Y by KevinYang2.71, aidan0626, MathRook7817, Sedro
Let
be the set of integers, and let
be a function. Prove that there are infinitely many integers
such that the function
defined by
is not bijective.
Note: A function
is bijective if for every integer
, there exists exactly one integer
such that
.





Note: A function




This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by imagien_bad, Mar 20, 2025, 12:09 PM