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k a March Highlights and 2025 AoPS Online Class Information
jlacosta   0
Mar 2, 2025
March is the month for State MATHCOUNTS competitions! Kudos to everyone who participated in their local chapter competitions and best of luck to all going to State! Join us on March 11th for a Math Jam devoted to our favorite Chapter competition problems! Are you interested in training for MATHCOUNTS? Be sure to check out our AMC 8/MATHCOUNTS Basics and Advanced courses.

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Do you have plans this summer? There are so many options to fit your schedule and goals whether attending a summer camp or taking online classes, it can be a great break from the routine of the school year. Check out our summer courses at AoPS Online, or if you want a math or language arts class that doesn’t have homework, but is an enriching summer experience, our AoPS Virtual Campus summer camps may be just the ticket! We are expanding our locations for our AoPS Academies across the country with 15 locations so far and new campuses opening in Saratoga CA, Johns Creek GA, and the Upper West Side NY. Check out this page for summer camp information.

Be sure to mark your calendars for the following events:
[list][*]March 5th (Wednesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, HCSSiM Math Jam 2025. Amber Verser, Assistant Director of the Hampshire College Summer Studies in Mathematics, will host an information session about HCSSiM, a summer program for high school students.
[*]March 6th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar on Math Competitions from elementary through high school. Join us for an enlightening session that demystifies the world of math competitions and helps you make informed decisions about your contest journey.
[*]March 11th (Tuesday), 4:30pm PT/7:30pm ET, 2025 MATHCOUNTS Chapter Discussion MATH JAM. AoPS instructors will discuss some of their favorite problems from the MATHCOUNTS Chapter Competition. All are welcome!
[*]March 13th (Thursday), 4:00pm PT/7:00pm ET, Free Webinar about Summer Camps at the Virtual Campus. Transform your summer into an unforgettable learning adventure! From elementary through high school, we offer dynamic summer camps featuring topics in mathematics, language arts, and competition preparation - all designed to fit your schedule and ignite your passion for learning.[/list]
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0 replies
jlacosta
Mar 2, 2025
0 replies
k i A Letter to MSM
Arr0w   23
N Sep 19, 2022 by scannose
Greetings.

I have seen many posts talking about commonly asked questions, such as finding the value of $0^0$, $\frac{1}{0}$,$\frac{0}{0}$, $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, why $0.999...=1$ or even expressions of those terms combined as if that would make them defined. I have made this post to answer these questions once and for all, and I politely ask everyone to link this post to threads that are talking about this issue.
[list]
[*]Firstly, the case of $0^0$. It is usually regarded that $0^0=1$, not because this works numerically but because it is convenient to define it this way. You will see the convenience of defining other undefined things later on in this post.

[*]What about $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$? The issue here is that $\infty$ isn't even rigorously defined in this expression. What exactly do we mean by $\infty$? Unless the example in question is put in context in a formal manner, then we say that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is meaningless.

[*]What about $\frac{1}{0}$? Suppose that $x=\frac{1}{0}$. Then we would have $x\cdot 0=0=1$, absurd. A more rigorous treatment of the idea is that $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x}$ does not exist in the first place, although you will see why in a calculus course. So the point is that $\frac{1}{0}$ is undefined.

[*]What about if $0.99999...=1$? An article from brilliant has a good explanation. Alternatively, you can just use a geometric series. Notice that
\begin{align*}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{9}{10^n}&=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{10^n}=9\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\biggr(\frac{1}{10}\biggr)^n=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{\frac{9}{10}}\biggr)=9\biggr(\frac{1}{9}\biggr)=\boxed{1}
\end{align*}
[*]What about $\frac{0}{0}$? Usually this is considered to be an indeterminate form, but I would also wager that this is also undefined.
[/list]
Hopefully all of these issues and their corollaries are finally put to rest. Cheers.

2nd EDIT (6/14/22): Since I originally posted this, it has since blown up so I will try to add additional information per the request of users in the thread below.

INDETERMINATE VS UNDEFINED

What makes something indeterminate? As you can see above, there are many things that are indeterminate. While definitions might vary slightly, it is the consensus that the following definition holds: A mathematical expression is be said to be indeterminate if it is not definitively or precisely determined. So how does this make, say, something like $0/0$ indeterminate? In analysis (the theory behind calculus and beyond), limits involving an algebraic combination of functions in an independent variable may often be evaluated by replacing these functions by their limits. However, if the expression obtained after this substitution does not provide sufficient information to determine the original limit, then the expression is called an indeterminate form. For example, we could say that $0/0$ is an indeterminate form.

But we need to more specific, this is still ambiguous. An indeterminate form is a mathematical expression involving at most two of $0$, $1$ or $\infty$, obtained by applying the algebraic limit theorem (a theorem in analysis, look this up for details) in the process of attempting to determine a limit, which fails to restrict that limit to one specific value or infinity, and thus does not determine the limit being calculated. This is why it is called indeterminate. Some examples of indeterminate forms are
\[0/0, \infty/\infty, \infty-\infty, \infty \times 0\]etc etc. So what makes something undefined? In the broader scope, something being undefined refers to an expression which is not assigned an interpretation or a value. A function is said to be undefined for points outside its domain. For example, the function $f:\mathbb{R}^{+}\cup\{0\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ given by the mapping $x\mapsto \sqrt{x}$ is undefined for $x<0$. On the other hand, $1/0$ is undefined because dividing by $0$ is not defined in arithmetic by definition. In other words, something is undefined when it is not defined in some mathematical context.

WHEN THE WATERS GET MUDDIED

So with this notion of indeterminate and undefined, things get convoluted. First of all, just because something is indeterminate does not mean it is not undefined. For example $0/0$ is considered both indeterminate and undefined (but in the context of a limit then it is considered in indeterminate form). Additionally, this notion of something being undefined also means that we can define it in some way. To rephrase, this means that technically, we can make something that is undefined to something that is defined as long as we define it. I'll show you what I mean.

One example of making something undefined into something defined is the extended real number line, which we define as
\[\overline{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{R}\cup \{-\infty,+\infty\}.\]So instead of treating infinity as an idea, we define infinity (positively and negatively, mind you) as actual numbers in the reals. The advantage of doing this is for two reasons. The first is because we can turn this thing into a totally ordered set. Specifically, we can let $-\infty\le a\le \infty$ for each $a\in\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ which means that via this order topology each subset has an infimum and supremum and $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ is therefore compact. While this is nice from an analytic standpoint, extending the reals in this way can allow for interesting arithmetic! In $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ it is perfectly OK to say that,
\begin{align*}
a + \infty = \infty + a & = \infty, & a & \neq -\infty \\
a - \infty = -\infty + a & = -\infty, & a & \neq \infty \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty] \\
a \cdot (\pm\infty) = \pm\infty \cdot a & = \mp\infty, & a & \in [-\infty, 0) \\
\frac{a}{\pm\infty} & = 0, & a & \in \mathbb{R} \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \pm\infty, & a & \in (0, +\infty) \\
\frac{\pm\infty}{a} & = \mp\infty, & a & \in (-\infty, 0).
\end{align*}So addition, multiplication, and division are all defined nicely. However, notice that we have some indeterminate forms here which are also undefined,
\[\infty-\infty,\frac{\pm\infty}{\pm\infty},\frac{\pm\infty}{0},0\cdot \pm\infty.\]So while we define certain things, we also left others undefined/indeterminate in the process! However, in the context of measure theory it is common to define $\infty \times 0=0$ as greenturtle3141 noted below. I encourage to reread what he wrote, it's great stuff! As you may notice, though, dividing by $0$ is undefined still! Is there a place where it isn't? Kind of. To do this, we can extend the complex numbers! More formally, we can define this extension as
\[\mathbb{C}^*=\mathbb{C}\cup\{\tilde{\infty}\}\]which we call the Riemann Sphere (it actually forms a sphere, pretty cool right?). As a note, $\tilde{\infty}$ means complex infinity, since we are in the complex plane now. Here's the catch: division by $0$ is allowed here! In fact, we have
\[\frac{z}{0}=\tilde{\infty},\frac{z}{\tilde{\infty}}=0.\]where $\tilde{\infty}/\tilde{\infty}$ and $0/0$ are left undefined. We also have
\begin{align*}
z+\tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne -\infty\\
z\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}, \forall z\ne 0
\end{align*}Furthermore, we actually have some nice properties with multiplication that we didn't have before. In $\mathbb{C}^*$ it holds that
\[\tilde{\infty}\times \tilde{\infty}=\tilde{\infty}\]but $\tilde{\infty}-\tilde{\infty}$ and $0\times \tilde{\infty}$ are left as undefined (unless there is an explicit need to change that somehow). One could define the projectively extended reals as we did with $\mathbb{C}^*$, by defining them as
\[{\widehat {\mathbb {R} }}=\mathbb {R} \cup \{\infty \}.\]They behave in a similar way to the Riemann Sphere, with division by $0$ also being allowed with the same indeterminate forms (in addition to some other ones).
23 replies
Arr0w
Feb 11, 2022
scannose
Sep 19, 2022
k i Marathon Threads
LauraZed   0
Jul 2, 2019
Due to excessive spam and inappropriate posts, we have locked the Prealgebra and Beginning Algebra threads.

We will either unlock these threads once we've cleaned them up or start new ones, but for now, do not start new marathon threads for these subjects. Any new marathon threads started while this announcement is up will be immediately deleted.
0 replies
LauraZed
Jul 2, 2019
0 replies
k i Basic Forum Rules and Info (Read before posting)
jellymoop   368
N May 16, 2018 by harry1234
f (Reminder: Do not post Alcumus or class homework questions on this forum. Instructions below.) f
Welcome to the Middle School Math Forum! Please take a moment to familiarize yourself with the rules.

Overview:
[list]
[*] When you're posting a new topic with a math problem, give the topic a detailed title that includes the subject of the problem (not just "easy problem" or "nice problem")
[*] Stay on topic and be courteous.
[*] Hide solutions!
[*] If you see an inappropriate post in this forum, simply report the post and a moderator will deal with it. Don't make your own post telling people they're not following the rules - that usually just makes the issue worse.
[*] When you post a question that you need help solving, post what you've attempted so far and not just the question. We are here to learn from each other, not to do your homework. :P
[*] Avoid making posts just to thank someone - you can use the upvote function instead
[*] Don't make a new reply just to repeat yourself or comment on the quality of others' posts; instead, post when you have a new insight or question. You can also edit your post if it's the most recent and you want to add more information.
[*] Avoid bumping old posts.
[*] Use GameBot to post alcumus questions.
[*] If you need general MATHCOUNTS/math competition advice, check out the threads below.
[*] Don't post other users' real names.
[*] Advertisements are not allowed. You can advertise your forum on your profile with a link, on your blog, and on user-created forums that permit forum advertisements.
[/list]

Here are links to more detailed versions of the rules. These are from the older forums, so you can overlook "Classroom math/Competition math only" instructions.
Posting Guidelines
Update on Basic Forum Rules
What belongs on this forum?
How do I write a thorough solution?
How do I get a problem on the contest page?
How do I study for mathcounts?
Mathcounts FAQ and resources
Mathcounts and how to learn

As always, if you have any questions, you can PM me or any of the other Middle School Moderators. Once again, if you see spam, it would help a lot if you filed a report instead of responding :)

Marathons!
Relays might be a better way to describe it, but these threads definitely go the distance! One person starts off by posting a problem, and the next person comes up with a solution and a new problem for another user to solve. Here's some of the frequently active marathons running in this forum:
[list][*]Algebra
[*]Prealgebra
[*]Proofs
[*]Factoring
[*]Geometry
[*]Counting & Probability
[*]Number Theory[/list]
Some of these haven't received attention in a while, but these are the main ones for their respective subjects. Rather than starting a new marathon, please give the existing ones a shot first.

You can also view marathons via the Marathon tag.

Think this list is incomplete or needs changes? Let the mods know and we'll take a look.
368 replies
jellymoop
May 8, 2015
harry1234
May 16, 2018
Inspired by Abelkonkurransen 2025
sqing   0
a few seconds ago
Source: Own
Let $ a,b,c $ be real numbers such that $  a^2+4b^2+16c^2= abc. $ Prove that $$\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{2b}+\frac{1}{4c}\geq -\frac{1}{16}$$Let $ a,b,c $ be real numbers such that $ 4a^2+9b^2+16c^2= abc. $ Prove that $$ \frac{1}{2a}+\frac{1}{3b}+\frac{1}{4c}\geq -\frac{1}{48}$$
0 replies
1 viewing
sqing
a few seconds ago
0 replies
FE with 2 degrees
Adywastaken   1
N a minute ago by b1zmark
Source: Serbia 2021/5
Find all $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ such that $f(xf(y)+x^2+y)=f(x)f(y)+xf(x)+f(y) \forall x,y \in \mathbb{R}$
1 reply
Adywastaken
39 minutes ago
b1zmark
a minute ago
Inspired by Abelkonkurransen 2025
sqing   0
2 minutes ago
Source: Own
Let $ a,b,c $ be real numbers such that $  a^2+4b^2+16c^2= abc. $ Prove that $$\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{2b}+\frac{1}{4c}\geq -\frac{1}{16}$$Let $ a,b,c $ be real numbers such that $ 4a^2+9b^2+16c^2= abc. $ Prove that $$ \frac{1}{2a}+\frac{1}{3b}+\frac{1}{4c}\geq -\frac{1}{48}$$
0 replies
sqing
2 minutes ago
0 replies
x^2y/z+y^2z/x+z^2x/y+2(y/xz+z/xy+x/yz)>= 9 if x,y,z>0
parmenides51   5
N 2 minutes ago by ali123456
Source: Greece JBMO TST 2016 p1
a) Prove that, for any real $x>0$, it is true that $x^3-3x\ge -2$ .
b) Prove that, for any real $x,y,z>0$, it is true that
$$\frac{x^2y}{z}+\frac{y^2z}{x}+\frac{z^2x}{y}+2\left(\frac{y}{xz}+\frac{z}{xy}+\frac{x}{yz} \right)\ge 9$$. When we have equality ?
5 replies
parmenides51
Apr 29, 2019
ali123456
2 minutes ago
Why was this poll blocked
jkim0656   9
N an hour ago by Andyluo
Hey AoPS ppl!
I made a poll about Pi vs Tau over here:
https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c3h3527460
But after a few days it got blocked but i don't get why?
how is this harmful or different from other polls?
It really wasn't that harmful or popular i got to say tho... :noo:
9 replies
jkim0656
Tuesday at 10:51 PM
Andyluo
an hour ago
Tangent Spheres in a plane
ReticulatedPython   9
N an hour ago by ChaitraliKA
Three mutually tangent spheres with radius $6$ rest on a plane. A sphere with radius $10$ is tangent to all of them, but does not intersect nor lie on the plane. A sphere with radius $r$ lies on the plane, and is tangent to all three spheres with radius $6.$ Compute the shortest distance between the sphere with radius $r$ and the sphere with radius $10.$

Source: Own
9 replies
ReticulatedPython
Yesterday at 9:44 PM
ChaitraliKA
an hour ago
How important is math "intuition"
Dream9   8
N 3 hours ago by gauss202
When I see problems now, they usually fall under 3 categories: easy, annoying, and cannot solve. Over time, more problems become easy, but I don't think I'm learning anything "new" so is higher level math like AMC 10 more about practice, so you know what to do when you see a problem? Of course, there's formulas for some problems but when reading a lot of solutions I didn't see many weird formulas being used and it was just the way to solve the problem was "odd".
8 replies
Dream9
Yesterday at 2:16 PM
gauss202
3 hours ago
quadratics
luciazhu1105   15
N 5 hours ago by KF329
I really need help on quadratics and I don't know why I also kinda need a bit of help on graphing functions and finding the domain and range of them.
15 replies
luciazhu1105
Feb 14, 2025
KF329
5 hours ago
Combi counting
Caasi_Gnow   0
5 hours ago
Find the number of different ways to arrange seven people around a circular meeting table if A and B must sit together and C and D cannot sit next to each other. (Note: the order for A and B might be A,B or B,A)
0 replies
Caasi_Gnow
5 hours ago
0 replies
Mathcounts state iowa
iwillregretthisnamelater   1
N Today at 5:23 AM by Dutchb
Ok I’m a 6th grader in Iowa who got 38 in chapter which was first, so what are the chances of me getting in nats? I should feel confident but I don’t. I have a week until states and I’m getting really anxious. What should I do? And also does the cdr count in Iowa? Because I heard that some states do cdr for fun or something and that it doesn’t count to final standings.
1 reply
iwillregretthisnamelater
Today at 4:55 AM
Dutchb
Today at 5:23 AM
I need help!-tpulak
tpulak   11
N Today at 4:58 AM by mdk2013
Hello peoples:
I need help on a problem. If you know the solution, could you please post it, and tell me how to do it? Here is the problem:
"The product (66)(9)(22)(39) has a prime factorization of the form (2A)(3B)(11C)(13D). What is the value of ac-bd? "

{Note: 2a actually represents "2 to the power of a", same goes for 3b,11c, & 13D}

PLEASE HELP ME! :?: :!: :!: :!:
11 replies
tpulak
Nov 30, 2007
mdk2013
Today at 4:58 AM
a problem
Bummer12345   4
N Today at 4:09 AM by FunBrightStage
Alice and Bob play a game where Alice starts with $3$ MathJuice bottles and Bob starts with $2$ MathJuice bottles. An unfair coin is then flipped, with probability $\frac{2}{3}$ of landing heads. If the coin lands heads, Alice gives Bob a bottle; otherwise, Bob gives Alice a bottle. This process repeats until someone runs out of bottles.

(a): What is the probability that Bob will lose all of his bottles before Alice does?
(b): What is the expected number of times the coin has been flipped by the time the game ends?

Source: Own
4 replies
Bummer12345
Yesterday at 8:00 PM
FunBrightStage
Today at 4:09 AM
AMC 8 Help
krish6_9   29
N Today at 3:56 AM by jkim0656
Hey guys
im in new jersey a third grader who got 12 on amc 8. I want to make mop in high school and mathcounts nationals in 6th grade is that realistic how should I get better
29 replies
krish6_9
Mar 17, 2025
jkim0656
Today at 3:56 AM
probability pentagon contains center
JohnStuckey   6
N Today at 3:06 AM by jkim0656
Here's a cute problem:

Consider a regular pentagon. Choose 3 points along the perimeter of the pentagon, and form a triangle with those 3 points. What is the probability that this triangle contains the center of the pentagon.
6 replies
JohnStuckey
Mar 17, 2025
jkim0656
Today at 3:06 AM
USAMO 2001 Problem 6
MithsApprentice   20
N Mar 17, 2025 by Ritwin
Each point in the plane is assigned a real number such that, for any triangle, the number at the center of its inscribed circle is equal to the arithmetic mean of the three numbers at its vertices. Prove that all points in the plane are assigned the same number.
20 replies
MithsApprentice
Sep 30, 2005
Ritwin
Mar 17, 2025
USAMO 2001 Problem 6
G H J
G H BBookmark kLocked kLocked NReply
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MithsApprentice
2390 posts
#1 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Each point in the plane is assigned a real number such that, for any triangle, the number at the center of its inscribed circle is equal to the arithmetic mean of the three numbers at its vertices. Prove that all points in the plane are assigned the same number.
Z K Y
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MithsApprentice
2390 posts
#2 • 2 Y
Y by mijail, Adventure10
When replying to the problem, I ask that you make posts for solutions and submit comments, jokes, smilies, etc. separately. Furthermore, please do not "hide" any portion of the solution. Please use LaTeX for posting solutions. Thanks.
Z K Y
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grobber
7849 posts
#3 • 6 Y
Y by Mobashereh, Adventure10, Pratik12, Mango247, MS_asdfgzxcvb, and 1 other user
I remember seeing some solutions of this one on the forum some time ago. I even remember posting one, but I'm sure it was quite different from this one:

Let $B,C$ be ny two points in the plane, take $A$ s.t. $ABC$ is equilateral, and take $D,E$ on the segments $AB,AC$ respectively s.t. $AB=3AD=3AE$. Now let $U,V$ be the points where the perpendiculars through $B,C$ to $BC$ cut $DE$, and, finally, let $P=BU\cap AV$.

Since the circle inscribed in $PAB$ is the same as that inscribed in $PUV$, we get $A+B=U+V$ (for a point $X$, the letter $X$ also denotes the value we assign to it). In the same way, we get $A+C=U+V$, from which we find $B=C$. Since $B,C$ were chosen arbitrarily, we're done.
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dysfunctionalequations
522 posts
#4 • 7 Y
Y by Mobashereh, Illuzion, Adventure10, Mango247, and 3 other users
Solution by mgao, Zhero, and myself:

For a point $P$, let $f(P)$ be the number assigned to point $P$.

Let $E, F$ be any two points in the plane; we want $f(E) = f(F)$. Construct regular hexagon $ABCDEF$ with center $O$. Then, $f(A) + f(C) + f(E) = 3 f(O) = f(B) + f(D) + f(F)$.

Now, let $P$ be the intersection of lines $AB$ and $CD$. By reflection through the angle bisector of $APD$, it is easy to see that $APC$ and $DPB$ have the same incenter $I$, and we have $f(A) + f(P) + f(C) = 3 f(I) = f(D) + f(P) + f(B)$. Subtracting the equation $f(B) + f(D) + f(F) = f(A) + f(C) + f(E)$, we get the desired result $f(E) = f(F)$.
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math154
4302 posts
#5 • 5 Y
Y by Adventure10, ohiorizzler1434, and 3 other users
Take an equilateral triangle $ABC$ and construct triangles $XYZ$ and $DEF$ so that $XYZ$ is the medial triangle of $DEF$ which in turn is the medial triangle of $ABC$ ($AXD,BYE,CZF$ are lines and $\triangle{ABC},\triangle{DEF},\triangle{XYZ}$ share incenter $I$). Assume for the sake of contradiction that some two points in the plane don't have the same number; WLOG let $A$ and $X$ be these two points.

Note that
\begin{align}
f(A)+f(B)+f(C)=f(D)+f(E)+f(F)=3f(I).
\end{align}Also, because $\triangle{ABE}$ and $\triangle{ACF}$ share incircles and thus have a common incenter (this can be seen for example by reflecting about $AXID$ or noting that quadrilateral $AEIF$ is tangential), we have
\[\frac{f(A)+f(B)+f(E)}{3}=\frac{f(A)+f(C)+f(F)}{3}\implies f(B)+f(E)=f(C)+f(F).\]Symmetry and (1) tell us that
\[f(A)+f(D)=f(B)+f(E)=f(C)+f(F)=2f(I).\]But we clearly must also have
\[f(D)+f(X)=f(E)+f(Y)=f(F)+f(Z)=2f(I)\]by applying the same argument to figure $DZEXFY$ as we did to $AFBDCE$, so $f(A)+f(D)=2f(I)=f(D)+f(X)$ and $f(A)=f(X)$, contradiction.
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Mewto55555
4210 posts
#6 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Consider two points $A$ and $B$, with values $a$ and $b$ respectively. Draw the perpendicular bisector, and pick an arbitrary point $X$ on it, with value $c$. Then, let $X'$ be the incenter of $ABX$, $X''$ of $ABX'$, and so on.

The value of $X$ is $\frac{a+b+c}{3}$, $X'$ is $\frac{4a+4b+c}{9}$, $X''$ is $\frac{13a+13b+c}{27}$, and so on, with $X''...''$ where there are $n$ $'$s, having a value of $\frac{\frac{3^{n+1}-1}{2}(a+b)+c}{3^{n+1}}$.

As $n \to \infty$, we see that the value of $X''...''$ goes to $\frac{a+b}{2}$. As our function is necessarily continuous (slight perturbations of vertices slightly perturb incenter location), the midpoint $M$ of $AB$ has a value equal to $\frac{a+b}{2}$ (the sequence $X, X', X'',...$ converges to $M$).

Knowing this, we can divide a line segment $AB$ into successively smaller intervals, to find the value of a point dividing it in a certain ratio. The midpoint of $AM$ has value $\frac{3a+b}{4}$, the midpoint of that point and $A$ again is $\frac{7a+b}{8}$, and so on. Remembering that the function is continuous, and as all fractions can be written as an infinite sum/difference of fractions with denominators powers of $2$, it is clear that a point's value is the weighted average of the values of the endpoints of the segment (with the ratio of weights being equal to the ratio of the lengths, and the higher weight given to the endpoint it is nearest to).


Now, consider a triangle with vertices at $A=(0,0), B=(2,0), C=(0,2)$. Let $D,E$ be the midpoints of $AB,AC$ respectively, and let $A,B,C$ have values $a,b,c$ respectively. $D$ then has a value of $\frac{a+b}{2}$ and $E$ has $\frac{a+c}{2}$. The midpoint $O$ of $DE$ is at $\left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}\right)$, and thus has value $o=\frac{2a+b+c}{4}$

Also, the incenter $I$ of $ABC$ is located at $(2-\sqrt{2},2-\sqrt{2})$ and has a value of $i=\frac{a+b+c}{3}$.

However, $O$ is also on the line connecting $A$ and $I$. The distance $AO$ is $\frac{\sqrt2}{2}$, and the distance $IO$ is $\sqrt2\left(\frac{3}{2}-\sqrt2\right)=\frac{3\sqrt2-4}{2}$, and $AI$ is $\sqrt2(2-\sqrt2)=2\sqrt2-2$

Then, $O$'s value of $\frac{2a+b+c}{4}$ is also equal to $\frac{a\cdot IO+i\cdot AO}{AI}=\frac{\frac{3\sqrt2-4}{2}a+\frac{\sqrt2}{2}\frac{a+b+c}{3}}{2\sqrt2-2}$ After some effort, this (should!) simplify to $a=\frac{b+c}{2}$.

As the midpoint $M$ of $BC=\frac{b+c}{2}$ as well, all points between $M$ and $A$ have value $\frac{b+c}{2}$. Reflecting $A$ over $M$ to $A'$, we get the same result for segment $AA'$. We can keep doing this infinitely, so all point on the line $AM$ have the same value. As there is nothing special about $AM$, we have that all points on a given line have the same value. As any two points are collinear, we have that all points in the plane have an equal value.
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ninjaturtle
76 posts
#7 • 3 Y
Y by vsathiam, Adventure10, Mango247
My solution :
Let $f(M)$ be the value at point $M$.
Let $I$ be the center of $ABC$. Let $D$ be the center of $ABI$, $E$ be the center of $ACI$, and $F$
be the center of $BIC$, and let $O$ be the center of $DEF$. Then it is easy to see that $f(I) = f(O).$
Assume we can construct $ABC$ such that $I \neq O$. Now using rotation and scaling, any two points
$P$ and $Q$ will be $I$ and $O$ hence have the same value.
Thus our proof is complete provide that we can construct $ABC$ such that $I \neq O$. This is not too
hard a geometry problem.
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peregrinefalcon88
299 posts
#8 • 1 Y
Y by Adventure10
Let F(A) be the value assigned to point A. Let I be the incenter of triangle ABC. Let D, E, and F be the incenters of triangles AIB, BIC, and CIA respectively. One can easily verify that F(D)+F(E)+F(F) = F(A)+F(B)+F(C) = 3F(I) but also notice that if ABC is not equilateral then the incenter I' of DEF is distinct from I. Now if we consider any 2 points P and Q in the plane then we can show that F(P)=F(Q) because the configuration described above can be translated, rotated, and dilated to have P and Q correspond to I and I' respectively. Thus the only solution is F(X) = constant.
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Delray
348 posts
#9 • 2 Y
Y by Adventure10, Mango247
Take triangles $A_1B_1C_1$ and $A_2B_2C_2$. Let the two incenters be $I_1$ and $I_2$ respectively. By appropriate dilation and rotation of each triangle about its respective incenter, we can match up any two corresponding sides. It follows that for point $K_1\in\{A_1,B_1,C_1\}$, and any point $K_2\in\{A_2,B_2,C_2\}$, we have that $f(K_1)-f(K_2)=f(I_1)-f(I_2)$. It follows that $A_1$, $A_2$, $B_1$, $B_2$, $C_1$, $C_2$, $I_1$ and $I_2$ all have the same weight, hence we can see that all other points must also have this weight since we can perform the same scaling and rotating on any other pair of triangles with at least one vertice from the original set that we worked with. $\square$
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62861
3564 posts
#10 • 4 Y
Y by vvluo, aopsuser305, Adventure10, MS_asdfgzxcvb
Mewto55555 wrote:
As our function is necessarily continuous (slight perturbations of vertices slightly perturb incenter location)

It's been more than seven years but I'd like to point out this is clearly false: by this logic if "incenter" was replaced by "centroid" the function $f$ would still be continuous, but there are noncontinuous solutions in this case: any "affine-linear" function satisfies the conditions.
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alexiaslexia
110 posts
#11 • 2 Y
Y by srisainandan6, MS_asdfgzxcvb
The shortest solution material (a.k.a. this can be reworded to three/four lines in a contest due to the sheer emptiness and simplicity of the argument) a hard P6 I've ever seen: probably the only problem which fits that category is in ($\bigstar$) of the Motivation.

$\color{green} \rule{25cm}{2pt}$
$\color{green} \textbf{Combinatorial/Algebraic First Step.}$ Given two points $P$ and $P'$ of distance $1$. Then, if we have proven that
\[ f(P) = f(P'); \]we are finished with the problem.

$\color{green} \rule{25cm}{0.4pt}$
$\color{green} \textbf{Should be obvious, but this part is interesting nonetheless.}$ There are two ways to finish here.
  • 1. We will prove that $f(P_1) = f(P_2)$ for any two points of the plane. Let the distance between those two points be $d$. Then, apply the same argument on a plane magnified with homothety/dilation of scale $d$.
  • 2. We'll first prove that $f(P_3) = f(P_4)$ for any two $P_3,P_4$ with distance at most $2$. To do so, form an isosceles with sides $(1,1,\text{distance of} \ P_3,P_4)$. To prove the general statement, let we wish to prove $f(P_5) = f(P_6).$ Then find a $P_7$ in the segment $\overline{P_5P_6}$ so that $d(P_5,P_7) = (\text{fractional part of their distance}) < 1$ and induct upwards to translate $P_7$ to $P_6$.
Note that the first way puts into perspective that
\[\begin{tabular}{p{12cm}}
If we have enforced a way to force some two general points to be uniformly in order, then regardless of the size of the distance of any $P_1$ and $P_2$, the operation then can be magnified by $d$.
\end{tabular} \\ \]Well, and the second way also puts it into perspective that
\[\begin{tabular}{p{12cm}}
No magnification is required: by translating a valid operation that forces uniform values on two points, we can actually match any two points to be equal!
\end{tabular} \\ \]This ends this Section. $\blacksquare$

$\color{red} \rule{25cm}{2pt}$
$\color{red} \textbf{The versatility and wild nature of incenters.}$ This might be the most absurd-ly worded Claim I've made in my Solutions, but here goes:
\[\begin{tabular}{p{12cm}}
Given $P,P'$ with distance $1$. Draw the segment $\overline{PP'}$ and draw two perpendicular lines to that segment that passes through $P$ and $P'$. Call the strip bounded by those two lines to be the $\textit{parallel range}$ of $P$ and $P'$. Moreover, divide the $\textit{parallel range}$ equally, and call the region closer to $P$ (and $P'$, respectively) to be the $\textit{P-half-range}$ (and $\textit{P'-half-range}$, respectively.)  \\
\\
For any $Q$ which lies inside $\textit{P-half-range}$, we can prove that \\
\\
$\quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad f(Q) - f(Q') = \dfrac{f(P)-f(P')}{3}.$  \\
\\
where $Q'$ is the reflection of $Q$ towards the perpendicular bisector of $PP'$. 
\end{tabular} \\ \]$\color{red} \rule{25cm}{0.4pt}$
$\color{red} \textbf{Proof 2.}$ We will proof that we can find two points $A$ and $B$ so that
$Q$ is the incenter of $\triangle PAB$ and $Q'$ is the incenter of $\triangle P'AB$.

Let the point $\overline{PQ} \cap \overline{P'Q'} \cap \text{perp.bisector of} \ PP'$ be $X$. Then, draw a circle $\omega$ with center $X$ and radius $|XQ| = |XQ'|$. Pick two points $A$ and $B$ so that
\[ (PP'X) \cap \omega = \{A,B\} \]Since $X \in (PAB), (P'AB)$ and $PX,P'X$ is the internal bisector of angles $\angle APB, AP'B$, this validates the reverse construction --- $Q,Q'$ is forced to be the respective incenters of the two triangle. $\blacksquare$ $\blacksquare$ $\blacksquare$

$\color{blue} \rule{25cm}{2pt}$
$\color{blue} \textbf{A Final Contradiction.}$ The reason I put three blacksquares above was that the conclusion should be in sight after the $\color{red} \textbf{versatility of incenters}$: pick $Q,Q'$ in the $\textit{parallel range}$ of $PP'$ --- and pick $RR'$ to be in the $\textit{parallel range}$ of $QQ'$. It should be immediately clear that $RR'$ must be in the parallel range of $PP'$.

Since $R,R'$ lies in the parallel range of $PP'$, then
\[ f(R)-f(R') = \dfrac{f(P)-f(P')}{3} \]but since $R,R'$ lies in the parallel range of $QQ'$ and $QQ'$ lies in the parallel range of $PP'$,
\[ f(R)-f(R') = \dfrac{f(Q)-f(Q')}{3} = \dfrac{\frac{f(P)-f(P')}{3}}{3} \]rendering $f(P) - f(P') = 0$
We are truly done by here. $\color{blue} \blacksquare \ \blacksquare \ \blacksquare$

Motivation: Poncelet's porism and the incenter construction?
This post has been edited 3 times. Last edited by alexiaslexia, Feb 19, 2021, 3:28 PM
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GeronimoStilton
1521 posts
#12
Y by
Let $(O)$ be an arbitrary circle and let $\ell_1,\ell_2,\ell_3,\ell_4,\ell_5$ be arbitrary tangent lines to $(O)$ no two of which are parallel. Let the function mapping points to real numbers be $f$. Then we have
\[f(\ell_i\cap\ell_j)+f(\ell_i\cap\ell_k)+f(\ell_j\cap\ell_k)=c\]for all distinct $i,j,k$ and some fixed $c$. Thus we have $10$ equations in $10$ variables. To solve these equations, note
\[f(\ell_i\cap\ell_j)=c-f(\ell_1\cap\ell_i)-f(\ell_1\cap\ell_j)\forall i,j\ne 1,i\ne j.\]Let $f(\ell_1\cap\ell_i)=a_i$ so $c=c-a_i-a_j+c-a_j-a_k+c-a_k-a_i=3c-2[a_i+a_j+a_k]$. This implies $a_i+a_j+a_k$ is fixed at $c$, and so the desired follows: each of the $f(\ell_i\cap\ell_j)$ is equal to $c/3$. But this implies that any non-degenerate triangle has all its real numbers of vertices. To finish, note that for fixed $A$ and $B$, all points $C$ not on line $AB$ must have $f(A)=f(B)=f(C)$, so for particular $D\not\in\{A,B\}$ on line $AB$ and $C$ not on line $AB$, looking at $\triangle CDB$ finishes.

Edit: This is wrong due to config issues, I'll try to find a correct approach.

Edit: Here is a correct solution which turns out to basically be Evan Chen's.

Let $f$ denote the map from the plane $\mathbb R^2$ to $\mathbb R$.

Observation: For isosceles trapezoid $ABCD$ with $AB\parallel CD$ which is not a rectangle, $f(A)+f(C)=f(B)+f(D)$.

Proof: Let $BC\cap DA=X,AC\cap BD=Y$. By Pitot's Theorem, whichever one of $XCYD$ or $XAYB$ is concyclic has an incircle. Thus $f(X)+f(A)+f(C)=f(X)+f(B)+f(D)$, finishing.

Then considering regular pentagon $ABCDE$ finishes, as $f(A)+f(C)=f(B)+f(D)=f(C)+f(E)=f(D)+f(A)=f(E)+f(B)$ so $f(A)=f(E)=f(D)=f(C)=f(B)$.

Remarks
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by GeronimoStilton, Feb 24, 2021, 2:42 PM
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508669
1040 posts
#13 • 3 Y
Y by Mango247, Mango247, Mango247
MithsApprentice wrote:
Each point in the plane is assigned a real number such that, for any triangle, the number at the center of its inscribed circle is equal to the arithmetic mean of the three numbers at its vertices. Prove that all points in the plane are assigned the same number.

[asy]
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import graph; size(20cm); 
real labelscalefactor = 0.5; /* changes label-to-point distance */
pen dps = linewidth(0.7) + fontsize(10); defaultpen(dps); /* default pen style */ 
pen dotstyle = black; /* point style */ 
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draw((3.562679491924312,3.8687426312891326)--(1.5253589838486228,7.357485262578265), linewidth(0.4) + qqwwzz); 
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draw((-2.5146410161513773,7.337485262578268)--(-4.51732050807569,3.8287426312891357), linewidth(0.4) + qqwwzz); 
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label("$C$", (3.6315178589707733,4.051538546295315), NE * labelscalefactor); 
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[/asy]

Consider two arbitrary points $E$ and $F$ in the plane and let $n(X)$ denote the number written at point $X$. Let $ABCDEF$ be a regular hexagon and let $AB \cap DC = K, DB \cap AC = L$. We see that $\triangle ACE$ and $\triangle BDF$ have same incenter (center of hexagon) and so we have that $n(A) + n(C) + n(E) = n(B) + n(D) + n(F) \dots (1)$. Now, we see that if $\Gamma$ is the incircle of $\triangle KAC$, then the reflection of $\Gamma$ about perpendicular bisector of segment $\overline{EF}$ must be the incircle of $\triangle KBD$, but we see that $\Gamma$ is also the incircle of $\square KBLC$ and $\angle KBL = \angle KCL = 90^\circ$ implying that center of $\Gamma$ lies on line $\overline{KL}$ but this is exactly the perpendicular bisector of segment $\overline{EF}$, which means that $\Gamma$ is preserved under reflection through perpendicular bisector of $\overline{EF}$ due to symmetry, which means that $\Gamma$ is also the incircle of $\triangle KBD$, therefore $n(K) + n(B) + n(D) = n(K) + n(A) + n(C) \implies n(B) + n(D) = n(A) + n(C) \dots (2)$, subtracting $(2)$ from $(1)$ we get that $n(A) + n(C) + n(E) - n(A) - n(C) = n(B) + n(D) + n(F) - n(B) - n(D) \implies n(E) = n(F)$, but since $E$ and $F$ were arbitrarily chosen, we must have that all of the points in the plane must have same number written on them/assigned to them.
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TheUltimate123
1739 posts
#14 • 5 Y
Y by guptaamitu1, CyclicISLscelesTrapezoid, jowramos, IAmTheHazard, khina
Solved with nukelauncher.

The problem succumbs to the following:

Claim: Let \(ABC\) be a scalene triangle with incenter \(I\). Let \(I_A\), \(I_B\), \(I_C\) be the incenters of \(\triangle IBC\), \(\triangle ICA\), \(\triangle IAB\), and let \(J\) be the incenter of \(\triangle I_AI_BI_C\). Then \(I\ne J\).

Proof. Assume for contradiction \(I\) is the incenter of \(\triangle I_AI_BI_C\). Let \(X=\overline{AI}\cap\overline{I_BI_C}\), \(Y=\overline{BI}\cap\overline{I_CI_A}\), \(Z=\overline{CI}\cap\overline{I_AI_B}\), and let \((I_A)\), \((I_B)\), \((I_C)\) touch \(\overline{BC}\), \(\overline{CA}\), \(\overline{AB}\) at \(P\), \(Q\), \(R\).

[asy]             size(8cm); defaultpen(fontsize(10pt));             pair A,B,C,I,IA,IB,IC,X,Y,Z,P,Q,R;             A=dir(130);             B=dir(200);             C=dir(340);             I=incenter(A,B,C);             IA=incenter(I,B,C);             IB=incenter(I,C,A);             IC=incenter(I,A,B);             X=extension(A,I,IB,IC);             Y=extension(B,I,IC,IA);             Z=extension(C,I,IA,IB);             P=foot(IA,B,C);             Q=foot(IB,C,A);             R=foot(IC,A,B);

draw(incircle(A,B,C),linewidth(.4));             draw(A--I,gray);             draw(B--I,gray);             draw(C--I,gray);             draw(IA--IB--IC--cycle,linewidth(.5));             draw(A--B--C--cycle,linewidth(.5));             draw(incircle(I,B,C),linewidth(.3));             draw(incircle(I,C,A),linewidth(.3));             draw(incircle(I,A,B),linewidth(.3));

dot("\(A\)",A,N);             dot("\(B\)",B,SW);             dot("\(C\)",C,SE);             dot("\(I\)",I,NE);             dot("\(I_A\)",IA,S);             dot("\(I_B\)",IB,NE);             dot("\(I_C\)",IC,W);             dot("\(X\)",X,dir(60));             dot("\(Y\)",Y,S);             dot("\(Z\)",Z,dir(290));             dot("\(P\)",P,S);             dot("\(Q\)",Q,NE);             dot("\(R\)",R,NW);         [/asy]

Then \(\angle YII_A=\angle ZII_A\) and \(\angle YI_AI=\angle ZI_AI\), so \(\angle IYI_A=\angle IZI_A=:\theta\), Then \(\angle IXI_B=\angle IZI_B=180^\circ-\theta\) and \(\angle IXI_C=180^\circ-\theta\), so \(\theta=90^\circ\).

This implies \((I_B)\) and \((I_C)\) are tangent at \(X\), so \(A\) lies on their radical axis, i.e.\ \(AQ=AR\). Analgoously \(BR=BP\) and \(CP=CQ\), so \(P\), \(Q\), \(R\) are the points where the incircle touches the sides of the triangle.

Hence \(\overline{II_A}\perp\overline{BC}\), implying \(IB=IC\), and so \(\angle B=\angle C\), contradiction. \(\blacksquare\)

Now in the above configuration, \begin{align*}     f(J)&=\tfrac13\big(f(I_A)+f(I_B)+f(I_C)\big)\\     &=\tfrac19f(I)+\tfrac29\big(f(A)+f(B)+f(C)\big)     =f(I). \end{align*}For any two points \(U\) and \(V\), it is possible to rotate and scale the above diagram so that \(I\mapsto U\) and \(J\mapsto V\). Hence \(f(U)=f(V)\), so \(f\) is constant.
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blackbluecar
302 posts
#15
Y by
Clean solution but hard to motivate.

For any $P \in \mathbb{R}^2$ define $f(P)$ to be the number it was assigned. We would like to show $f(X)=f(Y)$ for all $X,Y \in \mathbb{R}^2$. Indeed, consider points $A, B, C, D$ where $ABCDXY$ is a regular hexagon. Triangles $ACX$ and $BDY$ share an incenter so \[ f(X)+f(A)+f(C) = f(Y)+f(B)+f(D) \]So, it is sufficient to show that $f(A)+f(C) = f(B)+f(D)$. Indeed, if we let $AB$ and $CD$ intersect at $T$ then we notice that triangles $ACT$ and $DBT$ share an incenter. So, \[ f(A) + f(C) + f(T) = f(B) + f(D) + f(T) \Leftrightarrow f(A) + f(C) = f(B) + f(D) \]as desired.
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IAmTheHazard
5000 posts
#16 • 1 Y
Y by apotosaurus
This might just be the most cursed solution to grace the entire AoPS forum to date.


Let $f(P)$ be the number assigned to a point $P$.

Consider the following configuration. Let $A,B,C$ be (fixed) points with $C$ on segment $\overline{AB}$. and $\ell$ be a line perpendicular to and passing through segment $\overline{AC}$. Let $I$ be a variable point on $\ell$. Let $D$ be the point such that $I$ is the incenter of $\triangle ABD$, and let $E$ be the point such that $I$ is the incenter of $\triangle CDE$. The latter two points don't always exist, but they will when $I$ lies within a certain distance of $\overline{AB}$. Observe that we have
$$f(A)+f(B)+f(D)=3f(I)=f(C)+f(D)+f(E) \implies f(E)=f(A)+f(B)-f(C),$$which is fixed.

I claim that $E$ varies along some projective algebraic plane curve as $I$ varies. That is, there exist real rational functions $f,g$ such that $E$ (on some subset of where it exists) can be parameterized as $(f(t),g(t))$ where $t$ varies in some interval. This is due to the theory of moving points: if we move $I$ linearly, we can obtain $\overline{AD}$ and $\overline{BD}$ by reflecting $\overline{AB}$ over $\overline{AI}$ and $\overline{BI}$, so $D$ has a well-defined degree. Then we can obtain $\overline{DE}$ and $\overline{CE}$ by reflecting $\overline{CD}$ over $\overline{DI}$ and $\overline{CI}$, so $E$ has a well-defined degree too. $E$ thus varies along some projective algebraic plane curve as desired.

By implicit differentiation, the value of the second derivative $\tfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}$ at $(f(t),g(t))$ is now a real rational function in $t$, so there exist finitely many points where its sign changes. Take some finite contiguous section $\mathcal{S}$ of the locus of $E$ where the curve is always concave or always convex (WLOG concave) and where no two points on this curve have the same $y$-coordinate. Fix a tiny open disc $\mathcal{D}$ lying close to but entirely above $\mathcal{S}$ (so there exists a point on $\mathcal{S}$ lying directly below any point in $\mathcal{D}$, and $\mathcal{D}$ does not intersect $\mathcal{S}$) and let $Q$ be a point directly above the center of $\mathcal{D}$ which lies very far above $Q$.

Let $P$ be any point in $\mathcal{D}$: I claim that there exist points $X,Y \in \mathcal{S}$ such that $P$ is the incenter of $\triangle QXY$. To do this, we vary a circle $\Omega$ of radius $r$ centered at $B$ and let $X',Y'$ be the points where the tangents from $Q$ to $\Omega$ first intersect $\mathcal{S}$, which exist by our definition of $\mathcal{D}$. Consider the expression $d(P,\overline{X'Y'})-r$, where $d$ denotes signed distance and is positive if $P$ lies above line $\overline{X'Y'}$ and negative otherwise ($\overline{X'Y'}$ being vertical never happens). If this expression is positive, then $\Omega$ lies entirely in the interior of $\triangle QX'Y'$, and if it's negative, then $\Omega$ lies partially outside $\triangle QX'Y'$. The expression is clearly continuous in $r$ and positive as $r \to 0^+$. Moreover, when $r$ is chosen minimally so that $\Omega$ intersects $\mathcal{S}$ (so they're tangent), because $\mathcal{S}$ is convex, the intersection point lies nonstrictly $\overline{X'Y'}$ and thus outside $\triangle QX'Y'$, so the expression is nonpositive. Thus this expression is $0$ for some value of $r$ by the intermediate value theorem, at which point $\Omega$ will be the incenter of $\triangle QX'Y'$ as desired (by choosing $(X,Y)=(X',Y')$ for this value of $r$).

Then, since $f(\mathcal{S})$ is fixed and $f(Q)$ is fixed, $f(P)$ should also be fixed, so we find that $f$ is constant on $\mathcal{B}$. Now, consider two points $A,B \in \mathcal{B}$ such that the circle with diameter $\overline{AB}$ is contained entirely in $\mathcal{B}$. Varying a point $I$ along the perpendicular bisector of $\overline{AB}$ lying inside this circle with diameter $\overline{AB}$ and letting $C$ be the point such that $\triangle ABC$ has incircle $I$, we find that the locus of $C$ is the entire perpendicular bisector minus its intersection with $\overline{AB}$, so $f$ is also constant (and equal to its constant value on $\mathcal{B}$) along the entire perpendicular bisector. Now rotating $\overline{AB}$ about its midpoint and continually applying this fact implies $f$ is constant everywhere, as desired. $\blacksquare$
This post has been edited 2 times. Last edited by IAmTheHazard, Feb 26, 2024, 7:08 PM
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yofro
3145 posts
#17
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Solved with davidkong, TheBeast5520, RubiksCube3.1415.

Let $p$ be the real number assigned to $P$. The key idea is the following picture:
https://cdn.discordapp.com/attachments/1211416851301797979/1219047430339825778/image.png?ex=6609e164&is=65f76c64&hm=99e50d2d44f0ed03d26c64761dfc51ca53d7bcd698b55d13811b58e3a360e907&

We will be using the triangles $\triangle ABC, \triangle DEF, \triangle ABG, \triangle DFG$. Clearly, $\triangle ABC$ and $\triangle DEF$ share an incenter, so $a+b+c=d+e+f$. Notice that $AXDG$ is a kite, so it has an incircle. This incircle is the incircle of $\triangle ABG$ and $\triangle DFG$, so they also share an incenter: $a+b+g=d+f+g\implies a+b=d+f$. Therefore, $c=e$.

Rotating and translating the picture to replace $C, E$ with any points $P, Q$, we get the desired result.
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dolphinday
1313 posts
#18 • 1 Y
Y by NerdyNashville
Let $f(X)$ be the corresponding number for some point $X$ in the plane.
Let $ABCDEF$ be a regular hexagon with the incenter of both $\triangle ACE$ and $\triangle BDF$ being $I$. Then let $AB \cap CD = G$. Then notice that $\triangle GAC$ is a reflection of $\triangle GDB$ over the angle bisector of $\angle AGD$ so the angle bisectors of $\angle GAC$, $\angle BDG$ and $\angle AGD$ all concur. This implies that $\triangle AGC$ and $\triangle BDG$ have a shared incenter, so $f(A) + f(G) + f(C) = f(B) + f(D) + f(G)$. However from earlier we know that $\triangle ACE$ and $\triangle BDF$ share an incenter so $f(A) + f(C) + f(E) = f(B) + f(D) + f(F)$, so combining the two equations gives $f(E) = f(F)$. Varying hexagon $ABCDEF$ gives us that all points are equal, done.
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khina
993 posts
#19 • 1 Y
Y by dolphinday
Hmm here is an interesting way to state the main lemma of this problem. Also this is not 35 MOHS.

LEMMA: There exists a hexagon $ABCDEF$ such that $ACE$ and $BDF$ share an incenter $I$, such that if the incenters of $ABC$ and $DEF$ are $I_1$ and $I_2$ respectively, then $\angle{I_1II_2}$ is obtuse but not straight.

Proof: Pick $ACE, BDF$ equilateral and cocentric such that $\angle{ACB}$ is small. Details are left to the reader. $\blacksquare$.

Now in the diagram above, note that since $\angle{I_1II_2}$ is obtuse but not straight, there exists a point $X$ such that $I$ is the incenter of $I_1I_2X$. Note however that the arithmetic mean of $f(I_1)$ and $f(I_2)$ is the arithmetic mean of $f(A), f(B), f(C), f(D), f(E), f(F)$, which is $f(I)$. But this is also the arithmetic mean of $f(I_1), f(I_2), f(X)$, so we get $f(X) = f(I)$. Now a composition of a rotation, dilation, and translation maps the pair $(X, I)$ onto any pair of points in the plane, as desired.
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OronSH
1720 posts
#20
Y by
In $\triangle ABC$ with incenter $I$ let $D,E,F$ be the incenters of $\triangle BIC,\triangle AIC,\triangle AIB$. We claim there exists $\triangle ABC$ such that $I$ is not the incenter of $DEF$.

To do this fix $A$ and line $BC$ and vary $B,C$ such that $ABC$ is isosceles. As $B,C$ go to infinity, we can check $90^\circ+\tfrac12\angle FDE-\angle FIE$ goes to $\arctan\tfrac12\ne 0$ so it is impossible for $I$ to have always been the incenter of $DEF$.

Now that the claim is proven let $X$ be the actual incenter of $DEF$ and notice we must have $f(X)=f(I)=\tfrac13(f(A)+f(B)+f(C))$. Thus for any $P,Q$ take the spiral similarity sending $XI$ to $PQ$ and do the same thing on the image of $\triangle ABC$ to get $f(P)=f(Q)$ as desired.
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Ritwin
150 posts
#21 • 1 Y
Y by OronSH
I'm pretty sure this is a new solution :D

Denote the value assignment by $f \colon {\mathbb R}^2 \to {\mathbb R}$.

Claim: Fix an arbitrary directed line $\ell$. Let $P$ be a variable point in the left halfplane determined by $\ell$, and $P'$ be the reflection of $P$ in $\ell$. Then $f(P) - f(P')$ is invariant.
Proof. Let $B$ and $C$ be two arbitrary points on the same side of $\ell$, and let $A = BC \cap \ell$. Let $B'$ and $C'$ be the reflections of $B$ and $C$ in $\ell$.
Then $ABC'$ and $AB'C$ have a common incenter, so \[ f(B) + f(C') = f(B') + f(C) \implies f(B) - f(B') = f(C) - f(C'). \]This proves the desired claim. $\square$
Denote the constant value by $\kappa(\ell)$.

Claim: Let $\ell_x$, $\ell_y$, and $\ell_z$ be three concurrent directed lines whose angles are in this order. Then \[ \kappa(\ell_y) = \kappa(\ell_x) + \kappa(\ell_z). \]Proof. Let the lines concur at $O$. Consider a triangle $XYZ$ with circumcenter $O$, and sides $XY \perp \ell_z$, $YZ \perp \ell_x$, and $ZX \perp \ell_y$.
[asy]
unitsize(1cm);
pair O = (0, 0); real r = 4; pair A = r*dir(50),  pA = dir(140); pair B = r*dir(80),  pB = dir(170); pair C = r*dir(100), pC = dir(190);
draw(O -- 1.5A, black+1, arrow=Arrow(TeXHead)); draw(O -- 1.5B, black+1, arrow=Arrow(TeXHead)); draw(O -- 1.5C, black+1, arrow=Arrow(TeXHead));
label("$\ell_x$", 1.4A, SE); label("$\ell_y$", 1.4B, ESE); label("$\ell_z$", 1.4C, E);
pair Z = r*dir(30); pair Y = 2 * extension(Z, Z+pA, O, A) - Z; pair X = 2 * extension(Y, Y+pC, O, C) - Y;
draw(X -- Y -- Z -- cycle, blue); dot("$X$", X, S, blue); dot("$Y$", Y, N, blue); dot("$Z$", Z, S, blue); dot("$O$", O, S);  [/asy] Then we have \begin{align*} f(X) - f(Y) &= \kappa(\ell_z), \\ f(Y) - f(Z) &= \kappa(\ell_x), \\ f(X) - f(Z) &= \kappa(\ell_y). \end{align*}Adding the first two equations implies $\kappa(\ell_y) = \kappa(\ell_x) + \kappa(\ell_z)$, as desired. $\square$

Corollary: $\kappa(\ell) = 0$ for all $\ell$.
Proof. Consider fixing $\ell_x$ and $\ell_z$, while varying $\ell_y$ in between. The above claim means $\kappa(\ell_y)$ is the same for all these lines. This is valid as long as $\measuredangle(\ell_x, \ell_z) \in (0, \pi)$.

Let $\ell'$ denote the $180^{\circ}$ rotation of any line $\ell$. Note that $\kappa(\ell') + \kappa(\ell) = 0$. Select $\ell_a \in (\ell_x, \ell_z)$ and $\ell_b \in (\ell_x', \ell_z')$ so that $\measuredangle(\ell_a, \ell_b) \in (0, \pi)$. In particular we have \[ \kappa(\ell_a) + \kappa(\ell_b) = \kappa(\ell_x) + \kappa(\ell_z) + \kappa(\ell_x') + \kappa(\ell_z') = 0. \]Then by above, any line $\ell_c \in (\ell_a, \ell_b)$ has $\kappa(\ell_c) = 0$. In particular this also hits some $\ell_c \in (\ell_x, \ell_z)$. Thus $\kappa(\ell) = 0$ for any line through $O$, and the same reasoning applies to every line. $\square$

Thus $f(P)$ is constant. $\blacksquare$
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