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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
Spring is in full swing and summer is right around the corner, what are your plans? At AoPS Online our schedule has new classes starting now through July, so be sure to keep your skills sharp and be prepared for the Fall school year! Check out the schedule of upcoming classes below.

WOOT early bird pricing is in effect, don’t miss out! If you took MathWOOT Level 2 last year, no worries, it is all new problems this year! Our Worldwide Online Olympiad Training program is for high school level competitors. AoPS designed these courses to help our top students get the deep focus they need to succeed in their specific competition goals. Check out the details at this link for all our WOOT programs in math, computer science, chemistry, and physics.

Looking for summer camps in math and language arts? Be sure to check out the video-based summer camps offered at the Virtual Campus that are 2- to 4-weeks in duration. There are middle and high school competition math camps as well as Math Beasts camps that review key topics coupled with fun explorations covering areas such as graph theory (Math Beasts Camp 6), cryptography (Math Beasts Camp 7-8), and topology (Math Beasts Camp 8-9)!

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following events:
[list][*]April 3rd (Webinar), 4pm PT/7:00pm ET, Learning with AoPS: Perspectives from a Parent, Math Camp Instructor, and University Professor
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April 9th (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Learn about Video-based Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus
[*]April 10th (Math Jam), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, 2025 MathILy and MathILy-Er Math Jam: Multibackwards Numbers
[*]April 22nd (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Competitive Programming at AoPS (USACO).[/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
Posting Guidelines
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What belongs on this forum?
How do I write a thorough solution?
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How do I study for mathcounts?
Mathcounts FAQ and resources
Mathcounts and how to learn

As always, if you have any questions, you can PM me or any of the other Middle School Moderators. Once again, if you see spam, it would help a lot if you filed a report instead of responding :)

Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
Functional equations
hanzo.ei   18
N 2 minutes ago by jasperE3
Source: Greekldiot
Find all $f: \mathbb R_+ \rightarrow \mathbb R_+$ such that $f(xf(y)+f(x))=yf(x+yf(x)) \: \forall \: x,y \in \mathbb R_+$
18 replies
hanzo.ei
Mar 29, 2025
jasperE3
2 minutes ago
Functional Equation
AnhQuang_67   3
N 2 minutes ago by GreekIdiot
Find all functions $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ satisfying $$2\cdot f\Big(\dfrac{-xy}{2}+f(x+y)\Big)=xf(y)+y(x), \forall x, y \in \mathbb{R} $$











3 replies
AnhQuang_67
3 hours ago
GreekIdiot
2 minutes ago
n=y^2+108
Havu   7
N 10 minutes ago by GreekIdiot
Given the positive integer $n = y^2 + 108$ where $y \in \mathbb{N}$.
Prove that $n$ cannot be a perfect cube of a positive integer.
7 replies
Havu
Yesterday at 4:30 PM
GreekIdiot
10 minutes ago
Geometry :3c
popop614   4
N 17 minutes ago by goaoat
Source: MINE :<
Quadrilateral $ABCD$ has an incenter $I$ Suppose $AB > BC$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $AC$. Suppose that $MI \perp BI$. $DI$ meets $(BDM)$ again at point $T$. Let points $P$ and $Q$ be such that $T$ is the midpoint of $MP$ and $I$ is the midpoint of $MQ$. Point $S$ lies on the plane such that $AMSQ$ is a parallelogram, and suppose the angle bisectors of $MCQ$ and $MSQ$ concur on $IM$.

The angle bisectors of $\angle PAQ$ and $\angle PCQ$ meet $PQ$ at $X$ and $Y$. Prove that $PX = QY$.
4 replies
+1 w
popop614
Yesterday at 12:19 AM
goaoat
17 minutes ago
amc10 chances?
aoh11   8
N 40 minutes ago by jb2015007
if i got a 55.5 on amc10, what are my chances of making aime???
8 replies
aoh11
Today at 4:03 AM
jb2015007
40 minutes ago
2⁠0⁠⁠2⁠4
Technodoggo   80
N an hour ago by SpeedCuber7
Happy New Year!
To celebrate the start of 2024, I've decided to put up a few facts about the year. I don't have many, so y'all should also

1

2

(1 and 2 are the same :sob: just distribute)

Post more cool facts here! Keep a running chain with quote boxes for facts. (I don't know if this technically qualifies as a marathon, but I hope this is allowed lol)
80 replies
Technodoggo
Jan 1, 2024
SpeedCuber7
an hour ago
real math problems
Soupboy0   42
N an hour ago by AbhayAttarde01
Ill be posting questions once in a while. Here's the first question:

What fraction of numbers from $1$ to $1000$ have the digit $7$ and are divisible by $3$?
42 replies
Soupboy0
Mar 25, 2025
AbhayAttarde01
an hour ago
rizz-sigma-fanumtax-skibiditoilet-yaas integer
DhruvJha   8
N 3 hours ago by MathRook7817
Kai Cenat, IShowSpeed, MrBeast, and Kendrick Lamar created a certain type of integer called a rizz-sigma-fanumtax-skibiditoilet-yaas integer. Define a rizz-sigma-fanumtax-skibiditoilet-yaas integer to be an integer between 1 and 1000 that does not have the digits 2 and 7. What is the 22nd rizz-sigma-fanumtax-skibiditoilet-yaas integer added to all the factors of 1434?
8 replies
DhruvJha
Today at 12:33 PM
MathRook7817
3 hours ago
2025 MATHCOUNTS State Hub
SirAppel   256
N 3 hours ago by MathRook7817
Previous Years' "Hubs": (2022) (2023) (2024)Please Read

Now that it's April and we're allowed to discuss, and no one else has made this yet ...
[list=disc]
[*] CA: 43 (45 44 43 43 43 42 42 41 41 41)
[*] NJ: 43 (45 44 44 43 39 42 40 40 39 38) *
[*] NY: 42 (43 42 42 42 41 40)
[*] TX: 42 (43 43 43 42 42 40 40 38 38 38)
[*] MA: 41 (45 43 42 41)
[*] WA: 41 (41 45 42 41 41 41 41 41 41 40) *
[*] FL: 39 (42 41 40 39 38 37 37)
[*] IN: 39 (41 40 40 39 36 35 35 35 34 34)
[*] NC: 39 (42 42 41 39)
[*] IL: 38 (41 40 39 38 38 38)
[*] OR: 38 (44 41? 38 38)
[*] PA: 38 (41 40 40 38 38 37 36 36 34 34) *
[*] MD: 37 (43 39 39 37 37 37)
[*] CT: 36 (44 39? 38 36 34 34 34 34)
[*] MI: 36 (39 41 41 36 37 37 36 36 36 36) *
[*] MN: 36 (40 36 36 36 35 35 35 34)
[*] CO: 35 (41 37 37 35 35 35 ?? 31 31 30) *
[*] GA: 35 (38 37 36 35 34 34 34 34 34 33)
[*] OH: 35 (41 37 36 35)
[*] AR: 34 (46 45 35 34 33 31 31 31 29 29)
[*] WI: 34 (40 37 37 34 35 30 28 29 29 29) *
[*] NH: 31 (42 35 33 31 30)
[*] DE: 30 (34 33 32 30 30 29 28 27 26? 24)
[*] SC: 30 (33 33 31 30)
[*] IA: 29 (33 30 31 29 29 29 29 29 29 29 29 29) *
[*] NE: 28 (34 30 28 28 27 27 26 26 25 25)
[*] SD: 22 (30 29 24 22 22 22 21 21 20 20)
[/list]
Cutoffs Unknown

* means that CDR is official in that state.

Notes

For those asking about the removal of the tiers, I'd like to quote Jason himself:
[quote=peace09]
learn from my mistakes
[/quote]

Help contribute by sharing your state's cutoffs!
As per last year's guidelines, refrain from problem discussion until their official release on the MATHCOUNTS website.
256 replies
+1 w
SirAppel
Apr 1, 2025
MathRook7817
3 hours ago
max number of candies
orangefronted   4
N 4 hours ago by aops-g5-gethsemanea2
A store sells a strawberry flavoured candy for 1 dollar each. The store offers a promo where every 4 candy wrappers can be exchanged for one candy. If there is no limit to how many times you can exchange candy wrappers for candies, what is the maximum number of candies I can obtain with 100 dollars?
4 replies
orangefronted
Yesterday at 6:43 AM
aops-g5-gethsemanea2
4 hours ago
Is there a way to derive Heron's formula with just pure geometry
nitride   3
N Today at 1:39 PM by clarkculus
So I know you can derive Heron's formula with like a bunch of trig identities, as well as using complex numbers and vectors) someone double check me on this).
But I tried deriving it with just pure geometry and nothing else(not like cbashing it or anything), and I got nowhere.
So I was wondering if it even is possible to derive it without trig, cbash, complex numbers, or anything of the sort.
3 replies
nitride
Today at 1:19 PM
clarkculus
Today at 1:39 PM
SIgma Score
DhruvJha   2
N Today at 1:04 PM by DhruvJha
Who has a higher sigma score, IShowSpeed or Kai Cenat? Kai Cenat's Sigma Score is the amount of factors in the integer 6720 while IShowSpeed's Sigma Score is the sum of the factors of 48.

Whoever answers this first will be deemed the ultimate rizzla twizzla
2 replies
DhruvJha
Today at 1:01 PM
DhruvJha
Today at 1:04 PM
Quadratics problem I came up with
V0305   2
N Today at 4:56 AM by Dixit1
$P(x)$ is a quadratic polynomial such that $P(1) = 2$ and $P(2) = 5$. Find all possible values of $P(7) - P(-4)$.
2 replies
V0305
Nov 3, 2024
Dixit1
Today at 4:56 AM
The daily problem!
Leeoz   59
N Today at 3:47 AM by HacheB2031
Every day, I will try to post a new problem for you all to solve! If you want to post a daily problem, you can! :)

Please hide solutions and answers, hints are fine though! :)

The first problem is:
[quote=March 21st Problem]Alice flips a fair coin until she gets 2 heads in a row, or a tail and then a head. What is the probability that she stopped after 2 heads in a row? Express your answer as a common fraction.[/quote]

Past Problems!
59 replies
Leeoz
Mar 21, 2025
HacheB2031
Today at 3:47 AM
Sharygin CR P20
TheDarkPrince   37
N Mar 29, 2025 by E50
Source: Sharygin 2018
Let the incircle of a nonisosceles triangle $ABC$ touch $AB$, $AC$ and $BC$ at points $D$, $E$ and $F$ respectively. The corresponding excircle touches the side $BC$ at point $N$. Let $T$ be the common point of $AN$ and the incircle, closest to $N$, and $K$ be the common point of $DE$ and $FT$. Prove that $AK||BC$.
37 replies
TheDarkPrince
Apr 4, 2018
E50
Mar 29, 2025
Sharygin CR P20
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: Sharygin 2018
The post below has been deleted. Click to close.
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TheDarkPrince
3042 posts
#1 • 4 Y
Y by mathematicsy, CoolJupiter, Adventure10, Mango247
Let the incircle of a nonisosceles triangle $ABC$ touch $AB$, $AC$ and $BC$ at points $D$, $E$ and $F$ respectively. The corresponding excircle touches the side $BC$ at point $N$. Let $T$ be the common point of $AN$ and the incircle, closest to $N$, and $K$ be the common point of $DE$ and $FT$. Prove that $AK||BC$.
Z K Y
The post below has been deleted. Click to close.
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Vrangr
1600 posts
#2 • 6 Y
Y by anantmudgal09, Drunken_Master, Maths_Guy, Pluto1708, Adventure10, Mango247
$\omega$ be the incircle of $\triangle ABC$.
Let $T' = AT\cap \omega\ (\neq T)$, it's well-known that $T'$ is the point diametrically opposite $D$ w.r.t. $\omega$. Therefore, $\angle ATD$ is $90^{\circ}$.

Now consider the radical axes of $\odot ADT$, $\odot AEFI$ and $\omega$.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Vrangr, Apr 4, 2018, 7:51 PM
Reason: Angle typo
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Fumiko
66 posts
#3 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Let $\ell$ be the line through $A$ parallel to $BC$ it is well known that $\ell$ is the polar of midpoint of $DE$ and also this midpoint lies on $A-$ median then the rest is trivial
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WizardMath
2487 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Sharygin 2013 along with the fact that the antipode of the incircle touch point lies on the Nagel cevian.
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Vrangr
1600 posts
#5 • 5 Y
Y by AlastorMoody, Pluto04, Adventure10, Mango247, busy-beaver
Vrangr wrote:
$\omega$ be the incircle of $\triangle ABC$.
Let $T' = AT\cap \omega\ (\neq T)$, it's well-known that $T'$ is the point diametrically opposite $D$ w.r.t. $\omega$. Therefore, $\angle ATD$ is $90^{\circ}$.

Now consider the radical axes of $\odot ADT$, $\odot AEFI$ and $\omega$.

Expanding upon my previous sketch.

$\measuredangle$ refers to directed angles.

Let $I$ be the incentre and $\omega$ be the incircle of $\triangle ABC$.
[asy]
import geometry; import olympiad;
unitsize(4cm);pair A = dir(135), B = dir(210), C = -1/B;
pair I = incenter(A, B, C);
pair D = foot(I, B, C), E = foot(I, C, A), F = foot(I, A, B);
pair T_ = 2I - D, N = B + C - D, T = intersectionpoints(incircle(A,B,C), A -- N)[1];
pair K = extension(E, F, D, T);
pair L = extension(D, I, A, K);

draw(circumcircle(A,E,F)^^circumcircle(D, T, A), linetype("0 2")); draw(D--L, linetype("2 4"));
draw(A--B--C--cycle); draw(incircle(A,B,C)); draw(A--N); draw(D--K--F); draw(A--K, dashed);
draw(rightanglemark(A, L, D, 1.5)^^rightanglemark(I, D, B, 1.5));
draw(rightanglemark(A, F, I, 1.5)^^rightanglemark(A, E, I, 1.5));
draw(rightanglemark(A, T, D, 1.5));
draw(I--F^^I--E, linetype("2 5"));
dot(A); dot(B); dot(C); dot(D); dot(E); dot(F); dot(T); dot(T_); dot(N); dot(K); dot(I); dot(L);
label("A", A, dir(90));
label("B", B, dir(-90));
label("C", C, dir(-90));
label("D", D, dir(-90));
label("E", E, dir(90));
label("F", F, -dir(30));
label("K", K, dir(90));
label("T$'$", T_, dir(-135));
label("T", T, dir(-7));
label("I", I, dir(-45));
label("N", N, dir(-90));
label("L", L, dir(90));[/asy]
Claim 1
Claim 2
Claim 3
And one more thing
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Vrangr, Apr 5, 2018, 5:53 AM
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TheDarkPrince
3042 posts
#6 • 4 Y
Y by Maths_Guy, MelonGirl, Adventure10, Mango247
Lemma:
Main problem
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sbealing
307 posts
#7 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Let $F'$ be the point diametrically opposite $F$ in the incircle and let $X=FI \cap DE$. $K'$ be the intersection of $DE$ and the line through $A$ parallel to $BC$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$. As above $A,F,T,N$ colinear.

It's well-known $X$ lies on the $A$-median so:
$$-1=(\infty_{BC},M;C,B) \stackrel{A}{=} (K',X;E,F)$$Also:
$$-1=(T,F';E,F) \stackrel{F}{=}(K,X;E,F)$$So $K=K'$ as desired.
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Arkmmq
214 posts
#9 • 3 Y
Y by Mmqark, Adventure10, Mango247
Let AN intersect the incircle in F' and T and let FF' intersect DE at P ..
it is wellknown that FF' is a diameter in the incircle and AP is median in ABC .
we have $(D,E;F',T)=-1$ so $(D,E;P,K)=-1$ and project from A we get thd desired result.
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Synthetic_Potato
114 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I solved this in my sleep :D

My Solution:
We will prove that the line parallel to $BC$ through $A$, $FT$ and $DE$ are concurrent.

Let $I$ be the incenter of $ABC$. It is a well known result that $AN, FI$ meet on the incircle at the antipode of $F$. Let the antipode of $F$ on the incircle be $F'$. Then we can say $A,T,F'$ are collinear. Now, let $FF'$ meet the line parallel to $BC$ at $X$. As $IF \perp BC$, we get $\angle FXA=\angle IXA=90^\circ (\spadesuit)$. Now see that as $FF'$ is a diameter, $\angle FTA =90^\circ$. So, $FTXA$ is cyclic from $(\spadesuit)$. Note that $\angle IDA = \angle IEA = \angle IXA = 90^\circ$ from $(\spadesuit)$. So, $DEAX$ is cyclic and $I$ also lies on this circle. Now, Applying Radical Axis theorem on circles $DETF, AXTF, AXDE$, we get $AX, DE, FT$ are concurrent. Hence $K$ lies on $AX$, so $AK\parallel BC$.

$\blacksquare$.
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neel02
66 posts
#11 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Too easy for Sharygin !
Just note that , if $G$ is diametrically op. to $F$ then $DEGT$ is a harmonic quad. Since $A,G,T,N$ collinear
So projecting by $F$ we have $(D,E;X,K)=-1$ .Where $X$ is the intersection pt. of $DE$ & $A-median$ .
Again projecting by $A$ we have $AK,AM,AB,AC$ are harmonic pencils ! where $M$ is the intersection pt of $A-median$ & $BC$ . Since $M$ is the midpoint of $BC$ so $AK$ is parallel to $BC$ :)
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by neel02, Jun 2, 2018, 11:55 AM
Reason: typo
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math_pi_rate
1218 posts
#12 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Here's the solution that I submitted during the actual exam.
Attachments:
Solution_Q 20.pdf (455kb)
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khanhnx
1618 posts
#13 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Here is my solution for this problem
Solution
Let $G$, $P$ be second intersections of $AN$, $AF$ with the incircle of $\triangle$ $ABC$, respectively; $Q$ $\equiv$ $FG$ $\cap$ $DE$
It's easy to see that: $AN$ $\perp$ $FK$ at $T$
Since: $DFEP$, $DTEG$ are harmonic quadrilaterals, we have: $\dfrac{FD}{FE}$ = $\dfrac{PD}{PE}$, $\dfrac{TD}{TE}$ = $\dfrac{GD}{GE}$
So: $\dfrac{KD}{KE}$ = $\dfrac{FD}{FE}$ . $\dfrac{TD}{TE}$ = $\dfrac{FD}{FE}$ . $\dfrac{TD}{TE}$ = $\dfrac{PD}{PE}$ . $\dfrac{GD}{GE}$ or $K$, $G$, $P$ are collinear
But: $GP$ $\perp$ $AF$ then: $G$ is orthocenter of $\triangle$ $AFK$ or $FG$ $\perp$ $AK$
Combine with: $FG$ $\perp$ $BC$, we have: $AK$ $\parallel$ $BC$
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mathlogician
1051 posts
#14 • 2 Y
Y by starchan, sixoneeight
The hardest part of the problem is dealing with the strange point labels.

Let $\overline{AT}$ meet the incircle again at a point $L$, and suppose that $\overline{DE}$ and $\overline{AM}$ meet at a point $X$. Let $Y$ be the intersection of lines $AK$ and $BC$, possibly at infinity. It is well-known that $\overline{FIXL}$ is collinear, so $-1 = (DE;LT) \stackrel{F}{=} (DE;FK) \stackrel{A}{=} (BC;MY)$, so $\overline{AK} \parallel \overline{BC}$, as desired.
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ppanther
160 posts
#15 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Let $L = \overline{ET} \cap \overline{DF}$. Pascal on $FFTEED$ $\implies$ $\overline{LAK}$ collinear. Since $TD$ is a diameter, $T$ is the orthocenter of $\triangle DKL$. So, $\overline{TD} \perp \overline{AK}$, as desired.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by ppanther, Oct 20, 2020, 11:52 PM
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ike.chen
1162 posts
#16
Y by
Relabel the points such that the incircle touches $BC, CA, AB$ at $D, E, F$ respectively.

Let $l$ be the line through $A$ parallel to $BC$, $D'$ be the antipode of $D$ wrt the incircle, and $N = l \cap DD'$. The desired conclusion is equivalent to showing $l$, $EF$, and $DG$ are concurrent.

The angle condition implies $AG$ passes through $D'$. It's also easy to see $l \perp DD'$ by parallel lines.

Claim: $ANEIF$ and $ANGD$ are cyclic.

Proof. Because $N, D', I, D$ are collinear, $$\angle AND = \angle ANI = 90^{\circ} =  \angle AFI = \angle AEI$$proving the first claim.

Observe $\angle AGD = \angle AND = 90^{\circ}$ which proves our second claim. $\square$

Now, it follows that $AN = l$, $EF$, and $DG$ are concurrent the Radical Center of $(ANEIF)$, $(ANGD)$, and $(DGEF)$. $\blacksquare$


Note: If the centers of the $3$ circles are collinear, then the $3$ lines concur at infinity. Also, I should've used projective... lol.
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HamstPan38825
8857 posts
#17
Y by
Let $K = \overline{AP_\infty} \cap \overline{DE}$ be a point such that $\overline{AK} \parallel \overline{BC}$. EGMO 9.49 from Sharygin 2013 establishes that $\overline{AM}$ is the polar of $K$ with respect to the incircle, where $M$ is the midpoint of $BC$. But now, $$-1 = (FN; MP_\infty) \stackrel A= (F, T; \overline{AM} \cap \overline{FT}, \overline{AP_\infty} \cap \overline{FT}),$$so $\overline{AM} \cap \overline{FT}$ lies on the polar of $\overline{FT} \cap \overline{AP_\infty}$. But $K$ also lies on the polar by La Hire's, and since the polar is a line, such $K$ is unique. From here $\overline{AP_\infty} \cap \overline{FT}=K$ so we are done.
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primesarespecial
364 posts
#18
Y by
Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$.It is well known that $FT$ is the polar of $M$.By La Hire ,$AM$ is the polar of $K$.Now,it is well known that $FI,AM,DE$ concur ,at $Q$.By La Hire,$AK$ is the polar of $Q$.Now $IQ \perp AK, IF \perp BC$,so done.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by primesarespecial, Jan 15, 2022, 1:06 PM
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Mogmog8
1080 posts
#19 • 1 Y
Y by centslordm
Let $F'$ be the antipode of $F,$ let $M$ be the midpoint of $\overline{BC},$ and let $Y=\overline{AM}\cap\overline{DE}.$ It is well-known that $Y\in\overline{FF'}.$ Notice $$-1=(DE;F'T)\stackrel{F}=(DE;YK)\stackrel{A}=(BC;M,\overline{AK}\cap\overline{BC}),$$so $\overline{AK}\cap\overline{BC}$ is the point at infinity along $\overline{BC}.$ $\square$
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jampm
49 posts
#20
Y by
$M$ is the pole of $DT$ wrt. the incircle by symmetry. $A$ is the pole of $EF$, and thus $K$ is the pole of $AM$. Now $P_{\infty}$, the point at infinity of line $BC$ is the pole of $DI$, and since $EF$, $AM$ and $DI$ concur, by the polar transformation, it's poles are colineal, which implies the problem.
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MathLuis
1471 posts
#21
Y by
Let $FI \cap DE=G$ then its known that if u let $M$ the midpoint of $BC$ then $A,G,M$ are colinear, now taking polars w.r.t. $\omega$ we have that this is $\mathcal P_A, \mathcal P_G, \mathcal P_M$ concurrent and that means $DE,FT$ and the line through $A$ parallel to $BC$ concurrent thus we are done :D
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channing421
1353 posts
#22 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
solution
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kamatadu
465 posts
#23 • 1 Y
Y by HoripodoKrishno
Alright, finally back from hospital after 6 straight days T__T Let's get back to work... Also woahhh!! This is so similar to the Sharygin 2023 P22. :no_mouth:

https://i.imgur.com/85yviDu.png

Firstly, let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$, $P=AM\cap DE$ and $Q=AM\cap FT$. Also $\ell$ denote the line through $A$ parallel to $BC$. Now it is well known that $M$ is also the midpoint of $FN$. Also from the Diameter of the Incircle Lemma, we have that $\angle FTN=90^\circ$ which along with the fact that $M$ is the midpoint of $FN$ we have that $MF=MT$ and as $MF$ is tangent to the incircle, we have that $MT$ is tangent to the incircle.

Now $-1=(F,N;M,\infty_{BC})\overset{A}{=}(F,T;Q,FT\cap\ell)$ and $-1=(B,C;M,\infty_{BC})\overset{A}{=}(D,E;P,DE\cap\ell)$. Now firstly note that the polar of $A$ w.r.t. the incircle is the line $DE$ so $DE\cap\ell$ lies on the polar of $A$ w.r.t. the incircle and by La Hire's Theorem, we thus have that $A$ lies on the polar of $DE\cap\ell$ and also as $(D,E;P,DE\cap\ell)=-1$, we also have that $P$ also lies on the polar of $DE\cap\ell$ and thus the line $AP$ becomes that polar of $DE\cap\ell$. Now using a similar logic, we see that the polar of $FT\cap\ell$ is the line $MQ\equiv AP$. Now two points have the same polar means that both the points are identical and we thus have that $K=\ell\cap DE\cap FT$ and we are done.
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IAmTheHazard
5000 posts
#24 • 1 Y
Y by centslordm
Relabel points so that $D$ is the $\overline{BC}$-intouch point, etc. Here are two solutions.

Solution 1: Let $P$ be the $D$-antipode with respect to the incircle and $Q$ the point on $\overline{DP}$ such that $\overline{AQ} \parallel \overline{BC}$. It is well-known that $A,P,T,N$ are collinear, so $AEFIQ$ and $AQTD$ can easily be seen to be cyclic, and by radical center on the incircle, $(AEFIQ)$, and $(AQTD)$, we find that $\overline{EF}$, $\overline{DT}$, and $\overline{AQ}$ concur, hence $K$ lies on $\overline{AQ}$. $\blacksquare$

Solution 2: Define $P$ as before and let $X=\overline{EF} \cap \overline{DP}$. Since $\overline{TP}$ passes through $A$,
$$-1=(F,E;T,P)\stackrel{D}{=}(F,E;K,X)\stackrel{A}{=}(B,C;\overline{AX} \cap \overline{BC},\overline{AK} \cap \overline{BC}).$$It is well-known that $\overline{AX} \cap \overline{BC}$ is just the midpoint of $\overline{BC}$, so $\overline{AK} \cap \overline{BC}=P_{\infty \overline{BC}}$ which implies the desired result. $\blacksquare$
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eibc
598 posts
#25
Y by
Let $I$ be the incenter of $\triangle ABC$, $X = \overline{AM} \cap \overline{DE},$ and $Y$ be the second intersection of $\overline{AN}$ and the incircle. Then from EGMO chapter 4, we know that $A$, $I$, $X$, and $Y$ are collinear.

Claim: $AM$ is the polar of $K$ wrt the incircle

Proof: Since $DE$ is the polar of $A$, by La Hire's we find that $A$ lies on the polar of $K$. However, by taking a homothety at $A$, we see that $Y$ is the $F$-antipode wrt the incircle, so $\overline{YN} \perp \overline{FT}$. By taking a homothety at $F$ we see that $\overline{IM} \perp \overline{FT}$. But since $\overline{MF}$ is tangent to the incircle, this is enough to imply that line $FT$ is the polar of $M$; therefore, by La Hire's we see that $M$ lies on the polar of $K$, too, which proves the claim.

Now, since $X$ lies on $\overline{AM}$, we have
$$-1 = (D, E; X, K) \overset{A}{=} (B, C; M, \overline{AK} \cap \overline{BC}).$$But since $(B, C; M, P_{\infty}) = -1$, where $P_{\infty}$ is the point at infinity along line $BC$, this implies that $\overline{AK} \parallel \overline{BC}$, as needed.
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kn07
504 posts
#26
Y by
Relabel the points so $D=BC \cap \omega$, $E=AC \cap \omega$, and $F=AB \cap \omega$.

Let the midpoint of $BC$ be $M$ and $AM \cap \omega=\{P,Q\}$. Projecting the reciprocal pairs $\{B,C\}, \{D,N\}, \{M,M\}$ onto $\omega$ yields $DT, EF, PP,$ and $QQ$ are concurrent. Let $PQ \cap EF = X$ so that $K$ and $X$ are conjugated. Then, $\mathcal{H} (F,E;X,K) = \mathcal{H}(B,C;M,AK \cap BC)$. The harmonic conjugate of $M$ is the point at infinity, thus $AK \parallel BC$.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by kn07, Aug 9, 2023, 9:20 PM
Reason: points are in wrong order
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YaoAOPS
1501 posts
#27
Y by
Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$. It is well known that $\overline{AM}$, $\overline{DE}$, and $\overline{IF}$ concur at some point $P$.
Let $S$ be the other intersection point of $AN$ and the incircle. It is well known that $SF$ is a diameter of the incircle.
As such, it follows that \[ (DE;ST) \overset{F}= (DE;PK) \overset{A}= (B,C;M,\overline{AK} \cap \overline{BC}) = -1 \]which implies that $\overline{AK} \cap \overline{BC}$ intersect at $\infty$, or that $\overline{AK} \parallel \overline{BC}$.
Attachments:
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Shreyasharma
667 posts
#28
Y by
Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$. Let $\Gamma$ denote the incircle. Define $P = AN \cap \Gamma$. It is well known that $PX$ is a diameter of $\Gamma$. Let $Q = PX \cap YZ$.

Now we claim that $(ZY, QK) = -1$. Indeed we find,
\begin{align*}
-1 = (ZY, PT) \overset{X}{=} (ZY, QK)
\end{align*}Now projecting through $A$ we have,
\begin{align*}
-1 = (ZY,QK) \overset{A}{=} (BC,M\infty)
\end{align*}so we indeed have $AK \parallel BC$.
Attachments:
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shendrew7
793 posts
#29
Y by
We take note of the following:
  • $XK \perp AN$ through Diameter of the Incircle lemma.
  • $K = XT \cap YZ$ is the pole of $AM$, so $IK \perp AM$.
  • $XI$, $AM$, and $YZ$ concur by an incircle concurrence lemma.

Combining this with $AT \perp YZ$, we get that the concurrence is the orthocenter of $\triangle AIK$. Thus $XI \perp AK$, which finishes. $\blacksquare$
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cj13609517288
1879 posts
#30
Y by
Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$ (and therefore the midpoint of $XN$, by a property I am too lazy to find the name of), let $P$ be the other intersection of $AT$ with $\omega$, let $Q=AM\cap YZ$, and let $\omega$ be the incircle.

Claim. $AN\perp XT$.
Proof. Note that $P$ is the "top point" of $\omega$ and $X$ is the "bottom point" of $\omega$ (assuming that $BC$ is the "bottom tangent" of $\omega$), $PX$ is a diameter of $\omega$, so $\angle PTX=90^{\circ}$.

Claim. Line $XT$ is the polar of $M$ with respect to $\omega$.
Proof. Since $MX$ is tangent to $\omega$, we just need to prove that $MX=MT$, which is true because triangle $XTN$ is a right triangle.

Claim. Line $AM$ is the polar of $K$ with respect to $\omega$.
Proof. $YZ$ is the polar of $A$ wrt $\omega$, and $XT$ is the polar of $M$ wrt $\omega$, so we can finish by La Hire's.

Claim. $P,Q,X$ are collinear.
Proof. We employ barycentric coordinates with reference triangle $ABC$. Then $I=(a:b:c)$, $X=(0:a+b-c:a-b+c)$, $Y=(a+b-c:0:-a+b+c)$, and $Z=(a-b+c:-a+b+c:0)$. Thus line $YZ$ is
\[(-a+b+c)x+(-a+b-c)y+(-a-b+c)z=0,\]line $XI$ is
\[(a-b-c)(c-b)x+a(a-b+c)y+a(-a-b+c)z=0,\]and line $AM$ is
\[(0)x+(1)y+(-1)z=0.\]Now we plug everything into the concurrence lemma:
\begin{align*}
&\begin{vmatrix}
0 & 1 & -1 \\
-a+b+c & -a+b-c & -a-b+c \\
(a-b-c)(c-b) & a(a-b+c) & a(-a-b+c)
\end{vmatrix} \\
=&
\begin{vmatrix}
0 & 1 & 0 \\
-a+b+c & -a+b-c & -2a \\
(a-b-c)(c-b) & a(a-b+c) & 2a(c-b)
\end{vmatrix} \\
=&
-\begin{vmatrix}
-a+b+c & -2a \\
(a-b-c)(c-b) & 2a(c-b)
\end{vmatrix} \\
=&
-2a(c-b)\begin{vmatrix}
-a+b+c & -1 \\
a-b-c & 1
\end{vmatrix} \\
=& \; 0,
\end{align*}as desired.

Therefore,
\[
-1=(Z,Y;P,T)\stackrel{X}{=}(Z,Y;Q,K).
\]However, since
\[
-1=(B,C;M,\infty_{BC})\stackrel{A}{=}(Z,Y;Q,(A\infty_{BC}\cap ZY)),
\]we indeed have $K=A\infty_{BC}\cap ZY$, as desired. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by cj13609517288, Feb 5, 2024, 2:10 PM
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Markas
105 posts
#31 • 1 Y
Y by GeoKing
Let M be the midpoint of BC. Let l be the line which is parallel to BC trough A. Let $AM \cap DE = X$ and $AM \cap FT = Y$. Now it follows that $(B,C;M,P\infty_{BC}) = -1$ and also $(B,C;M,P\infty_{BC})\stackrel{A}{=}(D,E;X,DE \cap l) = -1$. Also its well known that BF = NC and since BM = MC, it follows that FM = MN $\Rightarrow$ $(F,N;M,P\infty_{BC}) = -1$. Now projecting trough A we get $(F,N;M,P\infty_{BC})\stackrel{A}{=}(F,T;Y,FT \cap l) = -1$. Now from the diameter of the incircle lemma, we have that $\angle NTF = 90^{\circ}$ and since FM = MN, then MT = MF and as MF is tangent to the incircle, we get that MT is also tangent to the incircle. Now its obvious that the polar of A is DE $\Rightarrow$ $DE \cap l \in DE$ $\Rightarrow$ $DE \cap l$ lies on the polar of A. Now by La Hire, A should lie on the polar of $DE \cap l$. Now from $(D,E;X,DE \cap l) = -1$ and since D and E lie on a circle, we have that X lies on the polar of $DE \cap l$. Since A should lie on the polar of $DE \cap l$ and X lies on the polar of $DE \cap l$, then AX is the polar of $DE \cap l$. Similarly the polar of $FT \cap l$ is the line $MY \equiv AX$ $\Rightarrow$ the polar of $DE \cap l$ and the polar of $FT \cap l$ is AX $\Rightarrow$ since the two points have the same polar, the points are identical $\Rightarrow$ we have that $K = DE \cap FT \cap l$ $\Rightarrow$ $K\in l$ $\Rightarrow$ $AK \parallel BC$ and we are ready.
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Eka01
204 posts
#32 • 1 Y
Y by Sammy27
Realise that $T$ is the same as $G$ in GOTEEM 2020 P1 and then the same solution follows.
This post has been edited 5 times. Last edited by Eka01, Aug 14, 2024, 10:07 AM
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bebebe
985 posts
#33
Y by
Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$ and $XN,$ so $MT$ is tangent to incircle. Let $R=(AYIZ) \cap AM$, so $$90=\angle IRA=\angle IRM=\angle IXM,$$so $IRMX$ is cyclic. Thus $IRTMX$ is also cyclic, so $R=inverse(K)$ (follows by taking inverses of lines $XT$ and $YZ$ wrt incircle). All of this means $AM=polar(K).$


\textit{Lemma:} $XI, YZ, AM$ concur.

\textit{Proof:} Follows from Simson lines and homothethy.


Let $S=XI \cap YZ \cap AM.$ Since (where $P_{\infty}$ is point at infinity wrt $BC$) $XI=polar(P_{\infty})$ and $YZ=polar(A)$ and $AM=polar(K),$ we know $polar(S) = \overline{AKP_{\infty}}$ so $A, K, P_{\infty}$ are collinear, and we are done.
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onyqz
195 posts
#34
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Basically the same as the above ones. Nonetheless a fun projective geometry exercise.
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joshualiu315
2513 posts
#35 • 1 Y
Y by dolphinday
Suppose that $X'$ is the antipode of $X$, which lies on $\overline{AN}$, and let $P = \overline{IX} \cap \overline{YZ}$. It is well-known that $P$ lies on the $A$-median, which we will call $\overline{AM}$. Finally, let $Q = \overline{AK} \cap \overline{BC}$.

Since $T'YTZ$ is harmonic, we have

\[-1 = (Z,Y;T',T) \overset{X}{=} (Z,Y;P,K) \overset{A}{=} (B,C;M,Q).\]
However, we also know that $(B,C,M,\infty) = -1$, so $Q$ is the point at infinity. This implies that $\overline{AK} \parallel \overline{BC}$. $\square$
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N3bula
256 posts
#36
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Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$, I will prove that if $R=XY\cap XI$, $A-R-M$, clearly $R$ lies on the polar of $A$, as well as this $R$ lies on the polar of the intersection of $BC$ and
the line tangent to the incircle and passing through the antipode. Thus the polar of $R$ is the line through $A$ tangent to $BC$. Thus if we let the second
intersection of $XI$ with the incircle be $P$ and the intersection of $XI$ with the polar of $R$ be $Q$, we get that $-1=(XP;RQ)\overset{\mathrm{A}}{=}(XN;M'\infty)$,
Thus $M'$ is the midpoint of $XN$ so $M'=M$ and $A-R-M$ now let $AK\cap BC$ be $J$. Note that $-1=(PT;YZ)\overset{\mathrm{X}}{=}(YZ;RK)\overset{\mathrm{A}}{=}(BC;MJ)$
Thus as $M$ is the midpoint of $BC$ $J$ a point at infinity so $AK\parallel BC$.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by N3bula, Dec 7, 2024, 5:49 AM
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Ritwin
155 posts
#37 • 1 Y
Y by OronSH
did someone say projective nuke?

Rename the intouch triangle to $XYZ$ as per the OTIS problem. Let $D$ be the antipode of $X$ on the incircle, and recall that $\overline{ADTN}$ are collinear (proof by a homothety sending the incircle to the $A$-excircle).

Now let $PQR$ be the $D$-cevian triangle in $XYZ$.
  • Brocard on $XYDZ$ implies $QR \perp \overline{XPD} \perp BC$.
  • Pascal on $XYYDZZ$ implies $\overline{QAR}$ collinear.
So, the goal is now to show that $K \in \overline{QAR}$. Pascal on $XTDZYY$ says $K$, $A$, $Q$ are collinear, done. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Ritwin, Dec 22, 2024, 7:59 PM
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Ilikeminecraft
330 posts
#38
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Let $R$ be the antipode of $D$ in the incircle. It is well known $A, R, N$ are collinear.
Let $M$ be midpoint of $BC.$ Clearly, $M$ is also midpoint of $DN.$ We have that $\angle DTN = 180 - \angle DTA = 90,$ so $DM = MT = MN,$ so $MT$ is tangent to the incircle.
Let $G$ denote the concurrency point of $RD, EF, AM.$
With respect to incircle: $G$ lies on the polar of $A.$
$A$ is the pole of $EF,$ so $A$ lies on the polar of $K.$ $DT$ is the polar of $M,$ so $M$ lies on the polar of $K.$ Hence, $AM$ is the polar of $K.$
However, both $A, K$ lie on the polar of $G.$ Thus, $AK$ is the polar of $G.$ Thus, $AK\perp IG=RD\perp BC,$ which finishes
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E50
5 posts
#39
Y by
Let $I$ be the incenter of $\triangle ABC$, $AN$ intersects the incircle of $\triangle ABC$ again at $L \ne T$, $DF$ intersects $LE$ at $O$ and $DL$ intersects $EF$ at $M$. Pascal on $DDELTF$ and $EEDLTF$ implies that $O,A,M,K$ collinear. It is well-known that $LF$ passes through $I$. Applying Brocard's Theorem on $(DLEF)$ implies that $IL$ $\bot$ $OM$ and since $IL$ $\bot$ $BC$ we obtain that $OM$ $\parallel$ $BC$, thus $AK$ $\parallel$ $BC$.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by E50, Mar 29, 2025, 3:21 PM
Reason: wrong typing
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