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k a June Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Jun 2, 2025
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0 replies
jlacosta
Jun 2, 2025
0 replies
Find the measure of DF and FB
Darealzolt   0
5 hours ago
It is given that rectangle \(ABCD\) is inscribed in a circle. Let \(E\) be a point on the line segment \(AD\) such that \(DE=DC=6\), and \(EA=2\). Let the extension of the line segment \(CE\) intersects the circumcircle of \(ABCD\) at point \(F\), hence find the lengths of line segments \(DF\) and \(FB\).
0 replies
Darealzolt
5 hours ago
0 replies
9 Prodigy AoPS or Khanacadamy
ZMB038   116
N Today at 5:28 AM by LuminousWolverine
Hey everyone just was wondering what everybody prefers? Try not to fight so this doesn't get locked!
116 replies
ZMB038
May 22, 2025
LuminousWolverine
Today at 5:28 AM
Khan Academy Math Question
ChaitraliKA   7
N Today at 5:24 AM by Davin0913
I've been doing Geometry 1 on Khan academy in summer break because I'm taking that class next year in 8th grade.
I've gotten this question wrong at least 6 times now. If she fills 3/4 the height of the cone, then the height would be 7.5. I wanted to know how that should affect the diameter of the new cone. Wouldn't it just be 3/4 of the original diameter which is 6? Then when I go to solve it, I did 6^2(pi) for base area, then multiplied by 7.5 (height), and then divided by 3 because it's a cone. That gave me around 282.74333882308, and rounded to the nearest cubic centimeter, it is 283. Khan Academy says I am wrong. Can someone please explain to me what my error is? Thanks!

See the attachment for the question
7 replies
ChaitraliKA
Jul 18, 2023
Davin0913
Today at 5:24 AM
khan academy
Spacepandamath13   20
N Today at 5:23 AM by Davin0913
I haven't done khan academy in so long but today I had to learn law of sines. I wish khan academy taught competition math because their format, and self paced learning seems a bit better than aops' plus sal's videos for each topic are so good
20 replies
Spacepandamath13
May 18, 2025
Davin0913
Today at 5:23 AM
No more topics!
k 0!??????
wizwilzo   32
N Apr 25, 2025 by steve4916
why is 0! "1" ??!
32 replies
wizwilzo
Jul 6, 2016
steve4916
Apr 25, 2025
0!??????
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
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wizwilzo
1985 posts
#1 • 4 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, DhruvJha, Exponent11
why is 0! "1" ??!
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BobThePotato
1182 posts
#2 • 6 Y
Y by ninjasrule34, TheMathematicsTiger7, Adventure10, Mango247, DhruvJha, Exponent11
Recall that for all positive integers $n$, $n!/n=(n-1)!.$ Hence we have that $1!/1=1=(1-1)!=0!.$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by BobThePotato, Jul 6, 2016, 5:37 PM
Reason: Rearrangement.
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pilover123
461 posts
#3 • 5 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, Owen314159, DhruvJha, Exponent11
Also, one common use of factorials is to determine the number of ways we can arrange n books on a shelf. For example, the way we find out how many ways we can arrange 5 books is 5! or 120 ways. If we have 0 books, then there is only 1 way to arrange them, which is do nothing
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mcmcphie
1196 posts
#4 • 4 Y
Y by wizwilzo, Adventure10, DhruvJha, Exponent11
Note that factorials aren't strictly defined for nonpositive numbers. Thus, $0!$ is defined to make sense in counting problems as shown in the above post.
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wizwilzo
1985 posts
#5 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, DhruvJha
thanks! I understand now
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zxcv1337
1631 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Just a question off the top of my head, Can negative numbers have factorials? like for instance $-1!$ or $-2!$
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KenV
1198 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Another reason is because $12$ choose $12$ is obviously $1$, and solving for $0!$ gives you $0!=1$.
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Darkdoger
216 posts
#8 • 3 Y
Y by ninjasrule34, Adventure10, Mango247
ramarnath2 wrote:
Just a question off the top of my head, Can negative numbers have factorials? like for instance $-1!$ or $-2!$

This might be a bit confusing taking only MSM level into the account, but the Gamma Function is related to this.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gamma_function


Taking into account the Gamma Function, it is safe to say that factorials of all negative integers are undefined.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Darkdoger, Jul 6, 2016, 5:50 PM
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First
2352 posts
#9 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
If I have zero things, how many ways can I arrange them. The answer would be 1, though it might be confusing.
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mcmcphie
1196 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Exponent11
But then $\dfrac{0}{0}$ makes perfect sense.

As Siri would say, 0 people and 0 cookies, then each of the 0 people would get 0 cookies. $0 \cdot 0 = 0$, after all.
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pilover123
461 posts
#11 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
ramarnath2 wrote:
Just a question off the top of my head, Can negative numbers have factorials? like for instance $-1!$ or $-2!$

If use the fact that $\frac{n!}{n}={(n-1)}!$ , we get $\frac{0!}{0}={(-1)}!$ . We know that division by 0 is undefined, so negative factorials are undefined.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by pilover123, Jul 6, 2016, 6:00 PM
Reason: Problem
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tijnasreksab
509 posts
#12 • 2 Y
Y by T314159, Adventure10
mcmcphie wrote:
But then $\dfrac{0}{0}$ makes perfect sense.

As Siri would say, 0 people and 0 cookies, then each of the 0 people would get 0 cookies. $0 \cdot 0 = 0$, after all.
Well, each of the 0 people could also get 15 cookies. That's why 0/0 can take on any value you give it.
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mcmcphie
1196 posts
#13 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
But you have 0 cookies...
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bkn6
700 posts
#14 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
And there are 0 people to share it...
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yegkatie
911 posts
#15 • 4 Y
Y by T314159, tijnasreksab, Adventure10, Mango247
$\frac{0}{0}$ is basically asking, what times 0 equals 0? But anything times zero equals 0 so $\frac{0}{0}=\text{anything}$.
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mcmcphie
1196 posts
#16 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Yeah, I guess.
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Littlelachy
934 posts
#17 • 2 Y
Y by rafayaashary1, Adventure10
ramarnath2 wrote:
Just a question off the top of my head, Can negative numbers have factorials? like for instance $-1!$ or $-2!$

Technically yes but they are all undefined.
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FlyingCucumber
1675 posts
#18 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, Exponent11
mcmcphie wrote:
But you have 0 cookies...

You could give 0 cookies to 0 people 15 times.
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Mathguy5837
778 posts
#19 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Sorry if this is a bit off topic for this but $-2^2=-4$ because the minus sign isn't part of the number. Shouldn't it therefore be $(-1)!$? Or do we not need the brackets?
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yamyamx2
253 posts
#20 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
You probably do need the brackets for factorials otherwise -1! would just be -1.
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tijnasreksab
509 posts
#21 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Correct, Google's calculator agrees.
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wizwilzo
1985 posts
#22 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
very irrelevant but if you type in "calc", the calculator will show up
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scurry30
302 posts
#23 • 3 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247, iwastedmyusername
0! is 0 factorial, and that would equal to 1 .
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eric201291
209 posts
#25
Y by
Because, 1=Cn,n=n!/(n!*0!), so 0!=1
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CKracingcar
1090 posts
#27
Y by
$3! = 4!/4, 2! = 3!/3, 1! = 2!/2, 0! = 1!/1$
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eddie.li
32 posts
#28
Y by
0+1=0 so 0!=1
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Bummer12345
162 posts
#29
Y by
bumping a 9 year old post is not $$\sum$$
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DhruvJha
900 posts
#30
Y by
0!= 0+1!=1
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greenplanet2050
1346 posts
#31
Y by
DhruvJha wrote:
0!= 0+1!=1

thats not an explanation
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Thayaden
1366 posts
#41
Y by
wizwilzo wrote:
why is 0! "1" ??!

Intuitive solution,

A factorial represents the number of ways you can arrange $n$ books on a shelf. If there are no books, then all of the books are still arranged, thus there is 1 way to arrange zero books on a shelf, starting position.

Middel School Sloution,
define for $n\in\mathbb{Z}^+_0$ we know,
\begin{align*}
1! &=1,\\
2! &= 2,\\
3! &= 6,\\
4! &= 24.
\end{align*}Although reversing,
\begin{align*}
4! &= 24,\\
3! &= 6,\\
2! &= 2,\\
1! &= 1.
\end{align*}So to get to the last factorial, we divided by the number, ie to get $3!$ from $4!$, we divided $3!=24/4,$ going further $0! =1!/1=1$

High school grade solution
Consider
$$\Gamma(z)=\int_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{-x}dx=(n-1)!$$for $n\in\mathbb{Z}^+$ this is a much more formal definition for a factorial.
We find $\Gamma(1)=1$ thus $0!=1$
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Roger.Moore
5 posts
#48
Y by
From the variation formula V(n,k)=n!/(n-k)! if we put k=n, we must have V(n,k)=P(n)=n! hence 0! must be 1.
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itsjeyanth
22 posts
#59
Y by
0! = 1
div 1 = 1
1! = 1
div 2 = 1
2! = 2
div 3 = 2
3! = 6
div 4 = 6
4! = 24

here is a pretty simple way lil bro
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steve4916
88 posts
#65
Y by
$0!=1$ because if you have 0 objects to permute, then you only have 1 way to permute them: do nothing!
Z Y
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