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a My Retirement & New Leadership at AoPS
rrusczyk   1675
N a minute ago by SmartGroot
I write today to announce my retirement as CEO from Art of Problem Solving. When I founded AoPS 22 years ago, I never imagined that we would reach so many students and families, or that we would find so many channels through which we discover, inspire, and train the great problem solvers of the next generation. I am very proud of all we have accomplished and I’m thankful for the many supporters who provided inspiration and encouragement along the way. I'm particularly grateful to all of the wonderful members of the AoPS Community!

I’m delighted to introduce our new leaders - Ben Kornell and Andrew Sutherland. Ben has extensive experience in education and edtech prior to joining AoPS as my successor as CEO, including starting like I did as a classroom teacher. He has a deep understanding of the value of our work because he’s an AoPS parent! Meanwhile, Andrew and I have common roots as founders of education companies; he launched Quizlet at age 15! His journey from founder to MIT to technology and product leader as our Chief Product Officer traces a pathway many of our students will follow in the years to come.

Thank you again for your support for Art of Problem Solving and we look forward to working with millions more wonderful problem solvers in the years to come.

And special thanks to all of the amazing AoPS team members who have helped build AoPS. We’ve come a long way from here:IMAGE
1675 replies
+11 w
rrusczyk
Mar 24, 2025
SmartGroot
a minute ago
k a March Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Mar 2, 2025
March is the month for State MATHCOUNTS competitions! Kudos to everyone who participated in their local chapter competitions and best of luck to all going to State! Join us on March 11th for a Math Jam devoted to our favorite Chapter competition problems! Are you interested in training for MATHCOUNTS? Be sure to check out our AMC 8/MATHCOUNTS Basics and Advanced courses.

Are you ready to level up with Olympiad training? Registration is open with early bird pricing available for our WOOT programs: MathWOOT (Levels 1 and 2), CodeWOOT, PhysicsWOOT, and ChemWOOT. What is WOOT? WOOT stands for Worldwide Online Olympiad Training and is a 7-month high school math Olympiad preparation and testing program that brings together many of the best students from around the world to learn Olympiad problem solving skills. Classes begin in September!

Do you have plans this summer? There are so many options to fit your schedule and goals whether attending a summer camp or taking online classes, it can be a great break from the routine of the school year. Check out our summer courses at AoPS Online, or if you want a math or language arts class that doesn’t have homework, but is an enriching summer experience, our AoPS Virtual Campus summer camps may be just the ticket! We are expanding our locations for our AoPS Academies across the country with 15 locations so far and new campuses opening in Saratoga CA, Johns Creek GA, and the Upper West Side NY. Check out this page for summer camp information.

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following events:
[list][*]March 5th (Wednesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, HCSSiM Math Jam 2025. Amber Verser, Assistant Director of the Hampshire College Summer Studies in Mathematics, will host an information session about HCSSiM, a summer program for high school students.
[*]March 6th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar on Math Competitions from elementary through high school. Join us for an enlightening session that demystifies the world of math competitions and helps you make informed decisions about your contest journey.
[*]March 11th (Tuesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, 2025 MATHCOUNTS Chapter Discussion MATH JAM. AoPS instructors will discuss some of their favorite problems from the MATHCOUNTS Chapter Competition. All are welcome!
[*]March 13th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar about Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus. Transform your summer into an unforgettable learning adventure! From elementary through high school, we offer dynamic summer camps featuring topics in mathematics, language arts, and competition preparation - all designed to fit your schedule and ignite your passion for learning.[/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
Mar 2, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
Posting Guidelines
Update on Basic Forum Rules
What belongs on this forum?
How do I write a thorough solution?
How do I get a problem on the contest page?
How do I study for mathcounts?
Mathcounts FAQ and resources
Mathcounts and how to learn

As always, if you have any questions, you can PM me or any of the other Middle School Moderators. Once again, if you see spam, it would help a lot if you filed a report instead of responding :)

Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
a_1 = 2025 implies a_k < 1/2025?
navi_09220114   5
N 11 minutes ago by Chanome
Source: Own. Malaysian APMO CST 2025 P1
A sequence is defined as $a_1=2025$ and for all $n\ge 2$, $$a_n=\frac{a_{n-1}+1}{n}$$Determine the smallest $k$ such that $\displaystyle a_k<\frac{1}{2025}$.

Proposed by Ivan Chan Kai Chin
5 replies
navi_09220114
Feb 27, 2025
Chanome
11 minutes ago
Coins in a circle
JuanDelPan   15
N an hour ago by Ilikeminecraft
Source: Pan-American Girls’ Mathematical Olympiad 2021, P1
There are $n \geq 2$ coins numbered from $1$ to $n$. These coins are placed around a circle, not necesarily in order.

In each turn, if we are on the coin numbered $i$, we will jump to the one $i$ places from it, always in a clockwise order, beginning with coin number 1. For an example, see the figure below.

Find all values of $n$ for which there exists an arrangement of the coins in which every coin will be visited.
15 replies
1 viewing
JuanDelPan
Oct 6, 2021
Ilikeminecraft
an hour ago
Exponential + factorial diophantine
62861   34
N an hour ago by ali123456
Source: USA TSTST 2017, Problem 4, proposed by Mark Sellke
Find all nonnegative integer solutions to $2^a + 3^b + 5^c = n!$.

Proposed by Mark Sellke
34 replies
62861
Jun 29, 2017
ali123456
an hour ago
Everybody has 66 balls
YaoAOPS   3
N an hour ago by Blast_S1
Source: 2025 CTST P5
There are $2025$ people and $66$ colors, where each person has one ball of each color. For each person, their $66$ balls have positive mass summing to one. Find the smallest constant $C$ such that regardless of the mass distribution, each person can choose one ball such that the sum of the chosen balls of each color does not exceed $C$.
3 replies
1 viewing
YaoAOPS
Mar 6, 2025
Blast_S1
an hour ago
Mathcounts chapter target q8
LXC007   39
N an hour ago by Bocabulary142857
Did anyone solve question 8 of target for chapter. The question was find the area of the equilateral triangle with one vertex on (20,25) and the other two on the positive part of the x and y axis. This question was basically impossible in the roughly six minutes you had. nobody at my chapter solved it.
39 replies
LXC007
Mar 3, 2025
Bocabulary142857
an hour ago
The sheep problem
ysn613   12
N 2 hours ago by xHypotenuse
a) If I have three sheep, how can I arrange them so that they are all an equal distance away from each other?
b)If I have four sheep, how can I do the same thing as I wanted to do in part a)?
12 replies
ysn613
Today at 3:49 PM
xHypotenuse
2 hours ago
Newton Sums
mithu542   6
N 2 hours ago by Soupboy0
Should I memorize Newton's Sums? I already know the first two, but do you think it is worthy to memorize some more (especially 3)?

Website about Newton Sums
6 replies
mithu542
Today at 1:59 AM
Soupboy0
2 hours ago
If you'll be at the National MathCounts competition
Chatelet1   10
N 2 hours ago by Soupboy0
Don't forget to greet Richard if encountered in the hallway. He's retiring early at 53, so it's a good chance to wish him well!

Seminar on May 11:
Preparing Strong Math Students for College and Careers
9:30 – 10:30am ET | Anacostia Ballroom
Presented by Richard Rusczyk, Art of Problem Solving Founder.

Retirement announcement from Richard (3/24/2025)

I write today to announce my retirement as CEO from Art of Problem Solving. When I founded AoPS 22 years ago, I never imagined that we would reach so many students and families, or that we would find so many channels through which we discover, inspire, and train the great problem solvers of the next generation. I am very proud of all we have accomplished and I’m deeply grateful to all the AoPS team members who have helped build AoPS. I’m also thankful for the many supporters who provided inspiration and encouragement along the way.

I’m delighted to introduce our new leaders – Ben Kornell and Andrew Sutherland. Ben has extensive experience in education and edtech prior to joining AoPS as my successor as CEO, including starting like I did as a classroom teacher. He has a deep understanding of the value of our work because he’s an AoPS parent! Meanwhile, Andrew and I have common roots as founders of education companies; he launched Quizlet at age 15! His journey from founder to MIT to technology and product leader as our Chief Product Officer traces a pathway many of our students will follow in the years to come.
10 replies
Chatelet1
Mar 24, 2025
Soupboy0
2 hours ago
Construct problem
makurorin   1
N 4 hours ago by vincentwant
Construct angle 3 degree.
1 reply
makurorin
Today at 6:20 AM
vincentwant
4 hours ago
Anyone who knows MATHCOUNTS well?
ysn613   19
N 4 hours ago by ysn613
I missed the signup for MATHCOUNTS this year, and I think I could have made it to nats, based on my scores on the tests(I took them after MATHCOUNTS posted them on their website). Anyone have any study tips for next year?

P.S. Does anybody know if you can sign up for MATHCOUNTS individually, or do I need to try to convince 3 other kids from my school to compete?
19 replies
ysn613
Yesterday at 11:33 PM
ysn613
4 hours ago
Bogus Proof Marathon
pifinity   7519
N 5 hours ago by vincentwant
Hi!
I'd like to introduce the Bogus Proof Marathon.

In this marathon, simply post a bogus proof that is middle-school level and the next person will find the error. You don't have to post the real solution :P

Use classic Marathon format:
[hide=P#]a1b2c3[/hide]
[hide=S#]a1b2c3[/hide]


Example posts:

P(x)
-----
S(x)
P(x+1)
-----
Let's go!! Just don't make it too hard!
7519 replies
pifinity
Mar 12, 2018
vincentwant
5 hours ago
2018 State Mathcounts Sprint 30
ObiWanKenoblowin   4
N 6 hours ago by programjames1
Is there a non cord-bash way to solve this? Please let me know, thanks!
4 replies
ObiWanKenoblowin
Today at 4:18 PM
programjames1
6 hours ago
2013 Stats Sprint #28
Rice_Farmer   18
N 6 hours ago by pl246631
Is there a better way than just partitioning casework bash this?
18 replies
Rice_Farmer
Mar 17, 2025
pl246631
6 hours ago
k You see?
Spacepandamath13   14
N Today at 4:54 PM by MaxTheMaster
Why does $1+1=3$?

You see, if I give CaseOh $1$ apple, and you give him $1$ apple, he will throw up $1$ apple that he had previously eaten, leaving their $3$ apples in the pile.
14 replies
Spacepandamath13
Yesterday at 11:51 PM
MaxTheMaster
Today at 4:54 PM
divisors on a circle
Valentin Vornicu   45
N Today at 1:46 AM by Ilikeminecraft
Source: USAMO 2005, problem 1, Zuming Feng
Determine all composite positive integers $n$ for which it is possible to arrange all divisors of $n$ that are greater than 1 in a circle so that no two adjacent divisors are relatively prime.
45 replies
Valentin Vornicu
Apr 21, 2005
Ilikeminecraft
Today at 1:46 AM
divisors on a circle
G H J
Source: USAMO 2005, problem 1, Zuming Feng
The post below has been deleted. Click to close.
This post has been deleted. Click here to see post.
minusonetwelth
225 posts
#34 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
The answer is all prime powers and numbers with at least 4 divisors, none of which is equal to 1. (This is equivalent to saying that it works for positive integers not of the form $n=pq$, where $p$ and $q$ are primes). For prime powers, every arrangement works. So assume $n$ is not the power of a prime.
Claim
Proof of the claim
Now assume that $n$ is has less than four divisors and is not a prime power, i.e. it is of the form $pq$ and thus has divisors $pq,p,q$. This forces $p$ and $q$ besides each other, so this case does not work.
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Pleaseletmewin
1574 posts
#35
Y by
I believe the following solution is much cleaner than a lot of the solutions on the thread, so long as it's not a fakesolve (if anyone could check for me).
Call all $n$ that satisfy the condition expressible. The key claim is the following:
Claim: Suppose $n$ is expressible and let $p$ be a prime such that $\gcd(n,p)=1$. Then, for every integer $k\geq 1$, $np^k$ is also expressible.
Proof. Suppose the divisors of $n$ are $d_1, \dots, d_m$ arranged in that order as well. Then, we will arrange the divisors of $np^k$ as such:
\begin{align*}
\dots , d_2, d_1, pd_1, (\text{all other divisors that are a multiple of } p), pd_2, \dots, pd_m, d_m.
\end{align*}Since $p^2$ where $p$ is a prime is expressible, all nonsquarefree $n$ are expressible. Now, we look at squarefree $n$. Clearly, $pq$ is not expressible but $pqr$ is, as the following arrangement works:
\begin{align*}
p, pq, pqr, q, qr, r, pr.
\end{align*}Hence, all squarefree $n$ that have more than $3$ distinct prime divisors are expressible. Therefore, all composite $n$ are expressible except for when $n=pq$ where $p,q$ are distinct primes.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Pleaseletmewin, Aug 26, 2022, 5:11 PM
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NTistrulove
183 posts
#36 • 1 Y
Y by kamatadu
The answer is $n\in \mathbb{Z}^+-\left\{\{p_ip_j\}\cup \{p_i\}\right\}$, where $p_i$ and $p_j$ are primes

Let the arrangement with no two adjacent divisors being relatively prime be good. For $n=p_ip_j$, the divisors are $p_i,p_j$ and $p_ip_j$. Since $\gcd(p_i,p_j)=1$ and $p_i,p_j$ will be adjacent in every possible arrangement, so no good arrangement is possible.

Claim: A good arrangement is possible for $n=p^k$ and $n=p_1p_2\cdots p_k$, where $p,p_1,p_2,\cdots,p_k$ are primes and $k>2$

Proof: For $n=p^k$, the divisors of $n$ are $\{p,p^2,\cdots, p^k\}$. Since $\gcd(p^m,p^n)>0$ for $m,n>0$, then every arrangement is a good arrangement.

For $n=p_1p_2\cdots p_k$, we will use induction. We have that, for $n=p_1p_2p_3$, we get
[asy]
    import graph;
size(5cm);
draw(circle((0,0),5),red+linewidth(1pt));
dot((5,0),blue);
dot((0,5),blue);
dot((-5,0),blue);
dot((3.53553390593,3.53553390593),blue);
dot((-3.53553390593,3.53553390593),blue);
dot((-3.53553390593,-3.53553390593),blue);
dot((3.53553390593,-3.53553390593),blue);
label("$n$", (0,5), N);
label("$p_1$", (-3.53553390593,3.53553390593), NW);
label("$p_1p_3$", (-5,0), W);
label("$p_3$", (-3.53553390593,-3.53553390593), SW);
label("$p_3p_2$", (3.53553390593,-3.53553390593), SE);
label("$p_2p_1$", (5,0), E);
label("$p_2$", (3.53553390593,3.53553390593), NE);
 [/asy]
So a good arrangement is possible for $k=3$. Assume that, it is possible to arrange for $k=k-1$. Thus, the arrangement will look like
[asy]
    import graph;
size(5cm);
draw(circle((0,0),5),red+linewidth(1pt));
dot((5,0),blue);
dot((0,5),blue);
dot((-5,0),blue);
dot((3.53553390593,3.53553390593),blue);
dot((-3.53553390593,3.53553390593),blue);
dot((-3.53553390593,-3.53553390593),blue);
dot((3.53553390593,-3.53553390593),blue);
label("$n$", (0,5), N);
label("$p_ap_b\cdots$", (-3.53553390593,3.53553390593), NW);
label("$\vdots$", (-5,0), W);
label("$\ddots$", (-3.53553390593,-3.53553390593), SW);
label("$\cdots$", (3.53553390593,-3.53553390593), SE);
label("$p_ip_j\cdots$", (5,0), E);
label("$\ddots$", (3.53553390593,3.53553390593), NE);
[/asy]
where $a,b,i,j\leq k-1$. For $k=k$, we have $n=p_1p_2\cdots p_k$. Now, we can group the divisors having $p_k$ in them. Thus we get,
[asy]
    import graph;
size(5cm);
draw(circle((0,0),5),red+linewidth(1pt));
dot((5,0),blue);
dot((0,5),blue);
dot((-5,0),blue);
dot((3.53553390593,3.53553390593),blue);
dot((-3.53553390593,3.53553390593),blue);
dot((-3.53553390593,-3.53553390593),blue);
dot((3.53553390593,-3.53553390593),blue);
label("$n$", (0,5), N);
label("$p_ap_b\cdots$", (-3.53553390593,3.53553390593), NW);
label("$\vdots$", (-5,0), W);
label("$p_ip_j\cdots$", (-3.53553390593,-3.53553390593), SW);
label("$p_ip_k$", (3.53553390593,-3.53553390593), SE);
label("\vdots", (5,0), E);
label("$p_jp_k\cdots$", (3.53553390593,3.53553390593), NE);
[/asy]
Therefore, $n=p_1p_2\cdots p_k$ can have a good arrangement for $k>2$. $\blacksquare$
From above proof of $n=p_1p_2\cdots p_k$, we can infer that if $n$ has a good arrangement, then $np$ also has a good arrangement for $p$ being a prime. Since $n=p_1p_2\cdots p_k$ is possible, then $n=p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_k^{a_k}$ is also possible for $a_i\geq 0$. Thus all composite $n$ are possible, except $n=p_ip_j$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by NTistrulove, Sep 3, 2022, 7:01 AM
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Msn05
39 posts
#37
Y by
My first combinatorics post :-D. Hope I didn't fakesolve
The answer is all $n$ that are not represented as $n=p_1p_2$ for distinct primes $p_1,p_2$.

There are three cases for $n$:

1)$n=p^a$. This is always possible since all divisors of $n$ greater than 1 are divisible by $p$ and thus are not coprime with each other.

2)$n=p_1p_2$ for distinct primes $p_1,p_2$. This is impossible since there are only three divisors of $n$ greater than 1 and $p_1,p_2$ are always adjacent in a circle and are relatively prime.

3)$n=p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_k^{a_k}$ for distinct primes $p_1,p_2, \cdots p_k$. We set the construction of this case like this: Define $b_i$ as a group of divisors of $n$ greater than 1 that are divisible by $p_i$, not divisible by $p_j$ and the last term being divisible by $p_{i+1}$ for $1 \leq j \leq k-1, 1 \leq i \leq k, j<i$ (To avoid confusion we define $k+1 \equiv 1$). Note that in this configuration, the last term of $b_k$ will be divisible by $p_1$. For example terms of $b_1$ will include all divisors that are divisible by $p_1$ except the last term of $b_k$, terms of $b_2$ will not be divisible by $p_1$, terms of $b_3$ will not be divisible by $p_1, p_2$ and so on. Now when these groups are in order in a circle, all the divisors adjacent to each other will not be coprime and we're done.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Msn05, Nov 25, 2022, 6:32 PM
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coolmath_2018
2807 posts
#38
Y by
There are three cases to consider, when $n = p_1^{e_1}$, $n = p_1p_2$ and $n = p_1^{e_1} p_2^{e_2}p_3^{e_3} \cdots p_k^{e_k}$. For the first case $n = p_1^{e_1}$ it is obvious on how to put the factors in the circle. For the second case $n = p_1p_2$ we claim that it is impossible to put them on a circle and this obvious as to why. Now we look at the case when $n = p_1^{e_1} p_2^{e_2}p_3^{e_3} \cdots p_k^{e_k}$. Here is the construction:
Attachments:
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RedFireTruck
4220 posts
#39
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https://i.postimg.cc/MpZtwhmZ/image.png
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Danielzh
480 posts
#40
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We claim that all $n$ will work except for those in the form $n=p_{1}*p_{2}$, where $p_{1}$ and $p_{2}$ are primes.

First we will show that $n=p_{1}*p_{2}$ does not work (trivial)

Construction:

We start with an empty circle. Let $n=p_{1}^{a_{1}}*p_{2}^{a_{2}}*...$. Add $n$ to this circle. Then, pick a prime from the prime factorization of $n$ (WLOG $p_{1}$) and repeatedly add multiples of it to the circle, ensuring that the last added factor contains another factor.

For example: consider $n=2^{2}*3^{2}=36$

Once such configuration would be 36 - 2 - 4 - 18 - 12 - 6 - 3 - 9 - 36

This construction only doesn't work when a "transition" that is already taken: meaning that the transition (which is the product of 2 primes) is $n$, and since we have already proved that, we are done. $\blacksquare{}$
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Danielzh
480 posts
#41
Y by
Another solution cuz why not

We claim that $n$ can be all compositive positive integers except for those in the form $p_{1}*p_{2}$.

We begin by adding $n$ to the circle. We can split the problem up into 3 cases as follows:

$\textbf{Case 1}$

$n=p_{1}^{q_{1}}$, where $p_{1}$ is prime. It is trivial that such a configuration must occur.

$\textbf{Case 2}$

$n=p_{1}*p_{2}$, where $p_{1}$ and $p_{2}$ are both prime. It is also trivial that there are no configurations that satisfy the problem conditions.

$\textbf{Case 3}$

$n=p_{1}^{q_{1}}*p_{2}^{q_{2}}*...*p_{k}^{q_{k}}$, where $p_{i}$ is prime for all $1 \le i \le k$. For simplicity, WLOG $p_{1} < p_{2} < ... < p_{k}$. Define a "transition" as $p_{a}*p_{a+1}$ for $1 \le a \le k-1$. Add all "transitions" in order $p_{1}, p_{2}, ..., p_{k}$ to the circle in a clockwise manner. Then, for the remaining factors, insert them immediately after the second occurrence of the least prime factor, reading from $n$, EXCEPT for $p_{1}$, where you can insert it after $n$.

This completes the proof. $\blacksquare{}$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by Danielzh, May 9, 2023, 10:46 PM
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pinkpig
3761 posts
#42
Y by
sol
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by pinkpig, Nov 22, 2023, 11:41 PM
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CoolJupiter
925 posts
#43
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Claim: We claim that only composite $n$ that are not of the form $n = pq$ where $p, q$ are distinct primes work.

To quickly show $n = pq$ is not feasible, observe that $p$ and $q$ must be adjacent in the circle, which is absurd. To finish our claim, we aim to demonstrate a construction for every other possible prime factorization, which we will do in cases.

Case 1: $n = p^a$ for some prime $p$ and some integer $a \ge 2$.

Every divisor besides $1$ of $n$ is divisible by $p$, so any arrangement works.

Case 2: $n = p^a q^b$ work for distinct primes $p, q$ and $a, b$ are positive integers with $(a, b) \ne (1, 1)$.

We demonstrate a construction. Observe that for numbers of the form $n = p^a q^b$, we can construct the cycle (arrangement of the divisors in the circle)
$$p \to p^2 \to p^3 \dots \to p^a \to$$$$p^2q \to p^3q \to \dots \to p^aq \to$$$$pq^2 \to p^2q^2 \to p^3q^2 \dots \to p^aq^2 \to$$$$pq^3 \to p^2q^3 \to p^3q^3 \dots \to p^aq^3 \to$$$$\dots$$$$pq^b \to p^2q^b \to p^3q^b \dots \to p^aq^b \to$$$$q \to q^2 \to q^3 \dots \to q^b \to pq$$
Case 3: $n$ has at least $3$ prime factors.

Let $n = p_1^{e_1} p_2^{e_2} \dots p_k^{e_k}$ be the prime factorization of $n$, where $p_i$ are distinct prime factors of $n$, and $p_1 < p_2 \dots < p_k$. Observe that we can classify any divisor of $d~|~n$ with a $k$-sized binary tuple, where a $1$ in the $i$-th position means $p_i~|~d$, and a $0$ denotes otherwise. For example, if a divisor generated the tuple $(0, 1, 1, 0, 1)$, it has $p_2, p_3, p_5$ as factors.

With this new definition in mind, observe that it suffices to construct a cycle of all binary tuples of size $k$ except the all-$0$ tuple, such that any adjacent tuples have a $1$ in the same position (This is sufficient as we can group terms with the same generated tuple together.) We proceed with induction for $k \ge 3$, here is a construction for $k = 3$:
$$(1, 0, 0) \to (1, 1, 0) \to (0, 1, 0) \to (0, 1, 1) \to (0, 0, 1) \to (1, 0, 1) \to (1, 1, 1)$$Now assume that for $k = t$, there exists some cycle $X_1 \to X_2 \dots \to X_{2^t - 1}$ that works. To finish the induction, we construct a valid cycle for $k = t + 1$. Without loss of generality, assume that $X_{2^t - 1}$ is the all-$1$ tuple of size $t$. Suppose $A_i$ and $B_i$ are the tuple $X_i$ with an extra $0$ and $1$ appended to the rightmost end respectively for integers $1 \le i \le 2^t - 1$. Then
$$A_1 \to A_2 \dots \to A_{2^t - 1} \to B_1 \to (0, 0, \dots, 1) \to B_2 \dots \to B_{2^t - 1}$$is a valid sequence, where the tuple between $B_1$ and $B_2$ contains $t$ zeroes. Therefore, the induction is complete, and all positive integers $n$ with at least $3$ prime factors work.

Collectively, all of our steps show that only composite positive integers $n$ that satisfy the condition cannot be expressed as the product of two distinct primes. Our proof is complete. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 4 times. Last edited by CoolJupiter, Dec 5, 2023, 8:34 PM
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gladIasked
623 posts
#44
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The answer is all integers not of the form $pq$, where $p$ and $q$ are prime numbers. We will show that all other integers work. It's easy to see that numbers of the form $p^k$, $k\ge 1$ work because $p$ divides each one of the divisors of $p^k$.

Next, consider the case $n=p^{k_1}\cdot q^{k_2}$ where $k_1$, $k_2$ are not both equal to $1$. Also, WLOG $k_1\ge k_2$. Place $p$ and $q$ in the circle first. We can then find two numbers that are able to "fill" the gap between $p$ and $q$, say $pq$ and $p^2q$. It's easy to see then that we can place the remaining divisors of $p^{k_1}\cdot q^{k_2}$ to make a good circle, as shown in the following construction:
https://i.ibb.co/py2JVsc/IMG-0217.jpg

Finally, consider the case $p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2}\cdots p_m^{k_m}$. Like before, place $p_1$, $p_2$, $\ldots$, $p_m$ in the circle first. Then, use $p_1p_2$, $p_2p_3$, $\ldots$, $p_{m-1}p_m$ to "fill" the gaps between adjacent primes. It's to easy to see then that we can place the remaining divisors of $n$ to make a good circle, shown in the construction below.
https://i.ibb.co/MCyySc3/IMG-0218.jpg
It's trivial to see that all $n=pq$ fail, so we're done. $\blacksquare$
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kamatadu
466 posts
#45 • 1 Y
Y by GeoKing
All positive integers work except $\left\{1,pq\right\}$ where $p$ and $q$ are two distinct primes.

Divide into cases where the prime factorization has $\ge 3$ primes in it, $2$ or $1$.

$p^k$ clearly works for $k\ge 1$ and $pq$ clearly doesn't work for distinct $p$, $q$.

For the base case for $k=3$, we have the image below.
https://i.imgur.com/IWR9PAq.png

Now for an increase in the value of $k$ to $k+1$, note that the divisors that get introduced are $p_{k+1} \times \left\{\text{set of divisors of } p_1\cdot p_2 \cdots p_k\right\}$. For this we can select a divisor from the configuration for $k$ from induction and its neighboring divisor and then insert the new divisors as shown below.
https://i.imgur.com/nUhzWDR.png

For increasing the power of a prime (WLOG $p_1$) in the factorization from $e$ to $e+1$, we can see that the new divisors that get introduced are those who have $\nu_{p_1}(\text{divisor}) = e+1$. Now note in the configuration of the inductive hypothesis, that the divisor adjacent to $p_1$ must also have $p_1$ in it. Thus we can insert all the new divisors in between the two selected divisors as shown below.
https://i.imgur.com/yLGWlQQ.png

And we are done. :yoda:
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surpidism.
10 posts
#46
Y by
The answer is all composite numbers not of the form $pq$, where p, q are primes.
It is easy to see by hand that $n = pq$ doesn't work.
Also, $n = p^a$ , where $a \geq 2$ works. Arrange the divisors as {$p$, $p^2$, ... , $p^a$, $p$}, which works.

Now we show that $$ n = p_1^{a_1} \cdot p_2^{a_2} ... \cdot p_m^{a_m} $$where, $m \geq 2$, $a_i \geq 1$, works . We do so using induction.

Base case: $m = 2$
Consider the arrangement, {$p_1$, $p_1^2$, ... ,$p_1^{a_1}$, $p_1 p_2$, $p_2$, $p_2^2$, ..., $p_2^{a_2}$, $p_1 p_2^2$, ... , $p_1^{a_1} p_2^{a_2}$, $p$}, which clearly works

Inductive hypothesis: Assume for $m = k$, the required arrangment is possible.

Inductive step: For $m = k+1$
By inductive hypothesis, we have an arrangement for $ n = p_1^{a_1} \cdot p_2^{a_2} ... \cdot p_k^{a_k} $. We make the construction for $m = k+1$ by placing the divisors containing $p_{k+1}$ in the arrangement of $m = k$. We place $p_{k+1} \cdot p_1$ next to $p_1$ then all the divisors that contain $p_{k+1}$ and finally $ p_1^{a_1} \cdot p_2^{a_2} ... \cdot p_k^{a_k} \cdot  p_{k+1}^{a_{k+1}}$.

This works and we are done. $\square$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by surpidism., May 28, 2024, 4:20 AM
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blueprimes
313 posts
#47
Y by
The answer is all positive integers $n$ that cannot be expressed as $pq$ where $p$, $q$ are distinct primes. For sufficiency note that $p$ and $q$ must be adjacent in the cycle which are relatively prime. Now we will provide a construction for all other possibilities.

$\textbf{Case 1:}$ $n$ is a prime power.
All divisors in the cycle are divisible by some prime, so this is valid.

$\textbf{Case 2:}$ $n = p^a q^b$ where $p$, $q$ are primes and $a, b \ge 1$, $\max(a, b) \ge 2$.
Consider the construction
$$pq \to p \to p^2 \to \dots \to p^a \to (\text{sequence of divisors divisible by } pq \text{ except } pq) \to q \to q^2 \to \dots \to q^b$$which is a valid cycle.

$\textbf{Case 3:}$ $n$ has at least $3$ prime divisors.
First we show for squarefree $n = p_1 p_2 \dots p_k$ where $p_i$ are primes and $k \ge 3$. We proceed with induction, the base case $k = 3$ achieved by the following cycle:
$$p_1 \to p_1p_2 \to p_2 \to p_2p_3 \to p_3 \to p_1p_3 \to p_1p_2p_3$$Now assume a valid cycle exists for $k = t$. To prove for $k = t + 1$, we will insert the new divisors after $p_1p_2 \dots p_t$ in the $k = t$ cycle. We have the valid cycle
$$\underbrace{a \to (\text{some valid sequence}) \to p_1 p_2 \dots p_t \to p_1 p_2 \dots p_{t + 1}}_{\text{cycle for } k = t} \to (\text{any sequence of divisors divisible by } p_{t + 1})$$where the last sequence ends in $ap_{t + 1}$. Now clearly if a cycle exists for $n = p_1 p_2 \dots p_k$ we can extend it to all $n = p_1^{e_1} p_2^{e_2} \dots p_k^{e_k}$ for $e_i \ge 1$ as we can simply bunch divisors with the same set of prime factors.

We have exhausted all other cases, and our proof is complete.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by blueprimes, Aug 2, 2024, 3:28 PM
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Ilikeminecraft
310 posts
#48
Y by
The answer is all $n\neq pq,$ where $p, q$ are primes.
If it is of this form, it obviously doesn't work. We now split it into 3 cases.
If $n$ has 1 prime dividing it: Simply take $1, p, \dots, p^k$ which finishes
If $n$ has 2 primes: take $pq, p, p^2, \dots, p^a, \text{all multiples of }pq, q, q^2, \dots, q^b$ which finishes
If $n$ has 3+ primes: First, note that $pqr$ can be done by $p, pq, q, qr, r, pr, pqr.$ Then, to multiply by any prime(not necessarily relatively prime), for each term, append it by the prime multiplied by the term. e.g., $pqr\cdot s$ would become $p, ps\mid, pq, pqs\mid, \dots$
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