0)))=2f(0)+f(0)^2,$$and as $f(f(0))=f(0)^2,$ we obtain $$f(f(0)^2+f(0))=f(f(0))^2=f(0)^4,$$so $c$ also satisfies $c^4-c^2-2c=0$. Combined with $k^2+c=k,$ we get $c=0$ as the only possibility. Rest is as you said.

by anantmudgal09, Feb 18, 2017, 8:43 AM

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Well actually...
If $c=-2$ we will get $f(-2) = -2$ and $f(-2)=0$
So yeah... :P

by utkarshgupta, Feb 18, 2017, 11:13 AM

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This was pretty nice! :)

by TheOneYouWant, Feb 22, 2017, 12:13 PM

Stay insane,Coz it's your will, labour and pain,which takes you to the top of the mountain.

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