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k a March Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Mar 2, 2025
March is the month for State MATHCOUNTS competitions! Kudos to everyone who participated in their local chapter competitions and best of luck to all going to State! Join us on March 11th for a Math Jam devoted to our favorite Chapter competition problems! Are you interested in training for MATHCOUNTS? Be sure to check out our AMC 8/MATHCOUNTS Basics and Advanced courses.

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Do you have plans this summer? There are so many options to fit your schedule and goals whether attending a summer camp or taking online classes, it can be a great break from the routine of the school year. Check out our summer courses at AoPS Online, or if you want a math or language arts class that doesn’t have homework, but is an enriching summer experience, our AoPS Virtual Campus summer camps may be just the ticket! We are expanding our locations for our AoPS Academies across the country with 15 locations so far and new campuses opening in Saratoga CA, Johns Creek GA, and the Upper West Side NY. Check out this page for summer camp information.

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following events:
[list][*]March 5th (Wednesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, HCSSiM Math Jam 2025. Amber Verser, Assistant Director of the Hampshire College Summer Studies in Mathematics, will host an information session about HCSSiM, a summer program for high school students.
[*]March 6th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar on Math Competitions from elementary through high school. Join us for an enlightening session that demystifies the world of math competitions and helps you make informed decisions about your contest journey.
[*]March 11th (Tuesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, 2025 MATHCOUNTS Chapter Discussion MATH JAM. AoPS instructors will discuss some of their favorite problems from the MATHCOUNTS Chapter Competition. All are welcome!
[*]March 13th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar about Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus. Transform your summer into an unforgettable learning adventure! From elementary through high school, we offer dynamic summer camps featuring topics in mathematics, language arts, and competition preparation - all designed to fit your schedule and ignite your passion for learning.[/list]
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0 replies
1 viewing
jlacosta
Mar 2, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
Posting Guidelines
Update on Basic Forum Rules
What belongs on this forum?
How do I write a thorough solution?
How do I get a problem on the contest page?
How do I study for mathcounts?
Mathcounts FAQ and resources
Mathcounts and how to learn

As always, if you have any questions, you can PM me or any of the other Middle School Moderators. Once again, if you see spam, it would help a lot if you filed a report instead of responding :)

Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
Interesting inequality
sqing   5
N 2 minutes ago by sqing
Source: Own
Let $ a,b >0. $ Prove that
$$  \frac{1}{\frac{a}{a+b}+\frac{a}{2b}} +\frac{1}{\frac{b}{a+b}+\frac{1}{2}} +\frac{a}{2b} \geq \frac{5}{2}  $$
5 replies
+1 w
sqing
Feb 26, 2025
sqing
2 minutes ago
sum of divisors nt
Soupboy0   0
10 minutes ago
Source: own
Let $\epsilon(n)$ denote the sum of the sum of the factors of all positive $\mathbb Z \le n$, for example, $\epsilon(5) $ is the sum of the factors of $5$ added to the sum of the factors of $4$ and so on until the sum of the factors of $1$, which would be $(1+5)+(1+2+4)+(1+3)+(1+2)+(1) = 21$. Let $M(n)$ denote $\sum_{i=1}^{n} n \pmod{i}$. Show that $\epsilon(n) + M(n) = n^2$ or find a counterexample
0 replies
Soupboy0
10 minutes ago
0 replies
euler-totient function
Laan   2
N 10 minutes ago by Laan
Proof that there are infinitely many positive integers $n$ such that
$\varphi(n)<\varphi(n+1)<\varphi(n+2)$
2 replies
+1 w
Laan
Today at 7:13 AM
Laan
10 minutes ago
Three variable equations
gpen1000   1
N 12 minutes ago by fruitmonster97
1. For integers $x$, $y$, and $z$ such that $\frac{\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{y}} = z$, find $\frac{\sqrt{z}}{\sqrt{x}}$ in terms of $x$, $y$, and $z$.

2. For integers $x$, $y$, and $z$ such that $x = y - 1$ and $z = y + 1$, prove that $y^3 = xyz + y$.
1 reply
gpen1000
an hour ago
fruitmonster97
12 minutes ago
Why was this poll blocked
jkim0656   11
N 13 minutes ago by skronkmonster
Hey AoPS ppl!
I made a poll about Pi vs Tau over here:
https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c3h3527460
But after a few days it got blocked but i don't get why?
how is this harmful or different from other polls?
It really wasn't that harmful or popular i got to say tho... :noo:
11 replies
jkim0656
Mar 18, 2025
skronkmonster
13 minutes ago
Prime for square numbers
giangtruong13   0
14 minutes ago
Source: City&rsquo;s Specialized Math Examination
Given that $a,b$ are natural numbers satisfy that: $\frac{a^3}{a+b}$ and $\frac{b^3}{a+b}$ are prime numbers. Prove that $$a^2+3ab+3a+b+1$$is a perfect squared number
0 replies
giangtruong13
14 minutes ago
0 replies
How important is math "intuition"
Dream9   15
N 14 minutes ago by skronkmonster
When I see problems now, they usually fall under 3 categories: easy, annoying, and cannot solve. Over time, more problems become easy, but I don't think I'm learning anything "new" so is higher level math like AMC 10 more about practice, so you know what to do when you see a problem? Of course, there's formulas for some problems but when reading a lot of solutions I didn't see many weird formulas being used and it was just the way to solve the problem was "odd".
15 replies
Dream9
Mar 19, 2025
skronkmonster
14 minutes ago
MC nationals 2023 sprint Q28
Soupboy0   5
N 18 minutes ago by Bummer12345
What common fraction is equivalent to the expression shown?

$\frac{\frac{1}{2021 \cdot 2022} + \frac{2}{2019  \cdot 2021} + \frac{3}{2017 \cdot 2020} + ... + \frac{1010}{3 \cdot 1013} + \frac{1011}{1 \cdot 1012}}{\frac{2022}{1011}+\frac{2022}{1010}+\frac{2022}{1009}+...+\frac{2022}{2}+\frac{2022}{1}}$?

can someone please help me
5 replies
Soupboy0
Mar 12, 2025
Bummer12345
18 minutes ago
MATHCOUNTS on ESPN
rrusczyk   26
N 23 minutes ago by mdk2013
ESPN noon EST - the Countdown round of Nationals.

(Disclaimer: yours truly is an 'analyst' for the broadcast.)
26 replies
rrusczyk
May 27, 2003
mdk2013
23 minutes ago
Mathcounts STRATEGIES
Existing_Human1   18
N 24 minutes ago by Soupboy0
Hello commuinty!

I am wondering what your strategies are for mathcounts. Please note I do not mean tips. These can be for all rounds, but please specify. BTW, this is for state, but it can apply to any competition.

Ex:
Team - sit in a specific order
Target - do the easiest first
Sprint - go as fast as possible

I just made up the examples, and you will probably have better strategies, so if you want to help out, please do
18 replies
Existing_Human1
Yesterday at 7:27 PM
Soupboy0
24 minutes ago
Basic Maths
JetFire008   4
N an hour ago by kamuii
Find $x$: $\sqrt{9}x=18$
4 replies
JetFire008
2 hours ago
kamuii
an hour ago
state mathcounts colorado
aoh11   58
N 2 hours ago by mickieani
I have state mathcounts tomorrow. What should I do to get prepared btw, and what are some tips for doing sprint and cdr?
58 replies
aoh11
Mar 15, 2025
mickieani
2 hours ago
squares in dots - MATHCOUNTS challenge problem
rrusczyk   6
N 4 hours ago by DhruvJha
. . . . .
. . . . .
. . . . .
. . . . .

(That should be a 4x5 grid of dots.) Assuming each point is exactly one unit from its nearest neighbors, how many squares can be formed by connecting groups of four points?
6 replies
rrusczyk
May 27, 2003
DhruvJha
4 hours ago
a problem
Bummer12345   7
N Today at 2:45 AM by mathelvin
Alice and Bob play a game where Alice starts with $3$ MathJuice bottles and Bob starts with $2$ MathJuice bottles. An unfair coin is then flipped, with probability $\frac{2}{3}$ of landing heads. If the coin lands heads, Alice gives Bob a bottle; otherwise, Bob gives Alice a bottle. This process repeats until someone runs out of bottles.

(a): What is the probability that Bob will lose all of his bottles before Alice does?
(b): What is the expected number of times the coin has been flipped by the time the game ends?

Source: Own
7 replies
Bummer12345
Wednesday at 8:00 PM
mathelvin
Today at 2:45 AM
Numbering the players of a tournament
MellowMelon   11
N Mar 19, 2025 by quantam13
Source: USA TST 2009 #6
Let $ N > M > 1$ be fixed integers. There are $ N$ people playing in a chess tournament; each pair of players plays each other once, with no draws. It turns out that for each sequence of $ M + 1$ distinct players $ P_0, P_1, \ldots P_M$ such that $ P_{i - 1}$ beat $ P_i$ for each $ i = 1, \ldots, M$, player $ P_0$ also beat $ P_M$. Prove that the players can be numbered $ 1,2, \ldots, N$ in such a way that, whenever $ a \geq b + M - 1$, player $ a$ beat player $ b$.

Gabriel Carroll.
11 replies
MellowMelon
Jul 18, 2009
quantam13
Mar 19, 2025
Numbering the players of a tournament
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
Source: USA TST 2009 #6
The post below has been deleted. Click to close.
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MellowMelon
5850 posts
#1 • 6 Y
Y by anantmudgal09, Ankoganit, Tawan, Taha1381, Adventure10, Mango247
Let $ N > M > 1$ be fixed integers. There are $ N$ people playing in a chess tournament; each pair of players plays each other once, with no draws. It turns out that for each sequence of $ M + 1$ distinct players $ P_0, P_1, \ldots P_M$ such that $ P_{i - 1}$ beat $ P_i$ for each $ i = 1, \ldots, M$, player $ P_0$ also beat $ P_M$. Prove that the players can be numbered $ 1,2, \ldots, N$ in such a way that, whenever $ a \geq b + M - 1$, player $ a$ beat player $ b$.

Gabriel Carroll.
Z K Y
The post below has been deleted. Click to close.
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Little Gauss
200 posts
#2 • 14 Y
Y by toto1234567890, AdithyaBhaskar, McLaren, Tawan, MathbugAOPS, Taha1381, Mathematicsislovely, Purple_Planet, GuvercinciHoca, Adventure10, parola, MS_asdfgzxcvb, and 2 other users
I think this can be proved by following way;;
Consider the tournament result as a directed graph.
Note that every complete directed graph either has a full length cycle or can be divided into two sets $ A, B$ such that every edges between them are directed to $ B$. This can be proved by considering maximum cycle of the graph...
If we apply this lemma repeatedly, we can divide a complete directed graph $ G$ into some cycles $ A_{1}, A_{2}, \cdots , A_{n}$ such that if $ i < j$, every edges among $ A_{i}, A_{j}$ are directed to $ A_{j}$, so it is enough to prove that each cycles have length less than $ M + 1$. If it can, we can get a desired arrangement of $ G$ by aligning points like $ A_{1}, A_{2}, A_{3}, \cdots$ and each points in the same cycle by the reverse order of original cycle.
We'll prove that if there are no $ n$-cycle in a complete directed graph, any $ n + 1$-cycles also doesn't exist. if not so, let $ C$ be that cycle. Remove one point $ \{x\}$ in the $ C$. Applying the lemma to $ C/\{x\}$, we can divide it to $ A$, $ B$, which satisfies the fact mentioned above... because there are no full cycle. and by its definition, initial $ n + 1$-cycle should be in the form of $ x \rightarrow A \rightarrow B \rightarrow x$. Let $ a$ be the lastest point of $ A$ in the cycle. than the cycle would proceed as $ a \rightarrow b_{1} \rightarrow b_{2} \rightarrow \cdots$. However, there is also $ a \rightarrow b_{2}$, and this reduces the length of the cycle by 1. This contradicts the assumption...
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yulx
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#3 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Little Gauss wrote:
I think this can be proved by following way;;
Consider the tournament result as a directed graph.
We'll prove that if there are no $ n$-cycle in a complete directed graph, any $ n + 1$-cycles also doesn't exist. ...
Dear Little Gauss, nice solution! In fact there is always at least one chain passing all the points in a complete graph.Then by the lemma above we get the proof immediately. :)
This post has been edited 1 time. Last edited by yulx, May 26, 2020, 4:50 AM
Reason: Just improved grammar and formatting
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pi37
2079 posts
#4 • 7 Y
Y by v_Enhance, Ankoganit, Tawan, Chiaquinha, Adventure10, Mango247, MS_asdfgzxcvb
We prove the result by induction on $M$ and $N$. Notationally, we say $p_1>p_2$ if player $p_1$ beats player $p_2$.

Suppose that $M=2$. Then the relation between players is transitive, which easily implies that they can be uniquely ordered. Rigorously, take the player with the most wins, and note that by transitivity if any player beat the first, the second player would have strictly more wins. So there is an undefeated player, and the result follows by induction on the rest of the tournament.

Now suppose $M>2$. The condition is equivalent to there being no $M+1$ cycle. We now split up the proof into two cases.

Case 1: There is an $M$-cycle $v_1>v_2>\cdots > v_M>v_1$, denoted $C$, in the tournament. Consider some $w$ not in $C$. If $w>v_i$ for some $i$, then
\[
w>v_i>v_{i+1}>\cdots >v_{i-1}
\]This is a cycle of length $M+1$, where the indices are taken modulo $M$, so $w>v_{i-1}$. But from $w>v_i\implies w>v_{i-1}$ it easily follows that if $w>v_1$, then $w>v_i$ for all $i$. Similarly, if $w<v_1$, then $w<v_i$ for all $i$. Thus we can partition the tournament into sets $A,B,C$, where $A$ beats all members of $C$, $C$ beats all members of $B$, and $a+b+M=N$, where $a$ and $b$ are the sizes of $A$ and $B$. Now for any member $x$ of $A$ and any member $y$ of $B$, $x>v_1>v_2>\cdots >v_{m-1}>y$, so $x>y$.

We now assign the labels $\{1,\cdots b\}$ to $B$, $\{b+1,\cdots N-a\}$ to $C$, and $\{N-a+1,\cdots N\}$ to $A$. By the inductive hypothesis, we can assign some relative ordering of the labels in each set that is internally consistent with the desired property of the problem in both $A$ and $B$, and we can label $C$ arbitrarily in an internally consistent way, as long as the player labelled $M$ beats the player labelled $1$. Also, as all members of $A$ beat all members of $C$ which beat all members of $B$, the property $a\ge b+M-1\implies$ player $a$ beats $b$ is vacuously true between two members of any two of $A,B,C$. Thus we can construct a valid labelling.

Case 2: There is no $M$-cycle. Then by the inductive hypothesis on $M$, we can label the players in such a way that $a\ge b+M-2$ implies $a$ beats $b$, a strictly stronger condition than the one needed.
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Tanyingjie
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#5 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Dear Little Gauss,your soluntion is very nice.But actually we can't always divide a complete directed graph without a full length cycle into two sets A,B such that every edges between them are directed to B
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v_Enhance
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#6 • 9 Y
Y by Ankoganit, rkm0959, pifinity, Mathematicsislovely, v4913, wateringanddrowned, Chiaquinha, Adventure10, Mango247
Tanyingjie wrote:
But actually we can't always divide a complete directed graph without a full length cycle into two sets A,B such that every edges between them are directed to B

Yes you can. :)

Consider any maximal cycle $C$, say \[ v_1 \to v_2 \to \dots \to v_k \to v_1. \]By maximality, this means we cannot have $v_i \to w \to v_{i+1}$ for any $i$ and any vertex $w \notin C$. It follows that for any $w \notin C$, either
  • $v_i \to w$ for every $i$, in which case we say $w$ is weak, or
  • $w \to v_i$ for every $i$, in which case we say $w$ is strong.
It then follows that every strong vertex beats every weak vertex too (if $w$ is strong and $x$ is weak, then $w \to v_1 \to \dots \to v_k \to x$ is a path). Since $C$ wasn't the entire graph, there is either at least one strong or at least one weak vertex. Done.

[asy] size(6cm); dotfactor *= 1.5;

pair A = dir(90); pair B = dir(210); pair C = dir(330);

dot("$v_1$", A, A, red); dot("$v_2$", B, B, red); dot("$v_3$", C, C, red); draw(A--B, red, EndArrow, Margin(2,2)); draw(B--C, red, EndArrow, Margin(2,2)); draw(C--A, red, EndArrow, Margin(2,2));

draw(ellipse( (2.6,0.3), 0.6, 1.6), blue); draw(ellipse( (-2.6,0.3), 0.6, 1.6), blue); draw((1,0.3)--(2,0.3), blue+1, EndArrow, Margin(2,2)); draw((-2,0.3)--(-1,0.3), blue+1, EndArrow, Margin(2,2)); draw((-2.3,-1.2)--(2.3,-1.2), blue+dashed, EndArrow, Margin(2,2));

dot((2.8,0.7), blue); dot((2.7,1.2), blue); dot((2.5,0.1), blue); dot((-2.8,0.7), blue); dot((-2.7,-1.0), blue); dot((-2.3,0.1), blue); [/asy]

Incidentally, this is also the main idea underlying pi37's solution, which is the same as my own. Rather than taking $C$ to be a maximal cycle we take $C$ to be an $M$-cycle which also solves the problem.
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anantmudgal09
1979 posts
#7 • 4 Y
Y by Ankoganit, Tawan, Adventure10, Mango247
MellowMelon wrote:
Let $ N > M > 1$ be fixed integers. There are $ N$ people playing in a chess tournament; each pair of players plays each other once, with no draws. It turns out that for each sequence of $ M + 1$ distinct players $ P_0, P_1, \ldots P_M$ such that $ P_{i - 1}$ beat $ P_i$ for each $ i = 1, \ldots, M$, player $ P_0$ also beat $ P_M$. Prove that the players can be numbered $ 1,2, \ldots, N$ in such a way that, whenever $ a \geq b + M - 1$, player $ a$ beat player $ b$.

Gabriel Carroll.

We induct on $N>M>1$. For $M=2$, pick a player $v$, then partition the remaining players in two groups $A, B$ so that $\overrightarrow{va}, \overrightarrow{bv}$ are edges for all $a, b \in A, B$ respectively. The condition ensures that $\overrightarrow{ba}$ is an edge for all $a \in A, b \in B$. Hence, we can label $B$ with $1, 2, \dots, |B|$ by induction on $N$ and $A \cup \{v\}$ by $|B|+1, \dots, N$, so that both are internally satisfied. This provides a valid labelling.


Now for the induction step. For fixed $N$, suppose $1<M<N$ is the smallest integer with this property.

Claim. The maximal cycle has size at least $M$.

(Proof) Pick two points $P_0, P_d$ with the maximum graph theoretic distance. Then $P_0 \rightarrow P_1 \rightarrow  \dots \rightarrow P_d$; so $d>1 \implies P_d \rightarrow P_0$ then we have a $(d+1)$ cycle. If $d<M-1$ then for any chain $P_0 \rightarrow P_1 \rightarrow \dots \rightarrow P_{M-1}$ we have $P_0 \rightarrow P_{M-1}$ contradicting the minimality of $M$. Hence, $(d+1) \ge M$, as desired.

Now we pick this maximal cycle $\mathcal{C}$. For any vertex $u$ if we can find $u, w \in \mathcal{C}$ with $\overrightarrow{vu}, \overrightarrow{wv}$ as edges then it is possible to append $v$ in $\mathcal{C}$. So for all $v \not \in \mathcal{C}$ all edges between $v$ and vertices of $\mathcal{C}$ have the same direction.

Suppose $A$ is the set of those vertices where these edges lead inwards and $B$ where they lead outwards. For any $a \in A, b \in B$, if $\overrightarrow{ab}$ is an edge, then we have a directed path $a \rightarrow b \rightarrow v_1 \rightarrow \dots \rightarrow v_{M-1}$ for $v_1 \rightarrow \dots$ as a chain of $\mathcal{C}$, so $a \rightarrow v_{M-1}$, a contradiction! Thus, all players outside $A$ defeat everyone in $A$ (if $A$ is empty, $\mathcal{C}$ fits this role). Labelling $1, \dots, |A|$ to vertices in $A$ in a suitable way, we can translate a natural labelling of the remaining vertices by $|A|$.
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math90
1474 posts
#8 • 3 Y
Y by Tawan, Adventure10, Mango247
The following claim solves the problem easily:
In each tournament, either there is a hamiltonian cycle or the participants can be partitioned into two nonempty sets $A,B$ auch that each player in $A$ beats each player in $B$.
Edit: I see it is Little Gauss’s solution.
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by math90, Dec 5, 2017, 8:28 PM
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CANBANKAN
1301 posts
#10 • 1 Y
Y by Mango247
Did this in November and posting this now... I will use two lemmas.

Lemma 1(Very standard)
There exists a path of length $N-1$.


We proceed by strong induction. Suppose $v\rightarrow v_1,\cdots,v_k$. Then by inductive hypothesis, there is a path of length $k-1$ in $v_1,\cdots,v_k$ and a path of length $N-k-2$ in the other $N-k$ vertices. Hence the path (length $N-k-2\rightarrow v\rightarrow $ path of length $k-1$) works.

Hence we can take this path and label $v_N\rightarrow v_{N-1}\rightarrow \cdots \rightarrow v_1$. To finish the problem, we use the following lemma.

Lemma 2.
There exists no cycle of length $\ge M$.

We instead show if there exist a cycle of length $x+1$ then there is a cycle of length $x$ for $x\ge 3.$

Consider the paths $v_{i}\rightarrow v_{i+3}\rightarrow v_{i+4}\rightarrow \cdots \rightarrow v_{i-1}\rightarrow v_{i+2}\rightarrow v_{i}$. For these paths to not exist, $v_{2i}\rightarrow v_{2i\pm 3}$ for all $i$ or $v_{2i\pm 3}\rightarrow v_{2i} $. This gives a contradiction if $l$ is odd. We will deal with the case $l$ is even and $l\ge 8$.

For $l=4$, we can't even deal with $v_2\rightarrow v_0\rightarrow v_2$, so it is okay.

For $l\ge 8$,
the cycle $v_0\rightarrow v_3\rightarrow v_1\rightarrow v_2\rightarrow v_5\rightarrow v_6\rightarrow v_7\rightarrow \cdots \rightarrow v_{l-1}\rightarrow v_0$ works. Notice how $v_4$ is not in the cycle.

Therefore, taking the longest path $v_n\rightarrow v_{n-1}\rightarrow \cdots \rightarrow v_1$, and labelling $v_i$ with $i$ indeed works.
This post has been edited 5 times. Last edited by CANBANKAN, Mar 8, 2021, 4:20 PM
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YaoAOPS
1495 posts
#11
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Twitch lemma unit

Note that this implies no cycles of length $M+1$ or larger exist.
Let $C$ be the cycle of maximal length. Then the rest of vertices can be partition into $A \sqcup B$ where $A$ points into $C$ and $C$ points into $B$.
Since $C$ has length at most $M$, we can solve this inductively for $A, B, C$ and sort them in that order.
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N3bula
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#12
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We view the this as a directed tournament on $N$ vertices, we know that there exists a hamiltonian path as this is a tournament. We
also know that there are no cycles of length $M$ thus from twitch lemma we know there are no cycles of length $>M$, thus take the
hamiltonian path and the result becomes clear.
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quantam13
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#13
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Nice problem!

Interpret the conditions as a directed tournament. The condition is equivalent to saying that there is no cycle of length $M+1$ or longer by "Twitch Lemma".

Let $C$ be the maximal cycle. The rest of the vertices can be partitioned into $A\sqcup B$ where $A\rightarrow C\rightarrow B$. Since $C$ has length atmost $M$, we solve this inductively for $A$, $B$ and $C$ and then merge them in that order and we would be done.
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