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k a April Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Apr 2, 2025
Spring is in full swing and summer is right around the corner, what are your plans? At AoPS Online our schedule has new classes starting now through July, so be sure to keep your skills sharp and be prepared for the Fall school year! Check out the schedule of upcoming classes below.

WOOT early bird pricing is in effect, don’t miss out! If you took MathWOOT Level 2 last year, no worries, it is all new problems this year! Our Worldwide Online Olympiad Training program is for high school level competitors. AoPS designed these courses to help our top students get the deep focus they need to succeed in their specific competition goals. Check out the details at this link for all our WOOT programs in math, computer science, chemistry, and physics.

Looking for summer camps in math and language arts? Be sure to check out the video-based summer camps offered at the Virtual Campus that are 2- to 4-weeks in duration. There are middle and high school competition math camps as well as Math Beasts camps that review key topics coupled with fun explorations covering areas such as graph theory (Math Beasts Camp 6), cryptography (Math Beasts Camp 7-8), and topology (Math Beasts Camp 8-9)!

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April 9th (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Learn about Video-based Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus
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[*]April 22nd (Webinar), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Competitive Programming at AoPS (USACO).[/list]
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0 replies
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jlacosta
Apr 2, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
Posting Guidelines
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What belongs on this forum?
How do I write a thorough solution?
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Mathcounts and how to learn

As always, if you have any questions, you can PM me or any of the other Middle School Moderators. Once again, if you see spam, it would help a lot if you filed a report instead of responding :)

Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
hard problem
Cobedangiu   16
N 4 minutes ago by InftyByond
problem
16 replies
Cobedangiu
Mar 27, 2025
InftyByond
4 minutes ago
A very nice inequality
KhuongTrang   4
N 4 minutes ago by arqady
Source: own
Problem. Let $a,b,c\in \mathbb{R}:\ a+b+c=3.$ Prove that $$\color{black}{\sqrt{5a^{2}-ab+5b^{2}}+\sqrt{5b^{2}-bc+5c^{2}}+\sqrt{5c^{2}-ca+5a^{2}}\le 2(a^2+b^2+c^2)+ab+bc+ca.}$$When does equality hold?
4 replies
KhuongTrang
3 hours ago
arqady
4 minutes ago
Two Functional Inequalities
Mathdreams   3
N 4 minutes ago by John_Mgr
Source: 2025 Nepal Mock TST Day 2 Problem 2
Determine all functions $f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ such that $$f(x) \le x^3$$and $$f(x + y) \le f(x) + f(y) + 3xy(x + y)$$for any real numbers $x$ and $y$.

(Miroslav Marinov, Bulgaria)
3 replies
Mathdreams
3 hours ago
John_Mgr
4 minutes ago
Inspired by giangtruong13
sqing   2
N 8 minutes ago by imnotgoodatmathsorry
Source: Own
Let $ a,b\in[\frac{1}{2},1] $. Prove that$$ 64\leq (a+b^2+\frac{4}{a^2}+\frac{2}{b})(b+a^2+\frac{4}{b^2}+\frac{2}{a})\leq\frac{6889}{16} $$Let $ a,b\in[\frac{1}{2},2] $. Prove that$$ 8(3+2\sqrt 2)\leq (a+b^2+\frac{4}{a^2}+\frac{2}{b})(b+a^2+\frac{4}{b^2}+\frac{2}{a})\leq\frac{6889}{16} $$
2 replies
sqing
Yesterday at 2:08 AM
imnotgoodatmathsorry
8 minutes ago
EaZ_Shadow
44 minutes ago
DreamineYT
36 minutes ago
FTW tournament!
evt917   337
N 2 hours ago by mhgelgi
[center]Since all FTW tournaments have dramatically failed, I'm trying a different format. Here is how it works:

1. Type \signup{your rating (type 800 for unrated)}

2. You will pick who you want to play with. You can play if they accept your challenge. So basically the players run everything. Just don't intentionally play low-rated people. Also try to play different people so everyone gets a chance to play! ONLY two player games.

3. If you win, you get 2 points. Ties get one point, and losses get zero.

4. I do not know everybody's time preferences. Because so, I will announce in advance which two players will be playing, so they themselves can organize a game themselves. Remember, THE PLAYERS ARE ORGANIZING THE GAMES THEMSELVES!!! The format is up to them, but please make the time control at least 20 seconds. Please announce the results of the game here so i can update the scoreboard. Games can be unrated.

recommended format if you cannot decide



5. The tournament goes on until april 10th! Extremely long, right? Note that you can still signup after the first games has started, but you will have a disadvantage because some people who signed up as soon as the tournament started already has points.

6. Once you are done with your game, you can find a new opponent and play with them if they want. Note that you must play opponents within the tournament. If you play in the tournament, you are automatically signed up. Have fun!


[rule]

Questions and Answers

All signups and ratings

[rule]

LIVE LEADERBOARD:

1st place: 47 points | 17W 3L 3T | Yrock
2nd place: 14 points | 6W 3L 2T | jb2015007
3rd place: 5 points | 2W 8L 1T | sadas123

4th place: 4 points | 1W 2L 0T | IcyFire500
5th place: 0 points | 0W 1L 0T | NS0004
337 replies
evt917
Apr 3, 2025
mhgelgi
2 hours ago
EMC Wrangle Favorites #1
peace09   8
N 3 hours ago by SpeedCuber7
Is it possible to dissect an isosceles right triangle into multiple similar triangles such that none of them are congruent? If so, provide an example. If not, prove it is impossible.
8 replies
peace09
Jul 28, 2022
SpeedCuber7
3 hours ago
Electricity circuit problem
eagle2010   1
N 3 hours ago by RollingPanda4616
In the diagrams below, switches A, B and C work independently of each other. The probability that any given switch is closed is 0.9. Current can only flow through a switch if it is closed. Work out the probability that the current can flow from on end to the other end of the circuit.
Diagrams attached below
1 reply
eagle2010
Today at 4:42 AM
RollingPanda4616
3 hours ago
Math and AI 4 Girls
mkwhe   2
N 4 hours ago by ev2028
Hey everyone!

The 2025 MA4G competition is now open!

Apply Here: https://xmathandai4girls.submittable.com/submit


Visit https://www.mathandai4girls.org/ to get started!

Feel free to PM or email mathandai4girls@yahoo.com if you have any questions!
2 replies
mkwhe
Yesterday at 11:24 PM
ev2028
4 hours ago
9 Have you taken the AMC 10 test before?
aadimathgenius9   105
N Today at 3:47 AM by yaxuan
Have you taken the AMC 10 test before?
105 replies
aadimathgenius9
Jan 5, 2025
yaxuan
Today at 3:47 AM
real math problems
Soupboy0   44
N Today at 2:49 AM by maxamc
Ill be posting questions once in a while. Here's the first question:

What fraction of numbers from $1$ to $1000$ have the digit $7$ and are divisible by $3$?
44 replies
Soupboy0
Mar 25, 2025
maxamc
Today at 2:49 AM
STATE SOLUTIONS AND STUFF DROPPED!!!
Soupboy0   47
N Today at 1:44 AM by giratina3
https://www.mathcounts.org/resources/past-competitions
47 replies
Soupboy0
Friday at 5:44 PM
giratina3
Today at 1:44 AM
The daily problem!
Leeoz   62
N Today at 12:42 AM by huajun78
Every day, I will try to post a new problem for you all to solve! If you want to post a daily problem, you can! :)

Please hide solutions and answers, hints are fine though! :)

The first problem is:
[quote=March 21st Problem]Alice flips a fair coin until she gets 2 heads in a row, or a tail and then a head. What is the probability that she stopped after 2 heads in a row? Express your answer as a common fraction.[/quote]

Past Problems!
62 replies
Leeoz
Mar 21, 2025
huajun78
Today at 12:42 AM
Math Problem I cant figure out how to do without bashing
equalsmc2   0
Today at 12:29 AM
Hi,
I cant figure out how to do these 2 problems without bashing. Do you guys have any ideas for an elegant solution? Thank you!
Prob 1.
An RSM sports field has a square shape. Poles with letters M, A, T, H are located at the corners of the square (see the diagram). During warm up, a student starts at any pole, runs to another pole along a side of the square or across the field along diagonal MT (only in the direction from M to T), then runs to another pole along a side of the square or along diagonal MT, and so on. The student cannot repeat a run along the same side/diagonal of the square in the same direction. For instance, she cannot run from M to A twice, but she can run from M to A and at some point from A to M. How many different ways are there to complete the warm up that includes all nine possible runs (see the diagram)? One possible way is M-A-T-H-M-H-T-A-M-T (picture attached)

Prob 2.
In the expression 5@5@5@5@5 you replace each of the four @ symbols with either +, or, or x, or . You can insert one or more pairs of parentheses to control the order of operations. Find the second least whole number that CANNOT be the value of the resulting expression. For example, each of the numbers 25=5+5+5+5+5 and 605+(5+5)×5+5 can be the value of the resulting expression.

Prob 3. (This isnt bashing I don't understand how to do it though)
Suppose BC = 3AB in rectangle ABCD. Points E and F are on side BC such that BE = EF = FC. Compute the sum of the degree measures of the four angles EAB, EAF, EAC, EAD.

P.S. These are from an RSM olympiad. The answers are
0 replies
equalsmc2
Today at 12:29 AM
0 replies
Ez Number Theory
IndoMathXdZ   40
N Apr 1, 2025 by akliu
Source: IMO SL 2018 N1
Determine all pairs $(n, k)$ of distinct positive integers such that there exists a positive integer $s$ for which the number of divisors of $sn$ and of $sk$ are equal.
40 replies
IndoMathXdZ
Jul 17, 2019
akliu
Apr 1, 2025
Ez Number Theory
G H J
Source: IMO SL 2018 N1
The post below has been deleted. Click to close.
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IndoMathXdZ
691 posts
#1 • 6 Y
Y by megarnie, TFIRSTMGMEDALIST, Stuart111, Adventure10, deplasmanyollari, Batzorig
Determine all pairs $(n, k)$ of distinct positive integers such that there exists a positive integer $s$ for which the number of divisors of $sn$ and of $sk$ are equal.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by djmathman, Dec 29, 2019, 1:43 AM
Reason: edited to reflect actual wording in the shortlist re post #7
Z K Y
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v_Enhance
6871 posts
#2 • 16 Y
Y by rkm0959, rashah76, v4913, HamstPan38825, utlight, Mathematicsislovely, Helixglich, little-fermat, Adventure10, Mango247, two_steps, Stuffybear, Funcshun840, NicoN9, NonoPL, Yiyj1
Quote:
Determine all pairs $(m, n)$ of positive integers for which there exists a positive integer $s$ such that $sm$ and $sn$ have an equal number of divisors.

Assume henceforth that $m \ne n$ or it's immediate (take any $s$). Obviously if $m \mid n$ or $n \mid m$ then no such $s$ exists. We will prove that conversely that for all other $(m,n)$ such $s$ exists.
There are many constructions. It seems cleanest to start by saying:
Claim: If $\alpha > \beta \ge 0$ are integers then for any $M \ge \beta+1$ there exists $\gamma \in {\mathbb Z}_{\ge 0}$ such that \[ \frac{\alpha+\gamma+1}{\beta+\gamma+1} = \frac{M+1}{M}. \]The claim is checked by setting $\gamma = M(\alpha-\beta) - \beta+1$.

Now, suppose for primes we write \begin{align*} 	m &= p_1^{\alpha_1} p_2^{\alpha_2} \dots p_k^{\alpha_k} 		q_1^{\alpha'_1} \dots q_\ell^{\alpha'_\ell} \\ 	n &= p_1^{\beta_1} p_2^{\beta_2} \dots p_k^{\beta_k} 		q_1^{\beta'_1} \dots q_\ell^{\beta'_\ell} \end{align*}where $\alpha_i > \beta_i$ and $\alpha_j' < \beta_j'$; by hypothesis $\min(k,\ell) \ge 1$. We have here omitted any primes $p$ for which $\nu_p(m) = \nu_p(n)$, since these do not affect the proof in any way.

Let $T$ be a large integer exceeding $\max(\alpha_i, \beta_j)$. We can pick $\gamma_i$ for $i=1,\dots,k$ such that \[ 	\prod_i \frac{\gamma_i + \alpha_i + 1}{\gamma_i + \beta_i + 1} 	= \frac{kT+1}{kT} \cdot \frac{kT+2}{kT+1} \cdot \dots 	\cdot \frac{kT+k}{kT+(k-1)} 	= \frac{kT+k}{kT} = \frac{T+1}{T}. \]Similarly we can pick $\gamma_i'$ for $i=1,\dots,\ell$ such that \[ 	\prod_j \frac{\gamma'_j + \beta'_j + 1}{\gamma'_j + \alpha'_j + 1} 	= \frac{\ell T+1}{\ell T} \cdot \frac{\ell T+2}{\ell T+1} \cdot \dots 	\cdot \frac{\ell T+\ell }{\ell T+(\ell -1)} 	= \frac{\ell T+\ell }{\ell T} = \frac{T+1}{T}. \]Then if we let $s = \prod_i p_i^{\gamma_i} \prod_i q_i^{\gamma'_i}$, we have \[ 	\frac{d(sm)}{d(sn)} 	= \prod_i \frac{\gamma_i + \alpha_i + 1}{\gamma_i + \beta_i + 12} 	\prod_j \frac{\gamma'_j + \alpha'_j + 1}{\gamma'_j + \beta'_j + 1} 	= \frac{T+1}{T} \cdot \frac{T}{T+1} = 1 \]as desired.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by v_Enhance, May 2, 2021, 6:52 PM
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MarkBcc168
1594 posts
#3 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Use $ka$ and $kb$ instead of $sn$ and $sk$.

The answer is all pairs of integers such that $a\nmid b$ and $b\nmid a$.

First, if $a\mid b$, then any divisor of $ka$ is also divisor of $kb$ but since $a\neq b$, we easily obtain that $\tau(ka) <\tau(kb)$ for any $k$ so this pair does not work.

It remains to give construction to any other pair. Since it's clear that we can cancel any prime factor which have the same exponents on $a,b$, we can write $$
a = \prod_{i=1}^m p_i^{a_i-1} \prod_{j=1}^n q_j^{c_j-1}, \qquad
b = \prod_{i=1}^m p_i^{b_i-1} \prod_{j=1}^n q_j^{d_j-1}
$$where $a_1,...,a_m, b_1,...,b_m,c_1,...,c_n,d_1,...,d_n$ are integers greater than one such that $a_i > b_i$ and $c_i > d_i$, and $p_1,...,p_m,q_1,...,q_m$ are primes. Take a large enough integer $T$ and define
\begin{align*}
x_i &= (mT+i)(a_i-b_i)-a_i\\\
y_j &= (nT+j)(d_j-c_j)-d_j.
\end{align*}Choose $n=\prod\limits_{i=1}^m p_i^{x_i-1} \prod\limits_{j=1}^m q_j^{y_j-1}$. We see that $$\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i}=\frac{mT+i}{mT+i-1},\qquad \frac{y_j+c_j}{y_j+d_j}=\frac{nT+j-1}{nT+j}$$Hence
$$\frac{\tau(na)}{\tau(nb)} = \prod_{i=1}^m\frac{mT+i}{mT+i-1}\prod_{j=1}^n\frac{nT+j-1}{nT+j} = \frac{m(T+1)}{mT}\cdot\frac{nT}{n(T+1)}=1$$as desired.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by MarkBcc168, Jul 17, 2019, 2:00 PM
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william122
1576 posts
#4 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
I claim that all $(m,n)$ such that $m\!\!\not\arrowvert n$, $n\!\!\not\arrowvert m$ work. Suppose that $(p_1,p_2,\ldots,p_k)$ are the set of primes such that $p|\text{lcm}(m,n)$, and define $v_{p_i}(m)=\alpha_i$, $v_{p_i}(n)=\beta_i$. Finally, order the $p_i$ such that for all $i< N$, $\alpha_i<\beta_i$, and $\alpha_i> \beta_i$* for $i\ge N$. $2\le N\le k$ by our assumption that neither number divides the other.

Now, if we denote $v_{p_i}(s)=s_i$, we want to find a suitable choice of $(s_1,\ldots,s_k)$ such that $$\prod_{i=1}^k\frac{\alpha_i+s_i}{\beta_i+s_i}=1$$Call the factor inside the product $F_i$. Note that for all $i\ge N$, we can choose $s_i=T\alpha_i-(T+1)\beta_i$, for all sufficiently large $T$, such that $F_i=\frac{T+1}{T}$. Similarly, for all $i<N$, we can choose $s_i$ such that $F_i=\frac{T}{T+1}$, for all sufficiently large $T$. So, we can set $F_1=\frac{T_1}{T_1+1}$, $F_2=\frac{T_1+1}{T_1+2}\ldots F_{N-1}=\frac{T_1+N-2}{T_1+N-1}$ for some very large $T_1$, and $F_N=\frac{T_2+1}{T_2},\ldots F_k=\frac{T_2+k-N+1}{T_2+k-N}$ for some very large $T_2$. Now, the desired product telescopes and becomes $\frac{T_1}{T_1+N-1}\cdot\frac{T_2+(k-N+1)}{T_2}$. Now, just let $T_1= M(N-1)$, $T_2=M(k-N+1)$ for some very large value of $M$ to get this equal to 1, as desired.

*If there are any $p$ such that $v_p(m)=v_p(n)$, we can divide them out since they don't matter.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by william122, Aug 9, 2019, 12:25 AM
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pad
1671 posts
#5 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
This solution might be a bit new.

We claim the only condition is $m\nmid n$ and $n\nmid m$.

Clearly $m=n$ works, so assume $m\not =n$ in what follows. Suppose $m = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{a_i}, n = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{b_i}, s = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{x_i}$. (We ignore the primes that divide equally in $m,n$.) Then
\[ (x_1+(a_1+1))\cdots (x_k + (a_k+1)) = (x_1+(b_1+1))\cdots (x_k + (b_k+1)). \]If $a_1\le b_i \forall 1\le i \le k$ or $a_1\ge b_i \forall 1\le i \le k$, then clearly one side is larger than the other, so we have no solutions. This corresponds to $m\mid n$ or $n\mid m$. So assume this is not the case.

WLOG assume $a_i\le b_i$ for $i=1,\ldots,\ell$ and $a_i \ge b_i$ for $i=\ell+1,\ldots, k$. We can do this since the value of the primes is irrelevant, only their exponents, so we can order the indices $i$ with $a_i\le b_i$ first. Then
\[ \frac{x_1+b_1+1}{x_1+a_1+1} \cdot \frac{x_2+b_2+1}{x_2+a_2+1} \cdots \frac{x_\ell+b_\ell+1}{x_\ell+a_\ell+1} = \frac{x_{\ell+1}+b_{\ell+1}+1}{x_{\ell+1}+a_{\ell+1}+1} \cdots \frac{x_k+b_k+1}{x_k+a_k+1}. \]We want to find a solution for the $x_i$'s. Let
\begin{align*}
    x_1+a_1+1 &= x_2+b_2+1 \implies x_2 = x_1+(a_1-b_2) \\
    x_2+a_2+1 &= x_3+b_3+1 \implies x_3 = x_2+(a_2-b_3) \\
    &\vdots \\
    x_{\ell-1}+a_{\ell-1} + 1 &= x_\ell + b_\ell + 1\implies x_\ell = x_{\ell-1} + (a_{\ell-1} - b_\ell),
\end{align*}and similarly,
\begin{align*}
    x_{\ell+1} + b_{\ell+1} + 1 &= x_{\ell+2} + a_{\ell+2} + 1 \\
    &\vdots \\
    x_{k-1} + b_{k-1} + 1&= x_k+a_k+1. 
\end{align*}Now most of the fractions cancel, and we are left with
\[ \frac{x_1+b_1+1}{x_\ell+a_\ell+1} = \frac{x_{\ell+1} + a_{\ell+1} + 1}{x_k+b_k+1}. \]This clearly has a solution for $x_1, x_\ell, x_{\ell+1}, x_k$; just take $x_1 = A-(b_1+1), x_{\ell+1} = A-(a_{\ell+1}+1), x_{\ell} = B-(a_{\ell}+1), x_k = B-(b_k+1)$, for some very large $A,B$. Now we just substitute into the above equations to find all $x_i$'s. Note that if we make $A,B$ sufficiently large then we guarantee that all the $x_i$'s are positive.
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jj_ca888
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#6 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
darn just realized that this is basically the same (rather basically identical) as pad's solution but im posting it anyways for reference

sol
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62861
3564 posts
#7 • 3 Y
Y by aopsuser305, Adventure10, Mango247
IndoMathXdZ wrote:
Determine all pairs $(m, n)$ of positive integers for which there exists a positive integer $s$ such that $sm$ and $sn$ have an equal number of divisors.
djmathman's edit reason wrote:
edited to reflect actual wording in the shortlist re post #2
It's quite ironic that the text in post 2 is not the actual shortlist wording.

Fixed, thanks. ~dj
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by djmathman, Dec 29, 2019, 1:43 AM
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VulcanForge
626 posts
#8 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
I think this is slightly different?

The answer is all $(k,n)$ such that neither divides the other. It's easy to see that if $k|n$ or $n|k$, then it doesn't work. Now we show that all other $(k,n)$ work. Let
\begin{align*}
n &=p_1^{d_1}p_2^{d_2} \cdots p_t^{d_t} \\
k &=p_1^{e_1}p_2^{e_2} \cdots p_t^{e_t} \\
s &=p_1^{f_1-1}p_2^{f_2-1} \cdots p_t^{f_t-1} \\
\end{align*}for primes $p_i$, positive integers $f_i$ and nonnegative integers $d_i, e_i$. We can WLOG let $d_i \neq e_i$ for each $i$. We want to pick the $f_i$ such that $$(e_1+f_1)(e_2+f_2) \cdots (e_t+f_t) = (d_1+f_1)(d_t+f_t) \cdots (d_t+f_t)$$, or $$\prod_{d_t>e_t} \frac{f_t+d_t}{f_t+e_t} = \prod_{e_t>d_t} \frac{f_t+e_t}{f_t+d_t}$$. Now let us note the following:
  • For any nonnegative integers $(m,n,k)$ with $m>n$ and $k$ sufficiently large, we can find a positive integer $a$ such that $\frac{a+m}{a+n}=\frac{k+1}{k}$; just take $a=k(m-n)-n$ (which is positive because $k$ is large).
  • $\frac{2^{a+k}}{2^{a+k}-1} \prod_{i=a+1}^{a+k} \frac{2^i-1}{2^i-2} = \frac{2^a}{2^a-1}$ (for example, $\frac{256}{255} \cdot \frac{255}{254} \cdot \frac{127}{126} \cdot \frac{63}{62} = \frac{32}{31}$)
Combining these two observations implies that we can make both sides of the equation equal to $\frac{2^a}{2^a-1}$ for some large $a$, as desired.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by VulcanForge, May 7, 2020, 7:39 PM
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EulersTurban
386 posts
#9
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It is obvious that if $k \mid n$ or $n \mid k$, that we don't have a solution.

Denote by $a=(\alpha_1,\alpha_2,\alpha_3,\dots)$ the canonical factorization of the number $a$, where $\alpha_1$ is the exponent of $p_1=2$, $\alpha_2$ is the exponent of $p_2=3$, etc. . . . (we can have $0$, in fact after a point we are going to have a lot of zeroes after that)

Let's denote by $n=(\alpha_1,\alpha_2,\alpha_3,\dots)$, $k=(\beta_1,\beta_2,\beta_3,\dots)$ and $k=(\gamma_1,\gamma_2,\gamma_3,\dots)$

From here we have that:
$$\tau(sk)=\prod_{t=1}^{\infty} \beta_t+\gamma_t$$$$\tau(sn)=\prod_{t=1}^{\infty} \alpha_t+\gamma_t$$
We want:
$$\frac{\tau(sn)}{\tau(sk)}=1$$$$\prod_{t=1}^{\infty}\frac{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}{\beta_t+\gamma_t}=1$$
By simple algebra we easily show that we can set $\gamma_t$ to something to get that:
$$\frac{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}{\beta_t+\gamma_t} = \frac{d+e}{d}$$But we must have $\alpha_t > \beta_t$.But if $\alpha_t < \beta_t$ we will have that:
$$\frac{\beta_t+\gamma_t}{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}=\frac{d}{d+e}$$
Let's divide the exponents into two sets $A,B$, where $A=\{t \mid \alpha_t > \beta_t\}$ and where $B=\{t\mid\alpha_t < \beta_t\}$.Since $d$ was undefined we can practically set $d$ for our own purposes, so now in the the realm of set $A$ we will set $d=card(A).p$, and in the realm of set $B$ we will set $d=card(B).p$, so by this we are going to have the following:
$$\prod_{t=1}^{\infty} \frac{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}{\beta_t+\gamma_t} = \prod_{t\in A} \frac{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}{\beta_t+\gamma_t} \prod_{t \in B} \frac{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}{\beta_t+\gamma_t}$$Because of the the lemma we have that:
$$\prod_{t\in A} \frac{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}{\beta_t+\gamma_t}=\frac{card(A)p+1}{card(A)p}\frac{card(A)p+2}{card(A)p+1}\dots \frac{card(A)p+card(A)}{card(A)p+card(A)-1}=\frac{p+1}{p}$$Similarily we have that:
$$\prod_{t \in B} \frac{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}{\beta_t+\gamma_t} = \frac{card(B)p}{card(B)p+1}\frac{card(B)p+1}{card(B)p+2}\dots \frac{card(B)p+card(B)-1}{card(B)p+card(B)} = \frac{p}{p+1}$$
From here we see that:
$$\prod_{t=1}^{\infty} \frac{\alpha_t+\gamma_t}{\beta_t+\gamma_t} = \frac{p+1}{p}\frac{p}{p+1}=1$$
In the canonical factorisation we are going to have a lot of zeros after a while, just set $\gamma$ after that point all to be equal to $1$, just to escape the $0/0$ situation.

So we have found a construction for $s$ when $n \nmid k$ and $k \nmid n$.

So the answer is all pairs $(n,k)$ such that $n \nmid k$ and $k \nmid n$ . . . :D
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peatlo17
77 posts
#10 • 2 Y
Y by Mango247, Mango247
I claim that all distinct positive integers $(m, n)$ for which $m \nmid n$ and $n\nmid m$ satisfy the given property.

$\emph{\textbf{Proof:}}$
Let the prime factorizations of $m$ and $n$ be
$$m = p_1^{e_1}p_2^{e_2}\cdots p_k^{e_k}q_1^{f_1+y_1}q_2^{f_2+y_2}\cdots q_l^{f_l+y_l}$$$$n = p_1^{e_1+x_1}p_2^{e_2+x_2}\cdots p_k^{e_k+x_k}q_1^{f_1}q_2^{f_2}\cdots q_l^{f_l}$$For positive integers $x_i$ and $y_i$ where $k, l \ge 1$. Observe that any common prime factors of $m$ and $n$ with equal exponents can be left out as they do not affect the proof.

Thus we can write $sm$ and $sn$ as
$$sm = p_1^{g_1-1}p_2^{g_2-1}\cdots p_k^{g_k-1}q_1^{h_1-1+y_1}q_2^{h_2-1+y_2}\cdots q_l^{h_l-1+y_l}$$$$sn = p_1^{g_1-1+x_1}p_2^{g_2-1+x_2}\cdots p_k^{g_k-1+x_k}q_1^{h_1-1}q_2^{h_2-1}\cdots q_l^{h_l-1}$$where $g_i-1 \ge e_i$ and $h_i-1 \ge f_i$. By setting $\tau(sm) = \tau(sn)$ and dividing, we obtain:
\begin{align}
\frac{g_1}{g_1+x_1}\cdot\frac{g_2}{g_2+x_2}\cdots\frac{g_k}{g_k+x_k} = \frac{h_1}{h_1+y_1}\cdots\frac{h_k}{h_k+y_k}
\end{align}
$\textbf{Definition 1}$:
Define an $\emph{expand}$ as an operation in which a fraction $\frac{a}{a+1}$ is replaced by the product
\begin{align*}
\frac{a}{a+1} &= \frac{a+1}{a+2}\cdot \frac{a^2+2a}{a^2+2a+1}\\[2mm]
&= \frac{b}{b+1}\cdot \frac{c}{c+1}
\end{align*}for positive integers $a, b, c$ where $b = a+1$ and $c = a^2+2a$. Observe that $b, c > a$.

$\textbf{Definition 2}$:
Define an $\emph{increase}$ as an operation in which a fraction $\frac{a}{a+1}$ is replaced by the fraction
$$\frac{a}{a+1} = \frac{da}{da+d} = \frac{b}{b+d}$$for positive integers $a, b$ where $b=da$.

Thus if we begin with the equation
$$\frac{T}{T+1} = \frac{T}{T+1} \qquad \forall \ T > \textrm{max}(e_1,\cdots, e_k, f_1, \cdots , f_l)$$we can apply the $\emph{expand}$ and $\emph{increase}$ operations on either side of the equation to obtain (1), as desired.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by peatlo17, Jun 4, 2020, 8:58 PM
Reason: tau symbol
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Mathscienceclass
1246 posts
#11
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For OTIS!

The answer is all $(m, n)$ such that $m \nmid n$ and $n \nmid m$.
Clearly $m \mid n$ or $n \mid m$ don't work since $sm \mid sn$ or $sn \mid sm$ respectively, so one will always have more divisors than the other for any $s$.
Now let $(e_1, e_2, \cdots)$ represent $p_1^{e_1}p_2^{e_2}\cdots$ where $p_1=2$, $p_2=3$, $\cdots$. Write $m = (m_1, m_2, \cdots)$ and $n = (n_1, n_2, \cdots)$ (all $m_i$ and $n_i$ are nonnegative integers). We wish to show that there exists nonnegative integers $s_1$, $s_2$, $\cdots$ such that $$\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{m_i+s_i+1}{n_i+s_i+1} = 1$$so then we could let $s = (s_1, s_2, \cdots)$. Acknowledge the following:
Claim. For nonnegative integers $a$ and $b$ with $a>b$, it is possible to choose a nonnegative integer $t$ such that there exists a positive integer $k$ such that $\frac{k+1}{k}=\frac{a+t+1}{b+t+1}$.
Proof. This is just possible by taking $t=k(a-b)-b-1$. $\square$
Now let $G$ be the set of $i$ such that $m_i > n_i$, and define $L$ similarly for $m_i < n_i$. The $i$ for $m_i = n_i$ are irrelevant, so we need only consider the $i$ that are in $G$ and $L$. It is important that $G$ and $L$ are nonempty since $m \nmid n$ and $n \nmid m$. Choose a positive integer $C$. By the claim, it is possible to create $$\prod_{i \in G} \frac{m_i+s_i+1}{n_i+s_i+1} = \frac{C|G|+1}{C|G|}\cdot\frac{C|G|+2}{C|G|+1}\cdot\cdots\cdot\frac{C|G|+|G|}{C|G|+|G|-1} = \frac{C+1}{C}$$This is only possible since $G$ is nonempty. Since $L$ is also nonempty, it is possible to make $$\prod_{i \in L} \frac{m_i+s_i+1}{n_i+s_i+1} = \frac{C}{C+1}$$by replacing every $|G|$ with $|L|$, and flipping each fraction since $m_i < n_i$. Now $\frac{C+1}{C} \cdot \frac{C}{C+1} = 1$, which finishes the problem. $\blacksquare$
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mathlogician
1051 posts
#12 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Suppose $m \neq n$. The answer is $\boxed{\text{all pairs } (m,n)\text{ such that } m \nmid n,n \nmid m.}$ Obviously if $m \mid n$ or $n \mid m$, there exists no such $s$, so it suffices to construct a $s$ for all other $(m,n)$.

\bigskip

Note that we can simply delete all the primes in $m$ and $n$ that have equal power, so assume that $m = a_1^{p_1}\cdots a_i^{p^i}b_1^{q_1}\cdots b_j^{q_j}$ and $n = a_1^{x_1}\cdots a_i^{x^i}b_1^{y_1}\cdots b_j^{y_j}$ where $a_i,b_j$ are primes and $p_i > x_i, q_1 > y_i$. Now let $S$ be a sufficiently large integer, and let $s_k$ for $1 \leq k \leq i$ be so that $s_k = (Si + k)(a_k - b_k) + (1 - b_k)$. Define $t_k$ for $1 \leq k \leq j$ similarly, and let $s = a_1^{s_1}\cdots a_i^{s^i}b_1^{t_1}\cdots b_j^{t_j}$. Now note that $$\frac{\tau(sm)}{\tau(sn)} = \prod_{k=1}^i \frac{p_k+s_k+1}{x_k+s_k+1} \prod_{l=1}^j \frac{q_l + t_l+1}{y_l+t_l+1} = \prod_{k=1}^i \frac{iS+k+1}{iS+k} \prod_{l=1}^j \frac{jS+l}{jS+l+1} = \frac{S+1}{S} \cdot \frac{S}{S+1} = 1.$$
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Pluto1708
1107 posts
#13
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IndoMathXdZ wrote:
Determine all pairs $(n, k)$ of distinct positive integers such that there exists a positive integer $s$ for which the number of divisors of $sn$ and of $sk$ are equal.

Storage
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Vitriol
113 posts
#14
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The answer is all pairs $(n, k)$ such that $n \nmid k$ and $k \nmid n$. The others fail since if WLOG $n \mid k$, every divisor of $sn$ divides $sk$ and $sk$ divides $sk$ as well, so there are more divisors of $sk$ than $sn$.

To show that these $n, k$ work, we begin by claiming that for $N$ large enough, there exist an $a$ such that
\[ \frac{x+a}{y+a} = \frac{N}{N+1},\]for all integers $x,y$ with $x<y$. The proof is simple; we can just take $a=(y-x)N-x$.

Let $P$, $Q$, $R$ be sets such that for each prime $p$ dividing $n$ or $k$, it is in $P$ if $\nu_p(n) < \nu_p(k)$, in $Q$ if $\nu_p(n) = \nu_p(k)$, and in $R$ if $\nu_p(n) > \nu_p(k)$.

Note that none of the the primes in $Q$ matter. For any arbitrary prime $p \in P \cup R$, it contributes a factor of
\[ \frac{\nu_p (n) + \nu_p (s) + 1}{\nu_p (k) + \nu_p (s) + 1} \]to the ratio the number of divisors of $sn$ to $sk$. But by the claim, we can carefully choose $\nu_p(s)$ so that for each $p$ in $P$, this factor is equal to $\frac{N}{N+1}$ for some $N$ very large. For each $p$ in $R$, the reciprocal of the claim gives that the factor can become $\frac{N+1}{N}$ for some $N$ very large.

Now to finish, if we pick some $M \gg |P|+|R|$, we can pick the values of $\nu_p(s)$ such that the ratio the number of divisors of $sn$ to $sk$ is
\[ \left(\frac{M|P|-|P|}{M|P|-|P|+1} \cdot \frac{M|P|-|P|+1}{M|P|-|P|+2} \cdot \hdots \cdot \frac{M|P|-1}{M|P|} \right) \left(\frac{M|R|-|R|+1}{M|R|-|R|} \cdot \frac{M|R|-|R|+2}{M|R|-|R|+1} \cdot \hdots \cdot \frac{M|R|}{M|R|-1} \right).\]But the left product telescopes to $\frac{M-1}{M}$ and the right telescopes to $\frac{M}{M-1}$, so the product is $1$, as desired. $\blacksquare$
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lilavati_2005
357 posts
#15 • 1 Y
Y by green_leaf
Answer : The answer is all pairs such that $n \nmid k$ and $k\nmid n$.

Claim 1 : Given positive integers $a, b$ with $a<b$ and for any sufficiently large positive integer $A$ there exists $x$ such that $\frac{A+1}{A} = \frac{x+a}{x+b}$.
Proof : $\frac{A}{A+1} = \frac{x+a}{x+b} \iff x = Ab - (A+1)a$. Since $A$ is large, $Ab - (A+1)a$ is positive.

Claim 2 : Given two sequences of positive integers $\{a_i\}_{i=1}^{2^k}$ and $\{b_i\}_{i=1}^{2^k}$ such that $a_i < b_i$ and any sufficiently large $A$, there exists a sequence of positive integers $\{x_i\}_{i=1}^{2^k}$ such that for any positive integer $c$ :
(i) $\prod_{i=1}^{2^k}\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2^cA}{2^cA + 1}$.
(ii) $\prod_{i=1}^{2^k}\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2^cA+1}{2^cA + 2}$.

Proof (i): Take $\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2^{kc}A+(i-1)}{2^{kc}A+i}$.
Then
\[\frac{x_1+a_1}{x_1+b_1}\cdots\frac{x_{2^k}+a_{2^k}}{x_{2^k}+b_{2^k}} = \frac{2^{kc}A}{2^{kc}A+1}\frac{2^{kc}A+1}{2^{kc}A+2}\cdots \frac{2^{kc}A+(2^k-1)}{2^{kc}A+2^k} = \frac{2^{kc}}{2^{kc}+2^k}=\frac{2^cA}{2^cA+1}.\]
Proof (ii): Take $\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2^{kc}A+(2^k+i-1)}{2^{kc}A+2^k+i}$.
Then
\[\frac{x_1+a_1}{x_1+b_1}\cdots\frac{x_{2^k}+a_{2^k}}{x_{2^k}+b_{2^k}} = \frac{2^{kc}A+2^k}{2^{kc}A+2^k+1}\frac{2^{kc}A+2^k+1}{2^{kc}A+2^k+2}\cdots \frac{2^{kc}A+(2^{k+1}-1)}{2^{kc}A+2^{k+1}}=\frac{2^{kc}A+2^k}{2^{kc}A+2^{k+1}}=\frac{2^cA+1}{2^cA+2}.\]
Claim 3 : Given two sequences of positive integers $\{a_i\}_{i=1}^{k}$ and $\{b_i\}_{i=1}^{k}$ such that $a_i < b_i$ and any sufficiently large $A$, there exists a sequence of positive integers $\{x_i\}_{i=1}^{k}$ such that :
\[\prod_{i=1}^{k}\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{A}{A+1}\].
Proof : Let $k = 2^{\alpha_1} + 2^{\alpha_2} + \cdots + 2^{\alpha_c}$ where $\alpha_i$ are distinct, nonnegative and $\alpha_1 < \alpha_2 < \cdots < \alpha_c$.
Let
$\prod_{i=1}^{2^{\alpha_1}}\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2^{c-1}A}{2^{c-1}A+1}$

$\prod_{i=\alpha_1+1}^{\alpha_2}\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2^{c-1}A+1}{2^{c-1}A+2}$

$\prod_{i=\alpha_2+1}^{\alpha_3}\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2^{c-2}A+1}{2^{c-2}A+2}$
$.$
$.$
$.$
$\prod_{i=\alpha_{k-1}+1}^{\alpha_k}\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2A+1}{2A+2}$
Hence
\[\prod_{i=1}^{k}\frac{x_i+a_i}{x_i+b_i} = \frac{2^{c-1}A}{2^{c-1}A+1}\frac{2^{c-1}A+1}{2^{c-1}A+2}\frac{2^{c-2}A+1}{2^{c-2}A+2}\cdots\frac{2A+1}{2A+2} = \frac{A}{A+1}\].
The last equality can be proved easily by inducting on $c$.

Main Problem
Let
\[n = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_r^{a_r} p_{r+1}^{a_{r+1}}\cdots p_m^{a_m}\]\[k = p_1^{b_1}p_2^{b_2}\cdots p_r^{b_r} p_{r+1}^{b_{r+1}}\cdots p_m^{b_m}\]\[s = p_1^{x_1 - 1}p_2^{x_2 - 1} \cdots p_m^{x_m - 1}\]where $a_i  >b_i$ $\forall i$ $\in \{1,2, \cdots, r\}$ and $a_j<b_j$ $\forall j \in \{r+1, r+2, \cdots, m\}$.
$\tau(sm)=\tau(sn) \iff \frac{x_1+b_1}{x_1+a_1}\cdots\frac{x_r+b_r}{x_r+a_r} = \frac{x_{r+1}+a_{r+1}}{x_{r+1}+b_{r+1}}\cdots\frac{x_m+a_m}{x_m+b_m}$.
However by Claim $3$, for any sufficiently large positive integer $A$, we can make the LHS and RHS both equal to $\frac{A}{A+1}$.
This post has been edited 7 times. Last edited by lilavati_2005, Apr 8, 2021, 7:52 PM
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AwesomeYRY
579 posts
#17 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
I claim that this is true of all $(n,k)$ such that neither $n$ nor $k$ are proper divisors of each other.

Firstly, if wlog $n$ is a proper divisor of $k$, then this means that $sn$ is a proper divisor of $sk$, so $sn$ will always have strictly less divisors than $sk$, a contradiction.

We now take all $n$ and $k$ such that neither are proper divisors of each other. Consider two sets, the set $A$ where $p\in A$ if $v_p(n)>v_p(k)$, and $B$ where $q \in A$ if $v_q(n)<v_q(k)$.

If $n=k$, then $sn=sk$ so they will clearly have the same number of divisors. Otherwise for $n\neq k$, we clearly must have that both $A,B$ are non-empty.

Next, we calculate two values,
\[X = \sum_{p\in A} v_p(n)-v_p(k) \]\[Y = \sum_{q\in B} v_q(k)-v_q(n) \]
We then take some arbitrarily large $M$. Additionally, we will order the primes $A$ and $B$ calling them $p_i$ with exponent differences $e_i$ for all $i\geq 1$.

We achieve equal number of divisors by selecting $s$ such that
\[\prod_{p\in A} \frac{v_p(ns)+1}{v_p(ks)+1} = \prod_{i=1}^{|A|} \frac{MX+\sum_{j=0}^{i} e_i}{MX+\sum_{j=0}^{i-1} e_i}= \frac{MX+X}{MX} = \frac{M+1}{M}\]
By a similar process, we can do the same to get
\[\prod_{q\in B} \frac{v_q(ks)+1}{v_q(ns)+1}=. \frac{MY+Y}{MY} = \frac{M+1}{M}\]
Thus, the ratio of divisors will be
\[\frac{d(ns)}{d(ks)} = \text{(ratio of A-primes)} \cdot \text{(ratio of B-primes)}\cdot \text{(ratio of other primes)} = \frac{M+1}{M}\cdot \frac{M}{M+1}\cdot 1 = 1\]and we are done $\blacksquare$.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by AwesomeYRY, Apr 28, 2021, 3:59 AM
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bluelinfish
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#18
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We claim that any distinct integers $n$ and $k$ such that neither one divides the other will work. It is clear that if $n|k$, for instance, $(sn)|(sk)$ for any positive integer $s$, and thus we cannot have the same number of divisors for both numbers. Therefore we restrict our attention to proving there exists $s$ for $n,k$ such that neither one divides the other.

Given $n$ and $k$, first omit any primes for which $n$ and $k$ have the same number of factors of that prime, as they do not affect the proof at all. Suppose that $$n=p_1^{e_1}p_2^{e_2}\ldots p_m^{e_m}q_1^{f_1}q_2^{f_2}\ldots q_n^{f_n}$$and $$k=p_1^{e_1'}p_2^{e_2'}\ldots p_m^{e_m'}q_1^{f_1'}q_2^{f_2'}\ldots q_n^{f_n'}$$where $e_i>e_i'$ for all $1\le i\le m$ and $f_i<f_i'$ for all $1\le i \le n$. Let $$s=p_1^{g_1}p_2^{g_2}\ldots p_m^{g_m}q_1^{h_1}q_2^{h_2}\ldots q_n^{h_n}.$$Our goal is to choose exponents so that the number of factors of $ks$ and $ns$ are the same; i.e. $$\prod_{i=1}^m (e_i+g_i+1) \prod_{i=1}^n (f_i+h_i+1)=\prod_{i=1}^m (e_i'+g_i+1) \prod_{i=1}^n (f_i'+h_i+1)$$Rearrange to get $$\prod_{i=1}^m \frac{e_i+g_i+1}{e_i'+g_i+1} = \prod_{i=1}^n \frac{f_i'+h_i+1}{f_i+h_i+1}.$$
Choose $g_i$ inductively for all $2\le i\le m$ so that $$e_{i-1}+g_{i-1}+1=e_i'+g_i+1\Rightarrow g_i=g_{i-1}+(e_{i-1}-e_i').$$(To prevent any of the $g_i$ from being negative, we can make $g_1$ arbitrarily large, and we will do that later.) These choices of $g_2$ through $g_m$ force the numerator of the $i-1$th term to cancel with the denominator of the $i$th term. After these cancellations are done, we are left on the left side with the numerator of the $m$th term and the denominator of the first term, or $$\frac{e_m+g_m+1}{e_1'+g_1+1}.$$Due to the inductive definition of $g_i$, $g_m=g_1+A$ for some fixed constant $A$. Let $e_m+C+1=A_1$ and $e_1'+1=A_2$, so that the left side reduces to $$\frac{g_1+A_1}{g_1+A_2}.$$Notice that $A_2$ is a positive integer. Because $\prod_{i=1}^m \frac{e_i+g_i+1}{e_i'+g_i+1}>1$, and this is a simplification of this product, $A_1>A_2$. Similarly, the right side can be expressed as $$\frac{h_1+B_1}{h_1+B_2}$$with appropriate substitutions for $h_i$ and fixed positive integer constants $B_1>B_2$.

It suffices to find arbitrarily large positive integers $g_1,h_1$ so that $$\frac{g_1+A_1}{g_1+A_2}=\frac{h_1+B_1}{h_1+B_2}\Rightarrow \frac{A_1-A_2}{g_1+A_2}=\frac{B_1-B_2}{h_1+B_2}.$$However, this can be easily done by letting $N$ be an arbitrarily large positive integer and letting $$g_1+A_2=N(A_1-A_2), h_1+B_2=N(B_1-B_2).$$Then we can make $g_1,h_1$ as large as needed to prevent any of the $g_i$ or $h_i$ from becoming negative. The proof is complete.

Remarks: All the proofs in this thread are long, but that is the result of writing up tons of details for a main idea that isn't difficult to spot. The choosing of $g_i,h_i$ is motivated by the "DURR WE WANT STUFF TO CANCEL" thing, if you don't know what this is then check out vEnhance's functional equation handout here and go to section 5.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by bluelinfish, May 29, 2021, 3:45 PM
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asdf334
7586 posts
#19
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bad hard to understand proof incoming

The solution is all $(n, k)$ such that $n \nmid k$ and $k \nmid n$.
Let the exponent set of a natural number $n$ be $(e_1, e_2, e_3, \dots)$, where $e_i=v_{p_i}(n)+1$ and $p_i$ is the $i$-th prime. For example, the exponent set of $n=2^3\cdot 3^5\cdot 5=9720$ is $(4, 6, 2, 1, 1, \dots)$. Then we want $$\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{e_i+d_i}{f_i+d_i}=1,$$where the exponent set of $n$ is $(e_1, e_2, \dots)$, the exponent set of $k$ is $(f_1, f_2, \dots)$, and the exponent set of $s$ is $(d_1+1, d_2+1, \dots)$. Note that $e_i>0$, $f_i>0$, $d_i \geq 0$ for all $i \geq 1$.

Note that if $e_i=f_i$ for some positive integer $i$ then $\frac{e_i+d_i}{f_i+d_i}=1$.

Claim: If $e_i > f_i$, then $\frac{e_i+d_i}{f_i+d_i}$ can take on any fraction of the form $\frac{a+1}{a}$ such that $\frac{a+1}{a}<\frac{e_i}{f_i}$. If $e_i < f_i$ then this becomes $\frac{a}{a+1}>\frac{e_i}{f_i}$.
Proof: Let $e_i,f_i \equiv r \mod e_i-f_i$ where $0 \leq r < e_i-f_i$. Then we can let $d_i=c(e_i-f_i)-r$ for some number $c \geq 1$.

Therefore, our product condition is now $$\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{e_i+d_i}{f_i+d_i}=1$$where $|e_i-f_i|=1$ for all $i \geq 1$.

Let a fraction $r_i=\frac{e_i}{f_i}$ be top-heavy if $e_i=f_i+1$, and bottom-heavy if $e_i=f_i-1$. It's easy to show that if all $r_i$ are top-heavy ($k \mid n$), or if all $r_i$ are bottom-heavy ($n \mid k$), then the product condition fails. From this point on, we will assume that there is at least one top-heavy fraction in the product and at least one bottom-heavy fraction. Additionally, if we have two fractions $r_i$ and $r_j$ such that $r_i$ is top-heavy and $r_j$ is bottom-heavy, then these two will cancel. So, it suffices to show that:

Claim: We can cancel any two top-heavy fractions $r_x$ and $r_y$ where $x,y \geq 1$ and $x\neq y$ into a single top-heavy fraction, and similarly for any two bottom-heavy fractions. The proof follows.
Proof: We want to show $$\frac{f_x+d_x+1}{f_x+d_x}\cdot \frac{f_y+d_y+1}{f_y+d_y}=\frac{a+1}{a}$$for some positive integer $a$. Choose $d_x, d_y$ such that $f_x+d_x=f_y+d_y+1=\text{some odd number}.$ Then $f_x+d_x+1=f_y+d_y+2=\text{some even number}$, so $\frac{f_x+d_x+1}{f_y+d_y}=\frac{a+1}{a}$ for some positive integer $a$. $\blacksquare$
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asdf334
7586 posts
#20 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
as an example
for exponent sets $n=(4, 6, 2, 1, 1, \dots)$ and $k=(3, 7, 11, 1, 2, 1, 1, \dots)$

the fractions are $\frac{4+d_1}{3+d_1}$, $\frac{6+d_2}{7+d_2}$, $\frac{1+d_3}{2+d_3}$, $\frac{1+d_4}{2+d_4}$

then we have $d_1=0$, $d_2=0$, $d_3=13$, $d_4=14$

which corresponds to $0, 0, 124, 14$
so
$n=2^3\cdot 3^5\cdot 5^1\cdot 7^0\cdot 11^0$
$k=2^2\cdot 3^6\cdot 5^{10}\cdot 7^0\cdot 11^1$
$s=2^0\cdot 3^0\cdot 5^{124}\cdot 7^0\cdot 11^{14}$
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by asdf334, Aug 29, 2021, 4:07 PM
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lazizbek42
548 posts
#21 • 1 Y
Y by jrsbr
Hard problem for N1
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Fafnir
16 posts
#22 • 1 Y
Y by Sagnik123Biswas
Answer : All pairs of $(m,n)$ satisfies for $m \nmid n$ and $n \nmid m$

It can be seen that for all the pairs in which $m | n $ or $n | m$ when any number is multiplied the greater of $m,n$ in the above case would have more divisors and the divisors of the smaller number would be a subset of the set of divisors of the larger one

Now take the pairs of $(m,n)$ for which $m \nmid n$ and $n \nmid m$


Now if the pairs are coprime then any prime different from the prime divisors of both $m,n$ would work ( there are infinte primes) , In $m=n$ then any numbr would work

Now lets take \[m = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2} \dots p_e^{a_e} \]\[n = p_1^{b_1}p_2^{b_2} \dots p_e^{b_e}\]\[s = p_1^{c_1}p_2^{c_2} \dots p_e^{c_e}\]From the number of divisors of $ms,ns$ we have \[ (a_1+c_1+1)(a_2+c_2+1) \dots (a_e+c_e+1) = (b_1+c_1+1)(b_2+c_2+1) \dots (b_e+c_e+1) \]\[ \frac{(b_1+c_1+1)(b_2+c_2+1) \dots (b_e+c_e+1)}{(a_1+c_1+1)(a_2+c_2+1) \dots (a_e+c_e+1)} = 1 \]
Claim : For some real $x \ge a+1$ there exist a $c$ such that \[ \frac{b+c+1}{a+c+1} = \frac{x+1}{x} \]
$Proof -$
\[ \frac{b+c+1}{a+c+1} = \frac{1+x}{x}\]
\[ bx+cx+1 = ax+cx+1+a+c+1 \]\[ c= x(b-a) -(a+1)\]
Let $Y$ be a large number greater than all $a_i,b_i$

WLOG lets say $i$ from $1$ to $f$ , $b_i>a_i$ and from $f+1$ to $e$ , $b_i<a_i$

Case 1 : $b_i>a_i$

From the above claim we can set $c_i$ in such a way such that \[ \frac{b_i+c_i+1}{a_i+c_i+1} = \frac{fY+i}{fY+i-1} \]
Case 2 : $b_i < a_i$

From the above claim we can set $c_{f+i}$ in such a way that \[ \frac{a_{f+i}+c_{f+i}+1}{b_{f+i}+c_{f+i}+1} = \frac{(e-f)Y+i}{(e-f)Y+i-1} \]
Now we can say

\[\prod_{i=1}^{e} \frac{b_i+c_i+1}{a_i+c_i+1} = \prod_{i=1}^{f}\frac{b_i+c_i+1}{a_i+c_i+1}  \enspace  \prod_{i=1}^{e-f} \frac{b_{f+i}+c_{f+i}+1}{a_{f+i}+c_{f+i}+1} \]\[ = \prod_{i=1}^{f} \frac{fY+i}{fY+i-1} \enspace \prod_{i=1}^{e-f} \frac{(e-f)Y+i-1}{(e-f)Y+i} \]\[=1\]
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blackbluecar
302 posts
#23
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We claim the answer is $n$ does not divide $k$ or vice versa. Clearly, if $n$ divides $k$ then $\tau(sn)>\tau(sk)$. So, assume that does not hold. Let us construct such an $s$. Let $n=p_1^{\alpha_1}p_2^{\alpha_2} \cdots p_m^{\alpha_m}$ and $k=p_1^{\beta_1}p_2^{\beta_2} \cdots p_m^{\beta_m}$ and $s=p_1^{\gamma_1}p_2^{\gamma_2} \cdots p_m^{\gamma_m}$. We want to show that there exists such a choice of $\gamma_i$ satisfying. \[ \frac{\alpha_1+\gamma_1+1}{\beta_1+\gamma_1+1} \cdot \frac{\alpha_2+\gamma_2+1}{\beta_2+\gamma_2+1} \cdots \frac{\alpha_m+\gamma_m+1}{\beta_m+\gamma_m+1}=1\]since $n$ and $k$ do not divide one another, then there exists $x$ and $y$ where $a_x>b_x$ and $a_y<b_y$. Thus, assume wlog that $a_i<b_i$ for $1 \leq i < \ell$ and $a_i>b_i$ for $\ell \leq i \leq m$ (if $a_i=b_i$ then it is irrelevant since it cancels in our fraction). By 2004 Putnam A1 we see that for every sufficiently large positive integer $N$, the equation \[ \frac{\alpha_i+\gamma_i+1}{\beta_i+\gamma_i+1} = \frac{N}{N+1}\]has a solution for $i < \ell$ and the other way around for $i \geq \ell$. Thus, we can get our massive product from before to be \[ \frac{M}{M+(m-\ell)} \cdot \frac{M+(m-\ell)}{M+2(m-\ell)} \cdots \frac{M+(\ell-1)(m-\ell)}{M+\ell(m-\ell)} \cdot \frac{M+\ell(m-\ell)}{M+\ell(m-\ell-1)} \cdots \frac{M+\ell}{M}  =1\]where $M$ is a sufficiently large positive integer divisible by both $\ell$ and $m-\ell$.

$\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by blackbluecar, Dec 5, 2022, 6:33 AM
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awesomeming327.
1691 posts
#24
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:skull:

$(n,n)$ is a solution, so let $n=\neq k$. Obviously, there are no other solutions when $n\mid k$ or $k\mid n$ because then $sn \mid sk$ or $sk\mid sn.$

$~$
Let $(p_1,p_2,\dots,p_j)$ be the list of all primes, in order from smallest to largest, such that $\nu_{p_i}{n}\neq \nu_{p_i}{k}.$ Note that if $(n,k)$ then is a solution, we can multiply by any $m$ that is coprime to both $n,k$ and $\tau(smn)=\tau(smk)$ will still hold.
$~$
We just need to show that as long as there exists both $\nu_{p_i}{n}>\nu_{p_i}{k}$ and $\nu_{p_i}{n}<\nu_{p_i}{k}$ then there exists an $s.$

$~$
Let $n=\prod_{i=1}^{j}{p_1^{n_i}}$ and $k=\prod_{i=1}^{j}{p_1^{k_i}}$ then $\tau(n)=\prod_{i=1}^{j}{1+n_i}$ and $\tau(k)=\prod_{i=1}^{j}{1+k_i}.$ Now, we can add an integer $r_i$ to $(1+n_i)$ and $(1+k_i)$ so that the products of $(1+n_i+r_i)$ and $(1+k_i+r_i)$ are equal.

$~$
We already assumed $n_i\neq k_i$, so when $n_i>k_i$ (and analagously otherwise) solving the equation $\frac{1+n_i+r_i}{1+k_i+r_i}=\frac{M_i+1}{M_i}$ we see there is an integer $r_i$ that satisfies. Thus, let there be $a$ numbers $n_i>k_i$ and $b$ numbers $n_i<k_i$.

$~$
We choose the following $M_i$:
\[\prod_{i=1}^{j}\frac{1+n_i+r_i}{1+k_i+r_i}=\frac{aN+1}{aN}\cdot \frac{aN+2}{aN+1}\cdot \frac{aN+a}{aN+a-1}\cdot \frac{bN}{bN+1}\cdot \frac{bN+1}{bN+2}\cdot \frac{bN+b-1}{bN+b}\]and we win.
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Knty2006
50 posts
#25
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We claim that it holds for all $n$ and $k$ that do not divide each other

Let $n=p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}....p_k^{a_k}$ $k=p_1^{b_1}p_2^{b_2}....p_k^{b_k}$ $S=p_1^{x_1}p_2^{x_2}....p_k^{x_k}$

Claim : If either $n|k$ or $k|n$ it fails

Proof: If $n|k$, then $a_k \leq b_k$ for all $k$

However, since $n,k$ are distinct, it implies that $ \prod (a_k +x_k+1) < \prod (b_k+x_k+1)$ for all $S$

Claim: If $n$ and $k$ do not divide each other, we win

Proof: Let $F_k$ denote $\frac{a_k+x_k+1}{b_k+x_k+1}$

For the sake of brevity, suppose $F_k>1$ for $i$ values of $k$, $F_k<1$ for $j$ values of $k$

Notice that $F_k=1$ is irrelevant as it doesn't affect the product of the number of divisors

Then, choose a very larger number $Y$ such that we can express $F_k$ as $\frac{Y}{Y+1}$ or $\frac{Y+1}{Y}$ for all $k$

For the $i$ values of $k$ where $F_k>1$, choose values of $x$ such that the $i$ values become

$$\frac{Yi+1}{Yi},\frac{Yi+2}{Yi+1},....\frac{Yi+i}{Yi+i-1}$$
Similarly, for the $j$ values of $k$ where $F_k<1$, choose values of $x$ such that the $j$ values become

$$\frac{Yj}{Yj+1},\frac{Yj+1}{Yj+2},....\frac{Yj+j-1}{Yj+j}$$
Note that the two products simply reduce to
$$(\frac{Y+1}{Y})(\frac{Y}{Y+1}) =1$$
Hence, we are done
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cj13609517288
1880 posts
#26
Y by
For each $(n,k)$ we can remove all the primes in the prime factorization that have the same exponent in $n$ and $k$. This clearly does not affect anything(any modification by multiplying that prime is mirrored exactly in the other number). Call this new pair $(a,b)$. If $a=b=1$, this clearly works. If $a|b$ or $b|a$ but not $a=b=1$, this is clearly impossible. We claim that all other cases are possible.
First of all, we can see that there must be at least one $p$ such that $\nu_p(a)<\nu_p(b)$ and at least one $q$ such that $\nu_q(a)>\nu_q(b)$(this is implied by the previous assumptions that $a\nmid b$ and $b\nmid a$). For the cases where $\nu_p(a)<\nu_p(b)$, we can try to make the $p$ part in the ratio of the number of divisors formula between $a$ and $b$ equal something very close to but below $1$ by selecting a large $e$ and multiplying $p^e$ to both $a$ and $b$. Specifically, there exists a positive integer $x$ such that for all $y\ge x$, the ratio can be $\frac{y}{y+1}$. This is because if we have $$e=y(\nu_p(b)-\nu_p(a))-\nu_p(a)$$for a large enough $y$, this works. A similar argument can be applied to when $\nu_q(a)>\nu_q(b)$, and we can get ratios of the form $\frac{y+1}{y}$.
Finally, we can force the ratio to be $1$ by selecting appropriate $y$s such that the product of the $\frac{y}{y+1}$s cancel out with the product of the $\frac{y+1}{y}$s. If there are $s$ $p$s such that $\nu_p(a)<\nu_p(b)$ and $t$ $q$s such that $\nu_q(a)>\nu_q(b)$, there exists a large enough $z$ such that the fractions would become $$\left(\frac{sz}{sz+1}\cdot\frac{sz+1}{sz+2}\cdot\dotso\cdot\frac{sz+s-1}{sz+s}\right)\cdot\left(\frac{tz+t}{tz+t-1}\cdot\frac{tz+t-1}{tz+t-2}\cdot\dotso\cdot\frac{tz+1}{tz}\right)=1.$$Therefore, this works if and only if $a=b=1$ or ($a\nmid b$ and $b\nmid a$), I'm using parentheses because the logic expression order isn't very clear. This translates to $n=k$ or ($n\nmid k$ and $k\nmid n$). QED.
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Mogmog8
1080 posts
#27 • 1 Y
Y by centslordm
We claim all $(n,k)$ that satisfy none or both of $n\mid k$ and $k\mid n$ work. Clearly, if $n\mid k$ or $k\mid n$ but $n\neq k$ implies $\tau(sn)\neq\tau(sk),$ and if $n=k,$ then $sn=sk.$

Suppose we have the prime factorizations $n=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}p_i^{\alpha_i},$ $m=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}p_i^{\beta_i},$ and $s=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}p_i^{\gamma_i-1},$ where for at least one $i$ we have $\alpha_i>\beta_i$ and for at least one $i$ we have $\alpha_i<\beta_i.$ Define $\delta_i$ as $\alpha_i-\beta_i$ and assume WLOG that for $1\le i\le k-1,$ we have $\delta_i>0,$ for $k\le i\le \ell-1$ we have $\delta_i<0,$ and for $i\ge\ell,$ we have $\delta_i=0.$ Finally, let $K_1=\delta_1+\dots+\delta_{k-1}$ and $K_2=|\delta_k|+\dots+|\delta_{\ell-1}|.$

Choose $\gamma_i=A-\beta_i+\delta_1+\dots+\delta_{i-1}$ for $1\le i\le k-1$ where $A$ is a sufficiently large multiple of $K_1.$ Then, $$\prod_{i=1}^{k-1}\frac{\alpha_i+\gamma_i}{\beta_i+\gamma_i}=\prod_{i=1}^{k-1}\frac{A+\delta_1+\dots+\delta_i}{A+\delta_1+\dots+\delta_{i-1}}=\frac{A+K_1}{A}.$$Choose $\gamma_i=AK_2/K_1-\alpha_i+|\delta_k|+\dots+|\delta_{i-1}|$ for $k\le i\le \ell-1$ for $$\prod_{i=k}^{\ell-1}\frac{\alpha_i+\gamma_i}{\beta_i+\gamma_i}=\prod_{i=k}^{\ell-1}\frac{AK_2/K_1+|\delta_k|+\dots+|\delta_{i-1}|}{AK_2/K_1+|\delta_k|+\dots+|\delta_i|}=\frac{AK_2/K_1}{AK_2/K_1+K_2}.$$Hence, $$\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}\frac{\alpha_i+\gamma_i}{\beta_i+\gamma_i}=\frac{A+K_1}{A}\cdot\frac{AK_2}{AK_2+K_1K_2}=1,$$as desired. $\square$
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bobthegod78
2982 posts
#28
Y by
We claim it is possible when either $m=n$ or $m\nmid n$ and $ n \nmid m.$ If $m\mid n$ or $n\mid m$ and $m\neq n$, it is obvious why it doesn't work. Let $m = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{a_i}, n = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{b_i}, s = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{c_i}.$ We want to show that it is possible to choose $c_i$ such that $$\prod_{i=1}^k \frac{a_i + c_i+1}{b_i + c_i + 1} = 1.$$Without loss of generality, say that $b_1> a_1, b_2>a_2, \cdots, b_j>a_j$ and $b_{j+1} < a_{j+1}, b_{j+2}<a_{j+2}, \cdots, b_k < a_k$ for some $j$. Then choose $c_i$ such that there exists some arbitrarily large $X$ such that for $1\leq i \leq j$, $\frac{a_i+c_i+1}{b_i+c_i+1} = \frac{jX+i-1}{jX+i}$ and for $j+1 \leq i \leq k$, $\frac{a_i+c_i+1}{b_i+c_i+1} = \frac{(k-j)X + i - j}{(k-j)X + i-j-1}.$ Then $$\prod_{i=1}^k \frac{a_i+c_i+1}{b_i+c_i+1} = \prod_{i=1}^j \frac{a_i+c_i+1}{b_i+c_i+1}\prod_{i=j+1}^k \frac{a_i+c_i+1}{b_i+c_i+1} = \frac{X}{X+1} \cdot \frac{X+1}{X} =1.$$
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HamstPan38825
8857 posts
#29
Y by
The answer is all $m, n$ such that $m \nmid n$ and $n \nmid m$. Obviously, these cases fail. Now, it suffices to show that we can choose nonnegative integers $k_1, k_2, \dots, k_n$ such that $$\prod_{i=1}^n \frac{k_i}{k_i+e_i} = 1$$for any integers $e_1, e_2, \dots, e_n$ that are not all the same sign. This is achievable by choosing some constants $\alpha_1, \alpha_2, \dots, \alpha_n$ such that the equations $$\alpha_i(k_i+e_i) = \alpha_{i+1}k_{i+1}$$are true for all $1 \leq i \leq n$, where indices are cyclic. By summing all the equations, it is sufficient for these $\alpha_i$ to satisfy $$\sum_{i=1}^n \alpha_i e_i = 0.$$To construct this, without loss of generality let $\sum_{i=1}^n e_i$ be positive. (If it is zero, then take all the $\alpha_i$ to be equal), and furthermore suppose $e_n$ is negative. Then, set $\alpha_1 = \alpha_2 = \cdots = \alpha_{n-1} = \alpha$, such that $$\alpha_n = \frac{\alpha\sum_{i=1}^{n-1} e_i}{-e_n}.$$By choosing $e_n \mid \alpha$, we can guarantee that all the $\alpha_i$ are positive integers. Observe that this means that all the $k_i$ for $1 \leq i \leq n-1$ can be expressed in the form $k_1+c$ for some integer $c$, so by choosing $k_1$ sufficiently large, they can all be positive integers. Finally, the equation $$\alpha(k_{n-1} + e_{n-1}) = \alpha_n k_n$$will yield a positive integer solution for $k_n$ as long as $$\alpha_n \mid k_{n-1} + e_{n-1} = k_1+c+e_{n-1}.$$Thus, picking $k_1 \equiv -c \pmod {\alpha_n}$ suffices. As a result, such $k_i$ must exist, so we are done.
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cursed_tangent1434
569 posts
#31 • 1 Y
Y by Shreyasharma
Let
\begin{align*}
    m = p_1^{a_1}\dots p_k^{a_k}\\
    n = p_1^{b_1}\dots p_k^{b^k}\\
    s = p_1^{c_1}\dots p_k^{c^k}
\end{align*}If $sm$ and $sn$ have an equal number of divisors note that,
$$(a_1+c_1+1)\dots (a_k+c_k+1) = (b_1+c_1+1)\dots(b_k+c_k+1)$$which implies $$S=\frac{a_1+c_1+1}{b_1+c_1+1}\dots \frac{a_k+b_k+1}{a_k+c_k+1}=1$$Then, notice that $b_i+c_i+1 = a_i+c_i+1-(a_i-b_i)$. Then, letting $|a_i-b_i|=d_i$ and $a_i+c_i+1=e_id_i$. We have that
$$S = \prod_{i=1}^k \frac{d_ie_i}{d_ie_i \pm d_i}=\prod_{i=1}^k \frac{e_i}{e_i \pm 1}$$where the plus or minus is decided based on which of $a_i$ and $b_i$ is greater.
If all of these are pluses, then the product will be strictly less than 1. If all of them are minuses, then the product will be strictly greater than 1.
\begin{claim*}
If one of them is $+$ and the other is $-$, then a valid solution exists.
\end{claim*}
Notice that then, we have
$$S = \frac{e_1}{e_1+1}\frac{e_2}{e_2-1}\dots \frac{e_k}{e_k \pm 1}$$Now, we have two possible cases,
\textit{Case 1 :} $$\frac{e_1}{e_1+1}\frac{e_2}{e_2-1} = \frac{p}{q}>1$$Then, $\frac{q}{p}< 1$, then we take all $e_i \pm 1$ to have $+$. Next say that $\frac{q}{p}$ can be written as the product of some $k-2$ rational numbers taking the numerator and denominator as required.
The other case is similar.
Thus, if $v_p(m)>v_p(n)$ for some prime $p$ in $m,n$ and $v_q(m)<v_q(n)$ for another prime $q \neq p$, there exists some $s$ which satisfies the required conclusion.
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joshualiu315
2513 posts
#32
Y by
Assume $m \neq n$ from now on because otherwise you can take any $s$. We claim that the answer is all pairs $(m,n)$ such that $m \nmid n$ and $n \nmid m$. Clearly, if $m \mid n$ or $n \mid m$, there exist no value of $s$. We will prove that otherwise, there must exist a positive integer $s$.


Claim: If $\alpha > \beta \ge 0$ are integers then for any $M \ge \beta+1$ there exists a positive integer $x$ such that

\[ \frac{\alpha+x+1}{\beta+x+1} = \frac{M+1}{M}. \]
Proof: Setting $x = M\alpha-(M+1)\beta+1$ works. $\square$


Now, suppose for primes we write

\begin{align*} 	m &= p_1^{\alpha_1} p_2^{\alpha_2} \dots p_k^{\alpha_k} 		q_1^{\gamma_1} \dots q_\ell^{\gamma_\ell} \\ 	n &= p_1^{\beta_1} p_2^{\beta_2} \dots p_k^{\beta_k} 		q_1^{\delta_1} \dots q_\ell^{\delta_\ell} \end{align*}
where $\alpha_i > \beta_i$ and $\gamma_j < \delta_j$. We have disregarded any $p$ for which $\nu_p(m) = \nu_p(n)$, since these do not affect the proof in any way.

Let $T$ be a large integer exceeding $\max(\alpha_i, \beta_j)$. We can pick $x_i$ for $i=1,\dots,k$ such that

\[ 	\prod_i \frac{x_i + \alpha_i + 1}{x_i + \beta_i + 1} 	= \frac{kT+1}{kT} \cdot \frac{kT+2}{kT+1} \cdot \dots 	\cdot \frac{kT+k}{kT+(k-1)} 	= \frac{kT+k}{kT} = \frac{T+1}{T}. \]
Similarly we can pick $y_i$ for $i=1,\dots,\ell$ such that

\[ 	\prod_j \frac{y_j + \delta_j + 1}{y_j + \gamma_j + 1} 	= \frac{\ell T+1}{\ell T} \cdot \frac{\ell T+2}{\ell T+1} \cdot \dots 	\cdot \frac{\ell T+\ell }{\ell T+(\ell -1)} 	= \frac{\ell T+\ell }{\ell T} = \frac{T+1}{T}. \]
Then if we let $s = \prod_i p_i^{x_i} \prod_i q_i^{y_i}$, we have

\[ 	\frac{d(sm)}{d(sn)} 	= \prod_i \frac{x_i + \alpha_i + 1}{x_i + \beta_i + 1} 	\prod_j \frac{y_j + \gamma_j + 1}{y_j + \delta_j + 1} 	= \frac{T+1}{T} \cdot \frac{T}{T+1} = 1 \]
as desired. $\square$
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mannshah1211
651 posts
#33 • 1 Y
Y by GeoKing
For mindset, replace $k$ by $m$. The answer is all $m, n$ with $m \nmid n$, $n \nmid m$. Note that the only ``relevant" primes $p$ are the ones that divide at least one of $m, n$; otherwise they contribute exactly the same multiple to both $d(sn)$ and $d(sm)$, so it suffices to have $s$ divisible by only those primes. Let's assume there are $k$ primes dividing at least one of $m, n$. Let $m = p_1^{\alpha_1}p_2^{\alpha_2}\cdots p_k^{\alpha_k}$, $n = p_1^{\beta_1}p_2^{\beta_2} \cdots p_k^{\beta_k}$. Then, it suffices to exist a solution $(x_1, x_2, \cdots, x_k)$ to the equation $$\prod_{i = 1}^{k} \left(\frac{\alpha_i + x_i}{\beta_i + x_i}\right) = 1.$$Note that $\alpha_i = \beta_i$ doesn't matter, since they don't change the product anyway, so let's split all of $i \in \{1, 2, \cdots, k \}$ with $\alpha_i \ne \beta_i$ into two groups: $P$, with $\alpha_i > \beta_i$, and $N$ with $\alpha_i < \beta_i$. Let $P = \{p_1, p_2, \cdots, p_{|P|} \}$ and $N = \{n_1, n_2, \cdots, n_{|N|}\}$. So, our product transforms into $$\prod_{i \in P} \left(\frac{\alpha_i + x_i}{\beta_i + x_i}\right) \cdot \prod_{i \in N} \left(\frac{\alpha_i + x_i}{\beta_i + x_i}\right) = 1.$$Now, this transforms to $$\prod_{i \in P} \left(\frac{\alpha_i + x_i}{\beta_i + x_i}\right) = \prod_{i \in N} \left(\frac{\alpha_i + x_i}{\beta_i + x_i}\right),$$now we aim to make this ``telescope", here's how: First, pick some $x_{p_1}$. Then, we will pick inductively, in order for any $2 \le i \le |P|$, $x_{p_i}$ such that $\alpha_{p_{i - 1}} + x_{p_{i - 1}} = \beta_{p_i} + x_{p_i}$. Then, our LHS becomes $\left(\frac{V + x_{p_1}}{\beta_{p_1} + x_{p_1}} \right)$, where $V = \alpha_{p_1} + (\alpha_{p_2} - \beta_{p_2}) + \cdots + \alpha_{p_{|P|}}$. Similarly picking $y_i$ for the RHS such that it telescopes as well, we have $\left(\frac{W + x_{n_1}}{\alpha_{n_1} + x_{n_1}}\right)$, where $W = \beta_{n_1} +  (\beta_{n_2} - \alpha_{n_2}) + \cdots + \beta_{n_{|N|}}$ . So, it suffices for $\frac{V - \beta_{p_1}}{\beta_{p_1} + x_{p_1}} = \frac{W - \alpha_{n_1}}{\alpha_{n_1} + x_{n_1}}$, it is obvious that there exist infinitely many solutions $(x_{p_1}, x_{n_1})$ to this; just pick any one large enough for every $x_i$ to be positive, and we're done.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by mannshah1211, Jan 3, 2024, 11:37 AM
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rstenetbg
72 posts
#34
Y by
If $m=n$, any $s$ works so from now on assume WLOG that $n>m.$

I claim the answer is all pairs $(m,n)$ for which $m\nmid n$ and $n\nmid m$.

Firstly, we will show that there is no solution for $s$ if $m\mid n$. Indeed, if $m\mid n$, then $sm\mid sn$. This means that $\tau(sm)<\tau(sn)$.

From now on assume $m\nmid n$. Let $p_1,p_2,\dots p_k$ be all prime divisors of $mn$. Hence, $$n=\prod_{i=1}^kp_i^{\alpha_i} \hspace{3mm}\text{and}\hspace{3mm} m=\prod_{i=1}^kp_i^{\beta_i}.$$We will search $s$ to be in the form $$s=\prod_{i=1}^kp_i^{\gamma_i},$$where we will choose $\gamma_i$ to satisfy $\tau(sm)=\tau(sn).$ Now we have $$\frac{\tau(sn)}{\tau(sm)}=\prod_{i=1}^k\frac{\alpha_i+\gamma_i+1}{\beta_i+\gamma_i+1}.$$Notice that if $\alpha_i=\beta_i$ for some $i$, then the "$i$-th" fraction will be equal to $1$ and will not change the product, so assume that $\alpha_i\neq\beta_i$ for all $i$.


Let us prove the following claim.


Claim: Let $\alpha>\beta$. Then, if $M$ is any integer such that $M\ge\beta+1$, there exists an integer $\gamma$, for which

$$\frac{1+\alpha+\gamma}{1+\beta+\gamma}=\frac{M+1}{M}.$$
Proof: Indeed, the condition above is equivalent to $$\gamma = M(\alpha-\beta)-(\beta+1),$$so we are done.


WLOG let $\alpha_i>\beta_i$ for $i=1,2\dots,r$ for some natural $r$ and let $\alpha_j<\beta_j$ for $j=r+1,r+2,\dots,k$. Now pick a sufficiently large integer $T$. Then from the claim we have $$\prod_{i=1}^r\frac{1+\alpha_i+\gamma_i}{1+\beta_i+\gamma_i}=\frac{rT+1}{rT}\cdot\frac{rT+2}{rT+1}\dots\frac{rT+r}{rT+r-1}=\frac{T+1}{T}.$$Similarly, we obtain $$\prod_{i=r+1}^k\frac{1+\beta_i+\gamma_i}{1+\alpha_i+\gamma_i}=\frac{(k-r)T+1}{(k-r)T}\cdot\frac{(k-r)T+2}{(k-r)T+1}\dots\frac{(k-r)T+(k-r)}{(k-r)T+k-r-1}=\frac{T+1}{T}.$$
Multiplying these two gives that $$\frac{\tau(sn)}{\tau(sm)}=\frac{T+1}{T}\cdot\frac{T}{T+1}=1,$$so we are done.
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dolphinday
1318 posts
#35 • 1 Y
Y by cursed_tangent1434
Let $m$, $n$, and $p$ be in the form
\[ m = \prod_i^k p_i^{a_i}\]\[n = \prod_i^k p_i^{b_i}\]\[s = \prod_i^k p_i^{c_i}\]with $a_i$ or $b_i$ possibly equaling $0$ but not both.
Notice that if $m | n$ or vice versa with $m \neq n$ then obviously $sm$ and $sn$ can't have the same number of divisors.
If $m = n$ then $s = 1434$ works.
Now if $a_i = b_i$ for any $i$ the we can effectively remove it from the sequence for obvious reasons.
We can also let $\alpha_i$ be $a_i$ but ordered least to greatest with $\beta_i$ being defined similarly for $b_i$.
Let $p$ be an integer so that $\alpha_p < \beta_p$ but $\alpha_{p+1} > b_{p+1}$.
So then we can set $c_i$ so that for some sufficiently large integer $\mathcal{Q}$ we have
\[\prod_{i=1}^{p} \frac{\alpha_i + c_i + 1}{\beta_i + c_i + 1} = \prod_{i=1}^{p} \frac{p\mathcal{Q} + i - 1}{p\mathcal{Q} + i} = \frac{\mathcal{Q}}{\mathcal{Q} + 1}\]and
\[\prod_{i={p+1}}^{k} \frac{\alpha_i + c_i + 1}{\beta_i + c_i + 1} = \prod_{i=p+1}^{k} \frac{(k-p)\mathcal{Q} + i - p}{(k-p)\mathcal{Q} + i - p - 1} = \frac{\mathcal{Q} + 1}{\mathcal{Q}}\]so we get that $\prod_i \frac{a_i + c_i + 1}{b_i + c_i + 1} = 1$ as desired.
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ezpotd
1251 posts
#36
Y by
I claim the answer is only pairs $(n,k)$ such that $n$ does not divide $k$ and $k$ does not divide $n$.

Proof claimed pairs work: Let $n = p_1^{a_1} \cdots p_y^{a_y} q_1^{c_1} \cdots q_z^{c_z}, k = p_1^{b_1} \cdots p_y^{q_y} q_1^{d_1} \cdots q_z^{d_z}$, let $s = p_1^{e_1} \cdots p_y^{e_y} q_1 \cdots q_z^{f_z}$, where $a_i \ge b_i$ and $c_i \le d_i$. Then we desire to prove $\prod \frac{e_i + a_i + 1}{e_i + b_i + 1} = \prod \frac{f_i + d_i + 1}{f_i + c_i + 1}$. Choosing such $e_i, f_i$ is easy. We claim that we can achieve each side of the product being $\frac{x + 1}{x}$ for sufficiently large $x$. Each individual term in the product can hit $\frac{m + 1}{m}$ for all sufficiently large integers $m$, so we can chain and write the left side as $\frac{m + y}{m}$, so we can achieve $\frac{x + 1}{x}$ for all sufficiently large $x$, finishing.

Proof nothing else works: Clearly all divisors of one of the numbers are all divisors of the other, and since one number is larger it has more divisors.
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by ezpotd, Sep 23, 2024, 3:34 PM
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eg4334
617 posts
#37
Y by
Needed to use hint :|
The answer is all $m, n$ such that one does not divide the other (except for $m=n$ ofc).

Let $v_{p_i}(m)=e_i, v_{p_i}(n)=f_i, v_{p_i}(s)=g_i$. Then we want $$\prod \frac{e_i+g_i+1}{f_i + g_i+1} = 1$$Now when all $e_i \leq f_i$ or vice versa without them all being equal it is obviously not possible because every term is $\leq 1$ so the product cannot possibly be $1$ without them all being equal. Call a factor of that product down if $e_i \leq f_i$ and up if $e_i > f_i$.
Claim: For up factors we can choose a sufficient $g$ such that it is in the form $\frac{M+1}{M}$, and simiarly for down factors.
Proof: You can just find a solution of the linear equation that follows.

If there are $x$ up factors and $y$ down factors then we can group all of them together to telescope the product into $$\frac{M_1}{M_1+x} \frac{M_2+y}{M_2}$$for any integers $M_1, M_2$ by our claim. Setting $M_1 = y, M_2=x$ clearly works so we are done.
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by eg4334, Nov 15, 2024, 2:11 AM
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EVKV
43 posts
#38
Y by
Simplest solution
By that I mean non rigorous
Infinite
d(n) = d(k)
n = p1^e1 •p2^e2 • ....... • pz^ez
k = g1^f1 •g2^f2 • ....... • gz^fz

Here not all gi^fi = pi^ei

If s does not divide n,k
Then d(sn) = d(sk)

If s | k or n or both
Then if
s = x1^w1 • ........• xh^wh
Some of xi will match with pi
These same xi will match with gi

Therefore there will be infinite such numbers
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by EVKV, Nov 24, 2024, 6:15 AM
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Sedro
5819 posts
#40 • 1 Y
Y by alexanderhamilton124
I was starting to run of variable names :|

Replace $(n,k)$ by $(a,b)$ and $s$ by $t$. We claim that there exist a positive integer $t$ satisfying $\tau(ta)=\tau(tb)$ if and only if $a \nmid b$ and $b\nmid a$. If $a\mid b$, since $a\ne b$, $ta$ is a proper divisor of $tb$. Hence, $\tau(ta) < \tau(tb)$, and no such $t$ exists. By symmetry, the case where $b\mid a$ is analogous, so we now show that if $a \nmid b$ and $b\nmid a$, then there is some $t$ such that $\tau(ta)=\tau(tb)$.

We first introduce some variables. Let $a=p_1^{e_1}\cdots p_r^{e_r}o_1^{c_1}\cdots o_u^{c_u}$ and $b=q_1^{f_1}\cdots q_s^{f_s}o_1^{d_1}\cdots o_u^{d_u}$, where $r$, $s$, and $u$ are positive integers, $e_1,\dots, e_r, f_1, \dots, f_s, c_1, \dots, c_u, d_1, \dots, d_u$ are positive integers, and $p_1,\dots, p_r, q_1, \dots, q_s, o_1, \dots, o_u$ are distinct primes. Then, let $t = p_1^{g_1-1}\cdots p_r^{g_r-1}q_1^{h_1-1}\cdots q_s^{h_s-1}o_1^{k_1-1}\cdots o_u^{k_u-1}$, where $g_1,\dots, g_r, h_1, \dots, h_s, k_1, \dots, k_u$ are positive integers.

In order to have $\tau(ta)=\tau(tb)$, we must have \begin{align*} ((e_1+g_1)\cdots (e_r+g_r)) \cdot (h_1 \cdots h_s) \cdot ((c_1+k_1)\cdots (c_u+k_u)) &= \\ ((f_1+h_1)\cdots (f_s+h_s)) \cdot (g_1 \cdots g_r)\cdot  ((d_1+k_1)\cdots (d_u+k_u)).\end{align*}Let $A$ be the set of ordered pairs $(c_i,d_i)$ where $c_i > d_i$, and let $B$ be the set of ordered pairs $(c_i,d_i)$ where $c_i<d_i$. If $c_i = d_i$, the terms $c_i+k_i$ and $d_i+k_i$ cancel in the above equation, and we can ignore the values of $c_i$ and $d_i$. Now, for all $(c_i,d_i)\in A$, let $k_i = (c_i-d_i)v_i - d_i$, where every $v_i$ is a positive integer, and for all $(c_i,d_i)\in B$, let $k_i = (d_i-c_i)w_i - c_i$, where every $w_i$ is a positive integer. Also, for every valid $i$, let $g_i = x_ie_i$ for some positive integer $x_i$, and for every valid $i$, let $h_i = y_ih_i$. The above equation can now be rearranged as \[\left(\prod_{i=1}^r \frac{x_i+1}{x_i} \right)\left(\prod_{(c_i,d_i)\in A} \frac{v_i+1}{v_i}\right) = \left( \prod_{i=1}^s \frac{y_i+1}{y_i}\right)\left(\prod_{(c_i,d_i)\in B} \frac{w_i+1}{w_i}\right).\]Call a positive rational number that can be written in the form $\tfrac{n+1}{n}$ for a positive integer $n$ tight. To finish the problem, note that it suffices to prove that for any two positive integers $N_1$ and $N_2$, we can find $N_1$ tight numbers that have some product $P$, and $N_2$ tight numbers that have the same product $P$. This is because we can let each $x_i$, $y_i$, $v_i$, and $w_i$ be any positive integer.

To do this, we claim that any tight number can be written as the product of $m$ tight numbers, where $m$ is any positive integer. The claim is trivial when $m=1$, and for any $m>1$, consider \[\frac{n+1}{n} = \prod_{i=0}^{m-1} \frac{mn+i+1}{mn+i},\]which proves the claim. Now, pick some arbitrary tight number, and express it as a product of $r+|A|$ tight numbers and as a product of $s+|B|$ tight numbers. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by Sedro, Dec 28, 2024, 5:18 AM
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smileapple
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If $n\mid k$ or $k\mid n$, clearly $s$ cannot exist. Conversely, we show that if $n\nmid k$ and $k\nmid n$, then it is possible to construct such a value of $s$.

Let $a_1,a_2,\dots,a_m,b_1,b_2,\dots,b_m$ be nonnegative integers for which $n=\prod_{i=1}^mp_i^{a_i}$ and $k=\prod_{i=1}^mp_i^{b_i}$, where the $p_i$ are distinct primes. Then the existence of $s$ is equivalent to finding positive integers $c_1,c_2,\dots,c_m$ for which \[\prod_{i=1}^m\frac{a_i+c_i}{b_i+c_i}=1.\]
Assume without loss of generality that $a_i<b_i$ if $1\le i\le u$, and $a_i>b_i$ otherwise. This is justified as the $\frac{a_i+c_i}{b_i+c_i}$ well always cancel if $a_i=b_i$ for some index $i$. Since $n\nmid k$ and $k\nmid n$, the value of $u$ is well-defined. Then for each $u\in\{2,\dots,m\}\setminus\{u+1\}$ set $c_i=c_{i-1}+b_{i-1}-a_i$. Set $X=b_1+\sum_{i=2}^u(b_i-a_i)$ and $Y=b_{u+1}+\sum_{i=2}^u(b_i-a_i)$, with $Y$ possibly negative. Then we have \[\prod_{i=1}^m\frac{a_i+c_i}{b_i+c_i}=\left(\frac{a_1+c_1}{X+c_1}\right)\left(\frac{a_{u+1}+c_{u+1}}{Y+c_{u+1}}\right).\]We have $a_1<X$ and $Y<a_{u+1}$, and setting this to $1$ reduces to an equation that admits an infinite number of solutions across the positive integers, as desired. $\blacksquare$
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Batzorig
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#42
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didnt solve it
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Saucepan_man02
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#43
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Nice problem (replace $k$ with $m$):

Storage
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akliu
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#44
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The answer is all pairs $(m, n)$ such that $m \nmid n$ and $n \nmid m$, unless $m = n$. The proof of this result can be broken down into two main steps: proving that all claimed pairs $(m, n)$ satisfy the condition, and proving that all pairs $(m, n)$ that should not satisfy the condition do not satisfy the condition.

Denote $m = p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\dots$, $n = p_1^{b_1}p_2^{b_2}\dots$, and $s = p_1^{c_1}p_2^{c_2}\dots$ where $p_1$, $p_2$, $\dots$ are prime numbers.

Claim: All $(m, n)$ such that $m \mid n$ or $n \mid m$ do not satisfy the condition, except when $m=n$.

Proof: Without loss of generality, assume that $m \mid n$ and $m \neq n$. We then have $b_i+c_i+1 \geq a_i+c_i+1$ for all $i$. This in particular implies $(b_1+c_1+1)(b_2+c_2+1)\dots \geq (a_1+c_1+1)(a_2+c_2+1)\dots$, where equality is attained only when $m = n$. When $m = n$, the condition is trivially satisfied; $sm$ is equal to $sn$, and clearly, $sm$ clearly has the same number of divisors as itself. If $sm \neq sn$, there is an inequality, and $sn$ will always have more divisors than $sm$ for all $s$. $\square$

Now, we want to prove that all pairs $(m, n)$ that we claimed to satisfy the condition satisfy the condition.

Claim: All pairs $(m, n)$ that we claimed satisfy the condition do satisfy the condition.

Proof:
To prove this, we want to prove that we can select the values of $\nu_{p_i}(s)$ such that the following equation holds:

\begin{align*}
        \prod_i(a_i+c_i+1) = \prod_i(b_i+c_i+1)
    \end{align*}
For all primes $p_k$ such that $\nu_{p_k}(m) = \nu_{p_k}(n)$, we can eliminate their factor from both sides of the equation. Since $m \nmid n$ and $n \nmid m$, that means that there exists at least one prime $p_i$ where $(a_i+c_i+1) > (b_i+c_i+1)$, and at least one prime $p_j$ where $(a_j+c_j+1) < (b_j+c_j+1)$. Say there exists $x$ primes of the first kind, and $y$ primes of the second kind. Our product is equivalent to the following:

\begin{align*}
        \prod_i \frac{a_i+c_i+1}{b_i+c_i+1} = \prod_j \frac{b_j+c_j+1}{a_j+c_j+1}
    \end{align*}
Consider when $a_i+c_i+1 > b_i+c_i+1$ for some $i$. We can always choose some $c_i$ such that $\frac{a_i+c_i+1}{b_i+c_i+1} = \frac{M+1}{M}$ for some $M$: Set $c_i = M(a_i-b_i)-b_i-1$, which gives us that exact fraction. On the LHS of our product there are $x$ fractions, and on the RHS there are $y$ fractions. Since we can choose desired $c_i$ and $c_j$ to turn these fractions into any value of the form $\frac{M+1}{M}$, we select specific values of $M$ ranging from $x$ to $2x-1$ and $y$ to $2y-1$, such that we can choose some arbitrary value $s$ to satsify the following equation:

\begin{align*}
        \prod_i \frac{a_i+c_i+1}{b_i+c_i+1} &= \prod_j \frac{b_j+c_j+1}{a_j+c_j+1}\\
        \frac{x+1}{x} \cdot \frac{x+2}{x+1} \dots \frac{2x}{2x-1} &= \frac{y+1}{y} \cdot \frac{y+2}{y+1} \dots \frac{2y}{2y-1}\\
        \frac{2x}{x} &= \frac{2y}{y}\\
        2 &= 2
    \end{align*}Since the equation of products is satisfied, we have proven that there exist some choice of $\nu_{p_i}(s)$ for all $p_i$ such that there exists an $s$ satisfying our condition for our given pair $(m, n)$.
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